Complete Rules and Regulations

At the regular meeting of the Board of Park Commissioners of Five Rivers MetroParks held on March 13, 2009, the Board of Park Commissioners adopted the Code of Rules and Regulations of Five Rivers MetroParks, which is a codification of existing park rules and regulations supplemented by state law. The abbreviated list and language above contains a sample of these rules and regulations and is not to be construed as a complete list of said rules and regulations. The complete text of the Rules and Regulations of Five Rivers MetroParks may be obtained or viewed at the Main Office of Five Rivers MetroParks, 409 E. Monument Ave., Third Floor, Dayton, OH 45402., viewing the content below or by downloading the PDF from on this web site.

FIVE RIVERS METROPARKS CODE OF RULES AND REGULATIONS

Manuscript contains: Local legislation current through 8-1-2022, State legislation current through 1-6-2023

TITLE I: GENERAL PROVISIONS

Chapter 10. GENERAL PROVISIONS

Section

10.01 Title of code
10.02 Authority
10.03 Interpretation
10.04 Application to future Rules and Regulations
10.05 Captions
10.06 Definitions
10.07 Rules of interpretation
10.08 Severability
10.09 Reference to other sections
10.10 Reference to offices
10.11 Errors and omissions
10.12 Official time
10.13 Reasonable time
10.14 Rules and Regulations repealed
10.15 Rules and Regulations unaffected
10.16 Effective date of Rules and Regulations
10.17 Repeal or modification of Rules and Regulations
10.18 Rules and regulations which amend or supplement code
10.19 Section histories; statutory references
10.99 General penalty

§ 10.01  TITLE OF CODE.

This codification of Rules and Regulations by and for the Five Rivers MetroParks and the Board of Park Commissioners of Five Rivers MetroParks shall be designated as the Code of Rules and Regulations of the Five Rivers MetroParks and may be so cited.

(Prior Code, §10.01)

§ 10.02  AUTHORITY.

The following Rules and Regulations set forth in this code are adopted by the Board of Park Commissioners of Five Rivers MetroParks, pursuant to R.C. §1545.09, for the preservation of good order within and adjacent to parks and reservations of land, and for the protection and preservation of the parks, parkways, and other reservations of land under its jurisdiction and control and of property and natural life therein.

(Prior Code, §10.02)  (Rules and Regs. §1)

§ 10.03  INTERPRETATION.

Unless otherwise provided herein, or by law or implication required, the same rules of construction, definition, and application shall govern the interpretation of this code as those governing the interpretation of state law.

(Prior Code, §10.03)

§ 10.04  APPLICATION TO FUTURE RULES AND REGULATIONS.

All provisions of Title I compatible with future legislation shall apply to Rules and Regulations hereafter adopted, amending or supplementing this code unless otherwise specifically provided.

(Prior Code, §10.04)

§ 10.05  CAPTIONS.

Headings and captions used in this code other than the title, chapter, and section numbers are employed for reference purposes only and shall not be deemed a part of the text of any section.

(Prior Code, §10.05)

§ 10.06  DEFINITIONS.

(A)  General rule. Words and phrases shall be taken in their plain, or ordinary and usual sense. However, technical words and phrases having a peculiar and appropriate meaning in law shall be understood according to their technical import.

(B)  Definitions. For the purpose of this code, the following definitions shall apply unless the context clearly indicates or requires a different meaning.

ANOTHER. When used to designate the owner of property which is the subject of an offense, includes not only natural persons but also every other owner of property.

BOARD OF PARK COMMISSIONERS or BOARD. The Board of Park Commissioners of Five Rivers MetroParks.

CODE, THIS CODE or THIS CODE OF RULES AND REGULATIONS. The Five Rivers MetroParks Code of Rules and Regulations, as modified by amendment, revision, and adoption of new titles, chapters, or sections.

COUNTY. Any county in which there exists a MetroParks facility.

IMPRISONED. Shall have the same meaning as in R.C. §1.05.

KEEPER or PROPRIETOR. Includes all persons, whether acting by themselves or as a servant, agent, or employee.

LAND or REAL ESTATE. Includes rights and easements of incorporeal nature.

LEGISLATIVE AUTHORITY. The Board of Park Commissioners of Five Rivers MetroParks.

MAY. Is permissive.

METROPARKS. Five Rivers MetroParks (formerly known as the Montgomery County Park District).

MONTH. A calendar month.

MOTORBOAT. Any watercraft propelled by any mechanical device, electric motor, or internal combustion engine.

MOTOR VEHICLE. Any vehicle propelled or drawn by power other than muscular power.

OATH. Includes affirmation; and SWEAR includes affirm.

OWNER. When applied to property, includes any part owner, joint owner, or tenant in common of the whole or part of such property.

PARK. Any land or water area owned, leased, managed, or otherwise controlled by Five Rivers MetroParks.

PEACE OFFICER. A MetroParks Ranger qualified to enforce the rules and regulations of Five Rivers MetroParks pursuant to R.C. §1545.13, and every other law enforcement officer of the State of Ohio or of any political subdivision thereof, including, but not limited to, state highway patrol officer, sheriffs, deputy sheriffs, constables, and Division of Wildlife game protectors. MetroParks Rangers, as defined herein, are not members of a police department, as defined in R.C. ‘§4117.01(F)(2) and 4117.01(N).

PERSON. Includes an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, and association.

PERSONAL PROPERTY. Includes all property except real.

PRECEDING or FOLLOWING. Next before or next after, respectively.

PREMISES. As applied to property, includes land and buildings.

PROPERTY. Includes real, personal, mixed estates, and interests.

PUBLIC AUTHORITY. Includes boards of education; the municipal, county, state, or federal government, its officers, or an agency thereof; or any duly authorized public official.

PUBLIC PLACE. Includes any street, sidewalk, park, cemetery, school yard, body of water or watercourse, public conveyance, or any other place for the sale of merchandise, public accommodation, or amusement.

R.C. or REVISED CODE. Refers to the Revised Code of Ohio.

REAL PROPERTY. Includes lands, tenements, and hereditaments.

REGISTERED MAIL. Includes certified mail; and CERTIFIED MAIL includes registered mail.

ROAD. Includes alleys, avenues, boulevards, lanes, streets, highways, viaducts, and all other public thoroughfares which are adjacent to or through the Five Rivers MetroParks and which are designed and intended for motor vehicle traffic.

SHALL. Is mandatory.

SIDEWALK. The portion of the street between the curb line and the adjacent property line intended for the use of pedestrians.

STATE. The State of Ohio.

SUBCHAPTER. A division of a chapter, designated in this code by a heading in the chapter analysis and a capitalized heading in the body of the chapter, setting apart a group of sections related by the subject matter of the heading. Not all chapters have SUBCHAPTERS.

TENANT or OCCUPANT. As applied to premises, includes any person holding a written or oral lease, or who actually occupies the whole or any part of such premises, alone or with others.

TRAIL. Includes footpaths, bikepaths, horsepaths, and all other passageways maintained by MetroParks, and which are not specifically reserved for motor vehicle traffic.

VEHICLE. Everything on wheels.

WATERCRAFT. Any vessel designed for navigation on water, including, but not limited to, any rowboat, sailboat, personal watercraft, or motorboat.

WATERS. Any lake, pond, reservoir, stream, channel, lagoon, or other body of water, or any part thereof, whether natural or artificial, located in or adjoining a park.

WEEK. Seven consecutive days.

WHOEVER. Includes all persons, natural and artificial; partners; principals, agents, and employees; and all officials, public or private.

WRITTEN or IN WRITING. Includes printing and any representation of words, letters, symbols, or figures; this provision does not affect any law relating to signatures.

YEAR. Twelve consecutive months.

(Prior Code, §10.06)  (Rules and Regs. §2)  (Amendment approved 8-1-2022)

§ 10.07  RULES OF INTERPRETATION.

The construction of all rules and regulations of the MetroParks shall be by the following rules, unless such construction is plainly repugnant to the intent of the legislative body or of the context of the same rule or regulation.

(A)  AND or OR. Either conjunction shall include the other as if written and/or, if the sense requires it.

(B) Acts by assistants. When a statute, ordinance, rule or regulation requires an act to be done which, by law, an agent or deputy as well may do as the principal, such requisition shall be satisfied by the performance of such act by an authorized agent or deputy.

(C)  Gender; singular and plural; tenses. Words denoting the masculine gender shall be deemed to include the feminine and neuter genders; words in the singular shall include the plural, and words in the plural shall include the singular; the use of a verb in the present tense shall include the future, if applicable.

(D)  General term. A general term following specific enumeration of terms is not to be limited to the class enumerated unless expressly so limited.

(Prior Code, §10.07)

§ 10.08  SEVERABILITY.

If any provisions of a section of these codified rules and regulations or the application thereof to any person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other provisions or applications of the section or related sections which can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions are severable.

(R.C. §1.50)  (Prior Code, §10.08)

§ 10.09  REFERENCE TO OTHER SECTIONS.

Whenever in one section reference is made to another section hereof, such reference shall extend and apply to the section referred to as subsequently amended, revised, recodified, or renumbered unless the subject matter is changed or materially altered by the amendment or revision.

(Prior Code, §10.09)

§ 10.10  REFERENCE TO OFFICES.

Reference to a public office or officer shall be deemed to apply to any office, officer, or employee of the MetroParks exercising the powers, duties, or functions contemplated in the provision, irrespective of any transfer of functions or change in the official title of the functionary.

(Prior Code, §10.10)

§ 10.11  ERRORS AND OMISSIONS.

If a manifest error is discovered, consisting of the misspelling of any words; the omission of any word or words necessary to express the intention of the provisions affected; the use of a word or words to which no meaning can be attached; or the use of a word or words when another word or words was clearly intended to express such intent, such spelling shall be corrected and such word or words supplied, omitted, or substituted as will conform with the manifest intention, and the provisions shall have the same effect as though the correct words were contained in the text as originally published. No alteration shall be made or permitted if any question exists regarding the nature or extent of such error.

(Prior Code, §10.11)

§ 10.12  OFFICIAL TIME.

The official time, as established by applicable state/federal laws, shall be the official time within the MetroParks for the transaction of all MetroParks business.

(Prior Code, §10.12)

§ 10.13  REASONABLE TIME.

(A)  In all cases where a rule or regulation requires an act to be done in a reasonable time or requires reasonable notice to be given, REASONABLE TIME OR NOTICE shall be deemed to mean the time which is necessary for a prompt performance of such act or the giving of such notice.

(B)  The time within which an act is to be done, as herein provided, shall be computed by excluding the first day and including the last. If the last day is Sunday, it shall be excluded.

(Prior Code, §10.13)

§ 10.14  RULES AND REGULATIONS REPEALED.

This code, from and after its effective date, shall contain all of the provisions of a general nature pertaining to the subjects herein enumerated and embraced. All prior Rules and Regulations pertaining to the subjects treated by this code shall be deemed repealed from and after the effective date of this code.

(Prior Code, §10.14)

§ 10.15  RULES AND REGULATIONS UNAFFECTED.

All Rules and Regulations of a temporary or special nature and all other Rules and Regulations pertaining to subjects not embraced in this code shall remain in full force and effect unless herein repealed expressly or by necessary implication.

(Prior Code, §10.15)

§ 10.16  EFFECTIVE DATE OF RULES AND REGULATIONS.

All rules and regulations passed by the legislative body requiring publication shall take effect from and after the due publication thereof, unless otherwise expressly provided. Rules and Regulations not requiring publication shall take effect from their passage, unless otherwise expressly provided.

(Prior Code, §10.16)

§ 10.17  REPEAL OR MODIFICATION OF RULES AND REGULATIONS.

(A)  Whenever any rule or regulation or part of a rule or regulation shall be repealed or modified by a subsequent rule or regulations, the rule or regulation or part of a rule or regulation thus repealed or modified shall continue in force until the due publication of the rule or regulation repealing or modifying it when publication is required to give effect thereto unless otherwise expressly provided.

(B)  No suit, proceedings, right, fine, forfeiture, or penalty instituted, created, given, secured, or accrued under any rule or regulation previous to its repeal shall in any way be affected, released, or discharged, but may be prosecuted, enjoyed, and recovered as fully as if the rule or regulation had continued in force unless it is otherwise expressly provided.

(C)  When any rule or regulation repealing a former rule, regulation, clause, or provision shall be itself repealed, the repeal shall not be construed to revive the former rule, regulation, clause, or provision, unless it is expressly provided.

(Prior Code, §10.17)

§ 10.18  RULES AND REGULATIONS WHICH AMEND OR SUPPLEMENT CODE.

(A)  If the legislative body shall desire to amend any existing chapter or section of this code, the chapter or section shall be specifically repealed and a new chapter or section, containing the desired amendment, substituted in its place.

(B)  Any rule or regulation which is proposed to add to the existing code a new chapter or section shall indicate, with reference to the arrangement of this code, the proper number of such chapter or section. In addition to such indication thereof as may appear in the text of the proposed rule or regulation, a caption or title shall be shown in concise form above the rule or regulation.

(Prior Code, §10.18)

§ 10.19  SECTION HISTORIES; STATUTORY REFERENCES.

(A)  As histories for the code sections, the specific section number of the original rules and regulations is listed following the text of the code section. Example: (Rules and Regs. §2)

(B)  (1)   If a statutory cite is included in the history, this indicates that the text of the section reads substantially the same as the statute.

Example: (R.C. §733.48)  (Rules and Regs. §4)

(2)   If a statutory cite is set forth as a statutory reference following the text of the section, this indicates that the reader should refer to that statute for further information. Example:

§ 39.01  PUBLIC RECORDS AVAILABLE.

This park district shall make available to any person for inspection or copying all public records, unless

otherwise exempted by state law.

Statutory reference:

Inspection of public records, see R.C. 149.43

(Prior Code, §10.19)

§ 10.99  GENERAL PENALTY.

(A)  Violations; ejection from park.

(1)   Police officers may order any person violating any of the provisions of these Rules and Regulations to leave a park and no person shall fail to obey such an order.

(2)   Any person repeatedly violating these Rules and Regulations may lose the privilege of entering a park for a period of time as designated by the Chief Executive Officer.

(Prior Code, §10.98)  (Rules and Regs. §20)

(B)  General penalty. Pursuant to R.C. §1545.99, any person who violates any provision of the Rules and Regulations shall be fined not more than $150 for a first offense; for each subsequent offense, such person shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(Prior Code, §10.99)  (Rules and Regs. §22)

Statutory reference:

State law penalty, see R.C. 1545.99

TITLE III: ADMINISTRATION

Chapter 30. GENERAL PROVISIONS

Section

30.01 Application of Title III
30.02 Park Commissioners
30.03 Board of Park Commissioners; employees
30.04 Bylaws, rules, and regulations
30.05 Employees
30.06 Park commission employees designated as law enforcement officers
30.07 Mutual aid contracts
30.08 Providing police service without contract

§ 30.01  APPLICATION OF TITLE III.

Title III of this code of rules and regulations is designed to include and incorporate, insofar as is practical, legislation concerning the organization, qualifications, appointment, terms of office, compensation, and the powers and duties of the officials and Board of the Five Rivers MetroParks. Pertinent sections of the Revised Code of Ohio relative to these offices and boards have been assembled and adopted as a part of this title. No material changes of the code sections referred to by annotation have been made. The purpose of including these sections is to afford easy reference to the statutory provisions.

(Prior Code, §30.01)

§ 30.02  PARK COMMISSIONERS.

(A)  Appointment. Upon the creation of a park district, the probate judge shall appoint three Commissioners who shall take office immediately and whose terms shall expire one, two, and three years, respectively, from the first day of January next after the date of their appointment. Thereafter, their successors shall be appointed by the probate judge for terms of three years.

(B)  Oath. Before entering upon the performance of the duties of the office, each Commissioner shall take an oath to perform faithfully the duties of the office and, except as otherwise provided in R.C. ‘ 3.061, shall give bond for that faithful performance in the sum of $5,000. The bond shall be approved by and filed with the County Auditor.

(C)  Compensation. The Commissioners shall serve without compensation, but shall be allowed their actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

(D)  Membership. Any Board of Park Commissioners of a park district may elect to expand the membership of the Board from three members to five members upon a majority vote of the Board. Upon such a vote, the Board shall certify to the probate judge a resolution requesting the judge to appoint two additional members to the Board. The probate judge shall appoint those additional members, and they shall take office immediately upon their appointment. One member shall be appointed to a term that expires on the first day of January of the year following the year of that member’s appointment, and one member shall be appointed to a term that expires on the first day of January of the second year following the year of that member’s appointment. Thereafter, their successors shall be appointed by the probate judge for terms of three years.

(R.C. §1545.05)  (Prior Code, §30.02)

§ 30.03  BOARD OF PARK COMMISSIONERS; EMPLOYEES.

The Commissioners appointed in accordance with R.C. §1545.05 or pursuant to R.C. §1545.041 shall constitute the Board of Park Commissioners of the park district. Such Board shall be a body politic and corporate, and may sue and be sued as provided in R.C. ‘§1545.01 to 1545.28. Such Board may employ a secretary and such other employees as are necessary in the performance of the powers conferred in such sections. The Board may appoint a treasurer to act as custodian of the Board’s funds and as fiscal officer for the park district. For the purposes of acquiring, planning, developing, protecting, maintaining, or improving lands and facilities thereon under R.C. §1545.11, and for other types of assistance which it finds necessary in carrying out its duties under R.C. Chapter 1545, the Board may hire and contract for professional, technical, consulting, and other special services, including, in accordance with R.C. ‘ 309.09(D), the legal services of the prosecuting attorney of the county in which the park district is located, and may purchase goods. In procuring any goods with a cost in excess of $50,000, the Board shall contract as a contracting authority under R.C. ‘§307.86 to 307.91, to the same extent and with the same limitations as a board of county commissioners. In procuring services, the Board shall contract in the manner and under procedures established by the bylaws of the board as required in R.C. §1545.09.

(R.C. §1545.07)  (Prior Code, §30.03)

§ 30.04  BYLAWS, RULES, AND REGULATIONS.

(A)  The Board of Park Commissioners shall adopt such bylaws and rules as the Board considers advisable for the preservation of good order within and adjacent to parks and reservations of land, and for the protection and preservation of the parks, parkways, and other reservations of land under its jurisdiction and control and of property and natural life therein. The Board shall also adopt bylaws or rules establishing a procedure for contracting for professional, technical, consulting, and other special services. Any competitive bidding procedures of the Board do not apply to the purchase of benefits for park district officers or employees when such benefits are provided through a health and welfare trust fund administered through or in conjunction with a collective bargaining representative of the park district employees, as authorized in R.C. §1545.071. Summaries of the bylaws and rules shall be published as provided in the case of ordinances of municipal corporations under R.C. ‘ 731.21 before taking effect.

(B)  (1)   As used in division (B)(2) below, SIMILAR VIOLATION UNDER STATE LAW means a violation of any section of the Ohio Revised Code, other than division (C) below, that is similar to a violation of a bylaw or rule adopted under division (A) above.

(2)   The Board of Park Commissioners may adopt by bylaw a penalty for a violation of any bylaw or rule adopted under division (A) above, and any penalty so adopted shall not exceed in severity whichever of the following is applicable:

(a)   The penalty designated under the Ohio Revised Code for a violation of the state law that is similar to the bylaw or rule for which the Board adopted the penalty; and

(b)   For a violation of a bylaw or rule adopted under division (A) above for which the similar violation under state law does not bear a penalty or for which there is no similar violation under state law, a fine of not more than $150 for a first offense and not more than $1,000 for each subsequent offense.

(3)   A summary of any bylaw adopted under division (B)(2) above shall be published as provided in the case of ordinances of municipal corporations under R.C. §731.21 before taking effect.

(C)  No person shall violate any bylaws or rules adopted under division (A) above. All fines collected for any violation of this section shall be paid into the treasury of such Park Board.

(Prior Code, §30.04)

§ 30.05  EMPLOYEES.

(A)  The Board of Commissioners may employ a secretary and such other employees as are necessary in the performance of the powers conferred upon the Board.

(R.C. §1545.07)

(B)  (1)   Acts of employees of MetroParks, to the extent necessary for the performance of their authorized duties, shall be exempt from the provisions of these Rules and Regulations.

(2)   Acts of employees of the Miami Conservancy District on land leased by MetroParks from the Miami Conservancy District, or of employees of the City of Dayton on land leased from or managed in conjunction with the City of Dayton, to the extent necessary for the performance of their authorized duties, shall be exempt from the provisions of these Rules and Regulations.

(3)   The Chief Executive Officer may, from time to time, designate a MetroParks employee, employees, or other person to exercise any authority permitted him or her under these Rules and Regulations.

(Prior Code, §30.05)  (Rules and Regs. §19)

§ 30.06  PARK COMMISSION EMPLOYEES DESIGNATED AS LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICERS.

(A)  As used in this section, FELONY has the same meaning as in R.C. §109.511.

(B)  The employees that the Board of Park Commissioners designates for that purpose may exercise all the powers of police officers within and adjacent to the lands under the jurisdiction and control of the Board or when acting as authorized by R.C. ‘§1545.131 or 1545.132. Before exercising the powers of police officers, the designated employees shall comply with the certification requirement established in R.C. §109.77, take an oath, and give a bond to the state in the sum that the board prescribes, for the proper performance of their duties in that respect. This division is subject to division (C) below.

(C)  (1)   The Board of Park Commissioners shall not designate an employee as provided in division (B) above on a permanent basis, on a temporary basis, for a probationary term, or on other than a permanent basis if the employee previously has been convicted of or has pleaded guilty to a felony.

(2)   (a)   The Board of Park Commissioners shall terminate the employment of an employee designated as provided in division (B) above if the employee does either of the following:

  1. Pleads guilty to a felony; and
  1. Pleads guilty to a misdemeanor pursuant to a negotiated plea agreement as provided in R.C. §2929.43(D) in which the employee agrees to surrender the certificate awarded to the employee under R.C. §109.77.

(b)   The Board shall suspend from employment an employee designated as provided in division (B) above if the employee is convicted, after trial, of a felony. If the employee files an appeal from that conviction and the conviction is upheld by the highest court to which the appeal is taken or if the employee does not file a timely appeal, the Board shall terminate the employment of that employee. If the employee files an appeal that results in the employee’s acquittal of the felony or conviction of a misdemeanor, or in the dismissal of the felony charge against the employee, the Board shall reinstate that employee. An employee who is reinstated under this division (C)(2)(b) shall not receive any back pay unless that employee’s conviction of the felony was reversed on appeal, or the felony charge was dismissed, because the court found insufficient evidence to convict the employee of the felony.

(3)   This division (C) does not apply regarding an offense that was committed prior to January 1, 1995.

(4)   The suspension from employment, or the termination of the employment, of an employee under division (C)(2) above shall be in accordance with R.C. Chapter 119.

(R.C. §1545.13)  (Prior Code, §30.06)

§ 30.07  MUTUAL AID CONTRACTS.

(A)  The Board of Park Commissioners of a park district may enter into contracts with one or more townships, township police districts, joint police districts, municipal corporations, or county sheriffs of this state, with one or more township park districts created pursuant to R.C. §511.18 or other park districts, with one or more state universities or colleges, as defined in R.C. §3345.12, or with a contiguous political subdivision of an adjoining state, and a township, township police district, joint police district, municipal corporation, county sheriff, township park district, other park district, or state university or college may enter into a contract with a park district upon any terms that are agreed to by them, to allow the use of the park district police or law enforcement officers designated under R.C. ‘ 1545.13 to perform any police function, exercise any police power, or render any police service on behalf of the contracting entity that the entity may perform, exercise, or render.

(B)  Chapter 2744 of the Revised Code, insofar as it applies to the operation of police departments, applies to the contracting entities and to the members of the police force or law enforcement department when they are rendering service outside their own subdivisions pursuant to that contract.

(C)  Members of the police force or law enforcement department acting outside the political subdivision in which they are employed, pursuant to that contract, shall be entitled to participate in any indemnity fund established by their employer to the same extent as while acting within the employing subdivision. Those members shall be entitled to all the rights and benefits of R.C. Chapter 4123, to the same extent as while performing service within the subdivision.

(D)  The contracts entered into pursuant to this section may provide for the following:

(1)   A fixed annual charge to be paid at the times agreed upon and stipulated in the contract;

(2)   Compensation based upon the following:

(a)   A stipulated price for each call or emergency;

(b)   The number of members or pieces of equipment employed; and

(c)   The elapsed time of service required in each call or emergency.

(3)   Compensation for loss or damage to equipment while engaged in rendering police services outside the limits of the subdivision that owns and furnishes the equipment; and

(4)   Reimbursement of the subdivision in which the police force or law enforcement department members are employed for any indemnity award or premium contribution assessed against the employing subdivision for workers’ compensation benefits for injuries or death of its police force or law enforcement department members occurring while engaged in rendering police services pursuant to the contract.

(R.C. §1545.131)  (Prior Code, §30.07)

§ 30.08  PROVIDING POLICE SERVICE WITHOUT CONTRACT.

(A)  The police force or law enforcement department of any park district may provide police protection to any county, municipal corporation, township, township police district, or joint police district of this state, to any other park district or any township park district created pursuant to R.C. ‘ 511.18, or to a governmental entity of an adjoining state without a contract to provide police protection, upon the approval, by resolution, of the Board of Park Commissioners of the park district in which the police force or law enforcement department is located and upon authorization by an officer or employee of the police force or department providing the police protection who is designated by title of office or position, pursuant to the resolution of the Board of Park Commissioners, to give the authorization.

(B)  Chapter 2744 of the Revised Code, insofar as it applies to the operation of police departments, shall apply to any park district and to members of its police force or law enforcement department when those members are rendering police services pursuant to this section outside the park district by which they are employed.

(C)  Police force or law enforcement department members acting, as provided in this section, outside the park district by which they are employed shall be entitled to participate in any pension or indemnity fund established by their employer to the same extent as while acting within the park district by which they are employed. Those members shall be entitled to all rights and benefits of R.C. Chapter 4123 to the same extent as while performing services within the park district by which they are employed.

(R.C. §1545.132)  (Prior Code, §30.08)

APPENDIX: STATUTORY PROVISIONS OF R.C. CHAPTER 1545

Editor’s Note:
As park districts in Ohio are governed by the statutory provisions of R.C. Chapter 1545 and therefore often have need to refer to such provisions, we have included, in this appendix, the complete text of R.C. Chapter 1545

Section

Creation of Park Districts
1545.01 Park districts created
1545.02 Application to probate judge
1545.03 Notice and hearing
1545.04 Evidence – argument – judgment
1545.041 Conversion of township park district – resolution

Park Commissioners; Powers and Duties
1545.05 Park commissioners
1545.06 Removal of park commissioners – vacancy
1545.07 Board of park commissioners – employees
1545.071 Group insurance
1545.072 Policies for the use of park district credit card
1545.08 Reports of board of park commissioners
1545.081 Use of public funds to public information regarding activities related to liquor permits
1545.09 Bylaws and rules
1545.10 Contract with corporation or association maintaining museum of natural history
1545.11 Board of park commissioners – power to acquire lands
1545.12 Sale or lease of lands – notice – approval by probate court
1545.13 Park commission employees designated as law enforcement officers
1545.131 Mutual aid contracts
1545.132 Providing police service without contract
1545.14 Agreement with other public authorities to assume control of parks

Annexation; Improvements; Taxes and Assessments
1545.15 Annexation procedure
1545.16 Powers of budget commissioners, auditors, and treasurers in relation to park districts
1545.17 Improvement of public highway
1545.18 Assessment of cost of improvement – collection
1545.19 Assessment may be increased with consent of property owners
1545.20 Tax levy
1545.21 Tax levy for use of district – submission to electors – bonds
1545.211 Anticipation notes
1545.22 Depositories for funds – duties of county treasurer and county auditor
1545.23 Disposition of proceeds from sale or lease of park mineral rights

Bonds; Replacement Fund
1545.24 Issuance of bonds
1545.27 Bonds are lawful investments
1545.28 Replacement fund

Dissolution of Park District
1545.35 Dissolution of active park district
1545.36 Petition for dissolution of district
1545.37 Application for hearing on dissolution
1545.38 Proceedings for dissolution of inactive district
1545.39 Ceasing activity pending determination on petition
1545.40 Dissolution
1545.99 Penalty

CREATION OF PARK DISTRICTS

§ 1545.01  PARK DISTRICTS CREATED.

Park districts may be created which include all or a part of the territory within a county, and the boundary lines of such district shall be so drawn as not to divide any existing township or municipal corporation within such county.

(R.C. §1545.01)

§ 1545.02  APPLICATION TO PROBATE JUDGE.

Application for the creation of a park district shall be made to the probate judge of the county within which the district is to be located. Such application shall either be signed by a majority of the electors residing within the proposed district as determined by the number of electors voting at the most recent general election within such territory, or, in lieu thereof, shall be authorized by resolution adopted by the board of county commissioners, any board of township trustees, or legislative authority of any municipal corporation within such proposed district. Such application shall state the name of the proposed district, shall contain an accurate description of the territory to be included, and shall be accompanied with an accurate map or plat thereof.

(R.C. §1545.02)

§ 1545.03  NOTICE AND HEARING.

Upon the filing of the application provided for in section 1545.02 of the Revised Code, the probate judge shall fix a time for the hearing of such application which shall not be less than twenty nor more than forty days subsequent to the date of the filing of the application. Such judge shall publish notice of the filing of such application and the date of hearing thereof in two newspapers of general circulation within such district, or if there is but one newspaper of general circulation within such district, in such newspaper. If there is no newspaper of general circulation within such proposed district, then such judge shall post such notice in five of the most public places within such proposed district. Such notice shall be published or posted for a period of not less than fifteen days prior to the date fixed for the hearing. The hearing may be adjourned from time to time upon good cause shown.

(R.C. §1545.03)

§ 1545.04  EVIDENCE – ARGUMENT – JUDGMENT.

(A)  At a hearing on an application for the creation of a park district, evidence may be taken as in other civil cases in the probate court, and the probate judge shall hear all arguments for and against the creation of such district. If he finds that such application is signed or authorized as provided in section 1545.02 of the Revised Code, and that the creation of such district will be conducive to the general welfare, he shall enter an order creating the district under the name specified in the application.

(B)  The judge may amend or change the limits of the territory described in the application at the time of the hearing, provided that in no case shall he increase the limits or size of said district. In case any of the original territory is eliminated from the district as finally established, the boundary lines of the district as finally ordered by the court shall not divide any existing township or municipal corporation.

(R.C. §1545.04)

§ 1545.041  CONVERSION OF TOWNSHIP PARK DISTRICT – RESOLUTION.

(A)  Any township park district created pursuant to section 511.18 of the Revised Code that includes park land located outside the township in which the park district was established may be converted under the procedures provided in this section into a park district to be operated and maintained as provided for in this chapter, provided that there is no existing park district created under section 1545.04 of the Revised Code in the county in which the township park district is located. The proposed park district shall include within its boundary all townships and municipal corporations in which lands owned by the township park district seeking conversion are located, and may include any other townships and municipal corporations in the county in which the township park district is located.

(B)  Conversion of a township park district into a park district operated and maintained under this chapter shall be initiated by a resolution adopted by the board of park commissioners of the park district. Any resolution initiating a conversion shall include the following:

(1)   The name of the township park district seeking conversion;

(2)   The name of the proposed park district;

(3)   An accurate description of the territory to be included in the proposed district;

(4)   An accurate map or plat of the proposed park district. The resolution may also include a proposed tax levy for the operation and maintenance of the proposed park district. If such a tax levy is proposed, the resolution shall specify the annual rate of the tax, expressed in dollars for each one hundred thousand dollars of the county auditor’s appraised value and in mills for each dollar of taxable value, and the number of consecutive years the levy will be in effect. The annual rate of such a tax may not be higher than the total combined millage of all levies then in effect for the benefit of the township park district named in the resolution.

(C)  (1)   Upon adoption of the resolution provided for in division (B) of this section, the board of park commissioners of the township park district seeking conversion under this section shall certify the resolution to the county auditor, who shall certify to the board the information required for a tax levy under section 5705.03 of the Revised Code, in the same manner as required under that section.

(2)   The board shall certify the resolution and the county auditor’s certification to the board of elections of the county in which the park district is located no later than four p.m. of the seventy‑fifth day before the day of the election at which the question will be voted upon. Upon certification of the resolution to the board, the board of elections shall make the necessary arrangements to submit the question of conversion of the township park into a park district operated and maintained under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code, to the electors qualified to vote at the next primary or general election who reside in the territory of the proposed park district. The question shall provide for a tax levy if such a levy is specified in the resolution.

(D)  The ballot submitted to the electors as provided in division (C) of this section shall contain the following language:

AShall the _______________ (name of the township park district seeking conversion) be converted into a park district to be operated and maintained under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code under the name of _______________ (name of proposed park district), which park district shall include the following townships and municipal corporations:

(Name townships and municipal corporations)

Approval of the proposed conversion will result in the termination of all existing tax levies voted for the benefit of _______________ (name of the township park district sought to be converted) and in the levy of a new tax for the operation and maintenance of ______________ (name of proposed park district), that the county auditor estimates will collect $_____ annually, at a rate not exceeding _________ mills for each $1 of taxable value, which amounts to $_________ for each $100,000 of the county auditor’s appraised value, for _____ (number of years the millage is to be imposed) years, commencing on the ______ (year) tax duplicate.

 

 

 

For the proposed conversion

 

 

 

 

 

Against the proposed conversion

 

A

(E)  If the proposed conversion is approved by at least a majority of the electors voting on the proposal, the township park district that seeks conversion shall become a park district subject to Chapter 1545 of the Revised Code effective the first day of January following approval by the voters. The park district shall have the name specified in the resolution, and effective the first day of January following approval by the voters, the following shall occur:

(1)   The indebtedness of the former township park district shall be assumed by the new park district;

(2)   All rights, assets, properties, and other interests of the former township park district shall become vested in the new park district, including the rights to any tax revenues previously vested in the former township park district; provided, that all tax levies in excess of the ten mill limitation approved for the benefit of the former township park district shall be removed from the tax lists after the February settlement next succeeding the conversion. Any tax levy approved in connection with the conversion shall be certified as provided in section 5705.25 of the Revised Code.

(3)   The members of the board of park commissioners of the former township park district shall be the members of the board of park commissioners of the new park district, with all the same powers and duties as if appointed under section 1545.05 of the Revised Code. The term of each such commissioner shall expire on the first day of January of the year following the year in which his term would have expired under section 511.19 of the Revised Code. Thereafter, commissioners shall be appointed pursuant to section 1545.05 of the Revised Code.

(F)   As used in this section, Athe county auditor’s appraised value@ has the same meaning as in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code.

(R.C. §1545.041)

PARK COMMISSIONERS; POWERS AND DUTIES

§ 1545.05  PARK COMMISSIONERS.

(A)  Upon the creation of a park district, the probate judge shall appoint three commissioners who shall take office immediately and whose terms shall expire one, two, and three years, respectively, from the first day of January next after the date of their appointment. Thereafter, their successors shall be appointed by the probate judge for terms of three years. Before entering upon the performance of the duties of the office, each commissioner shall take an oath to perform faithfully the duties of the office and, except as otherwise provided in section 3.061 of the Revised Code, shall give bond for that faithful performance in the sum of five thousand dollars. The bond shall be approved by and filed with the county auditor. The commissioners shall serve without compensation, but shall be allowed their actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

(B)  Any board of park commissioners of a park district may elect to expand the membership of the board from three members to five members upon a majority vote of the board. Upon such a vote, the board shall certify to the probate judge a resolution requesting the judge to appoint two additional members to the board. The probate judge shall appoint those additional members, and they shall take office immediately upon their appointment. One member shall be appointed to a term that expires on the first day of January of the year following the year of that member’s appointment, and one member shall be appointed to a term that expires on the first day of January of the second year following the year of that member’s appointment. Thereafter, their successors shall be appointed by the probate judge for terms of three years.

(R.C. §1545.05)

§ 1545.06  REMOVAL OF PARK COMMISSIONERS – VACANCY.

Any park commissioner may be removed at the discretion of the probate judge, either upon complaint filed with such judge or upon his own motion. No such removal shall be made without giving such commissioner not less than ten days’ notice and a full opportunity to be heard in his own behalf in a public hearing. The order removing such commissioner shall state the reasons therefor and shall be entered upon the records of the probate court. In case of such removal, or in case of other vacancy in the office of commissioner, the vacancy shall be filled by the judge by appointment for the unexpired term.

(R.C. §1545.06)

§ 1545.07  BOARD OF PARK COMMISSIONERS – EMPLOYEES.

The commissioners appointed in accordance with section 1545.05 or pursuant to section 1545.041 of the Revised Code shall constitute the board of park commissioners of the park district. Such board shall be a body politic and corporate, and may sue and be sued as provided in sections 1545.01 to 1545.28 of the Revised Code. Such board may employ a secretary and such other employees as are necessary in the performance of the powers conferred in such sections. The board may appoint a treasurer to act as custodian of the board’s funds and as fiscal officer for the park district. For the purposes of acquiring, planning, developing, protecting, maintaining, or improving lands and facilities thereon under section 1545.11 of the Revised Code, and for other types of assistance which it finds necessary in carrying out its duties under Chapter 1545 of the Revised Code, the board may hire and contract for professional, technical, consulting, and other special services, including, in accordance with division (D) of section 309.09 of the Revised Code, the legal services of the prosecuting attorney of the county in which the park district is located, and may purchase goods. In procuring any goods with a cost in excess of fifty thousand dollars, the board shall contract as a contracting authority under sections 307.86 to 307.91 of the Revised Code, to the same extent and with the same limitations as a board of county commissioners. In procuring services, the board shall contract in the manner and under procedures established by the bylaws of the board as required in section 1545.09 of the Revised Code.

(R.C. §1545.07)

§ 1545.071  GROUP INSURANCE.

(A)  The board of park commissioners of any park district may procure and pay all or any part of the cost of group insurance policies that may provide benefits for hospitalization, surgical care, major medical care, disability, dental care, eye care, medical care, hearing aids, or prescription drugs, or sickness and accident insurance or a combination of any of the foregoing types of insurance or coverage for park district officers and employees and their immediate dependents issued by an insurance company duly authorized to do business in this state.

(B)  The board may procure and pay all or any part of the cost of group life insurance to insure the lives of park district employees.

(C)  The board also may contract for group health care services with health insuring corporations holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751 of the Revised Code provided that each officer or employee is permitted to:

(1)   Choose between a plan offered by an insurance company and a plan offered by a health insuring corporation and provided further that the officer or employee pays any amount by which the cost of the plan chosen by the officer or employee exceeds the cost of the plan offered by the board under this section;

(2)   Change the choice made under division (A) of this section at a time each year as determined in advance by the board.

(D)  Any appointed member of the board of park commissioners and the spouse and dependent children of the member may be covered, at the option and expense of the member, as a noncompensated employee of the park district under any benefit plan described in division (A) of this section. The member shall pay to the park district the amount certified to it by the benefit provider as the provider’s charge for the coverage the member has chosen under division (A) of this section. Payments for coverage shall be made, in advance, in a manner prescribed by the board. The member’s exercise of an option to be covered under this section shall be in writing, announced at a regular public meeting of the board, and recorded as a public record in the minutes of the board.

(E)  The board may provide the benefits authorized in this section by contributing to a health and welfare trust fund administered through or in conjunction with a collective bargaining representative of the park district employees.

(F)   The board may provide the benefits described in this section through an individual self‑insurance program or a joint self‑insurance program as provided in section 9.833 of the Revised Code.

(R.C. §1545.071)

§ 1545.072  POLICIES FOR THE USE OF PARK DISTRICT CREDIT CARD.

(A)  (1)   Not later than three months after the effective date of this amendment, a board of park commissioners of a park district that holds a credit card account on the effective date of this amendment shall adopt a written policy for the use of credit card accounts. Otherwise, a board shall adopt a written policy before first holding a credit card account.

(2)   The policy shall include provisions addressing all of the following:

(a)   The officers, positions, or appointees authorized to use park district credit card accounts;

(b)   The types of expenses for which a credit card account may be used;

(c)   The procedure for acquisition, use, and management of a credit card account and presentation instruments related to the account including cards and checks;

(d)   The procedure for submitting itemized receipts to the treasurer or the treasurer’s designee;

(e)   The procedure for credit card issuance, credit card reissuance, credit card cancellation, and the process for reporting lost or stolen credit cards;

(f)   The district’s credit card account’s maximum credit limit or limits;

(g)   The actions or omissions by an officer, employee, or appointee that qualify as misuse of a credit card account.

(B)  The name of the park district shall appear on each presentation instrument related to the account including cards and checks.

(C)  If the treasurer of the park district does not retain general possession and control of the credit card account and presentation instruments related to the account including cards and checks, the board shall appoint a compliance officer to perform the duties enumerated under division (D) of this section. The compliance officer may not use a credit card account and may not authorize an officer, employee, or appointee to use a credit card account. The treasurer is not eligible for appointment as compliance officer.

(D)  The compliance officer, if applicable, and the board at least quarterly shall review the number of cards and accounts issued, the number of active cards and accounts issued, the cards’ and accounts’ expiration dates, and the cards’ and accounts’ credit limits.

(E)  If the treasurer retains general possession and control of the credit card account and presentation instruments related to the account including cards and checks, and the board authorizes an officer, employee, or appointee to use a credit card, the treasurer may use a system to sign out credit cards to the authorized users. The officer, employee, or appointee is liable in person and upon any official bond the officer, employee, or appointee has given to the park district to reimburse the district treasury the amount for which the officer, employee, or appointee does not provide itemized receipts in accordance with the policy described in division (A) of this section.

(F)   The use of a credit card account for expenses beyond those authorized by the board constitutes misuse of a credit card account. An officer, employee, or appointee of a board of park commissioners or a public servant as defined under section 2921.01 of the Revised Code who knowingly misuses a credit card account held by the board violates section 2913.21 of the Revised Code.

(G)  The treasurer or the treasurer’s designee annually shall file a report with the board detailing all rewards received based on the use of the park district’s credit card account.

(H)  As used in this section, Acredit card account@ means any bank‑issued credit card account, store‑issued credit card account, financial institution‑issued credit card account, financial depository‑issued credit card account, affinity credit card account, or any other card account allowing the holder to purchase goods or services on credit or to transact with the account, and any debit or gift card account related to the receipt of grant moneys. ACredit card account@ does not include a procurement card account, gasoline or telephone credit card account, or any other card account where merchant category codes are in place as a system of control for use of the card account.

(R.C. §1545.072)

§ 1545.08  REPORTS OF BOARD OF PARK COMMISSIONERS.

The board of park commissioners shall compile and publish reports and information relating to the park district and to the proceedings and functions of the board. The board shall keep an accurate and permanent public record of all its proceedings.

(R.C. §1545.08)

§ 1545.081  USE OF PUBLIC FUNDS TO PUBLIC INFORMATION REGARDING ACTIVITIES RELATED TO LIQUOR PERMITS.

Notwithstanding division (C)(1)(b) of section 9.03 of the Revised Code, the board of park commissioners of a park district may use public funds to publish, advertise, or otherwise communicate information regarding activities related to a permit issued to the park district under Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code.

(R.C. §1545.081)

§ 1545.09  BYLAWS AND RULES.

(A)  The board of park commissioners shall adopt such bylaws and rules as the board considers advisable for the preservation of good order within and adjacent to parks and reservations of land, and for the protection and preservation of the parks, parkways, and other reservations of land under its jurisdiction and control and of property and natural life therein. The board shall also adopt bylaws or rules establishing a procedure for contracting for professional, technical, consulting, and other special services. Any competitive bidding procedures of the board do not apply to the purchase of benefits for park district officers or employees when such benefits are provided through a health and welfare trust fund administered through or in conjunction with a collective bargaining representative of the park district employees, as authorized in section 1545.071 of the Revised Code. Summaries of the bylaws and rules shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation within the park district, once a week for two consecutive weeks or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, before taking effect.

(B)  (1)   As used in division (B)(2) of this section, Asimilar violation under state law@ means a violation of any section of the Revised Code, other than division (C) of this section, that is similar to a violation of a bylaw or rule adopted under division (A) of this section.

(2)   The board of park commissioners may adopt by bylaw a penalty for a violation of any bylaw or rule adopted under division (A) of this section, and any penalty so adopted shall not exceed in severity whichever of the following is applicable:

(a)   The penalty designated under the Revised Code for a violation of the state law that is similar to the bylaw or rule for which the board adopted the penalty;

(b)   For a violation of a bylaw or rule adopted under division (A) of this section for which the similar violation under state law does not bear a penalty or for which there is no similar violation under state law, a fine of not more than one hundred fifty dollars for a first offense and not more than one thousand dollars for each subsequent offense.

(3)   A summary of any bylaw adopted under division (B)(2) of this section shall be published as provided in the case of ordinances of municipal corporations under section 731.21 of the Revised Code before taking effect.

(C)  No person shall violate any bylaws or rules adopted under division (A) of this section. All fines collected for any violation of this section shall be paid into the treasury of such park board.

(R.C. §1545.09)

§ 1545.10  CONTRACT WITH CORPORATION OR ASSOCIATION MAINTAINING MUSEUM OF NATURAL HISTORY.

The board of park commissioners may contract for a term not exceeding three years, upon such terms as the board deems expedient, with any private corporation or association not for profit maintaining a museum of natural history in any county within which the park district is located in whole or in part, or which has for its object the promotion of interest in or the conservation and preservation of the flora or fauna in any portion or all of the territory comprising the district, for the purpose of obtaining for such district such services and assistance as can be rendered by such corporation or association.

(R.C. §1545.10)

§ 1545.11  BOARD OF PARK COMMISSIONERS – POWER TO ACQUIRE LANDS.

(A)  The board of park commissioners may acquire lands either within or without the park district for conversion into forest reserves and for the conservation of the natural resources of the state, including streams, lakes, submerged lands, and swamplands, and to those ends may create parks, parkways, forest reservations, and other reservations and afforest, develop, improve, protect, and promote the use of the same in such manner as the board deems conducive to the general welfare. Such lands may be acquired by such board, on behalf of said district, (1) by gift or devise, (2) by purchase for cash, by purchase by installment payments with or without a mortgage, by entering into lease‑purchase agreements, by lease with or without option to purchase, or, (3) by appropriation. In furtherance of the use and enjoyment of the lands controlled by it, the board may accept donations of money or other property, or may act as trustees of land, money, or other property, and use and administer the same as stipulated by the donor, or as provided in the trust agreement. The terms of each such donation or trust shall first be approved by the probate court before acceptance by the board.

(B)  In case of appropriation, the proceedings shall be instituted in the name of the board, and shall be conducted in the manner provided in sections 163.01 to 163.22, inclusive, of the Revised Code.

(C)  This section applies to districts created prior to April 16, 1920.

(R.C. §1545.11)

§ 1545.12  SALE OR LEASE OF LANDS – NOTICE – APPROVAL BY PROBATE COURT.

(A)  Except as provided in division (B) of this section, if the board of park commissioners finds that any lands that it has acquired are not necessary for the purposes for which they were acquired by the board, it may sell and dispose of the lands upon terms the board considers advisable. The board also may lease or permit the use of any lands for purposes not inconsistent with the purposes for which the lands were acquired, and upon terms the board considers advisable. No lands shall be sold pursuant to this division without first giving notice of the board’s intention to sell the lands by publication once a week for four consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the district or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code. The notice shall contain an accurate description of the lands and shall state the time and place at which sealed bids will be received for the purchase of the lands, and the lands shall not thereafter be sold at private sale for less than the best and highest bid received without giving further notice as specified in this division.

(B)  (1)   After compliance with division (B)(2) of this section, the board of park commissioners may sell land upon terms the board considers advisable to any park district established under section 511.18 or Chapter 1545 of the Revised Code, any political subdivision of the state, the state or any department or agency of the state, or any department or agency of the federal government for conservation uses or for park or recreation purposes without the necessity of having to comply with division (A) of this section.

(2)   (a)   Before the board of park commissioners may sell land under division (B)(1) of this section, the board shall offer the land for sale to each of the following public agencies that is authorized to acquire, develop, and maintain land for conservation uses or for park or recreation purposes: each park district established under section 511.18 or Chapter 1545 of the Revised Code or political subdivision in which the land is located, each park district that is so established and that adjoins or each political subdivision that adjoins a park district so established or political subdivision in which the land is located, and each agency or department of the state or of the federal government that operates parks or conservation or recreation areas near the land. The board shall make the offer by giving a written notice that the land is available for sale, by first class mail, to these public agencies. A failure of delivery of the written notice to any of these public agencies does not invalidate any proceedings for the sale of land under this division. Any public agency that is so notified and that wishes to purchase the land shall make an offer to the board in writing not later than sixty days after receiving the written notice.

(b)   If there is only one offer to purchase the land made in that sixty‑day period, the board need not hold a public hearing on the offer. The board shall accept the offer only if it determines that acceptance of the offer will result in the best public use of the land.

(c)   If there is more than one offer to purchase the land made in that sixty‑day period, the board shall not accept any offer until the board holds a public hearing on the offers. If, after the hearing, the board decides to accept an offer, it shall accept the offer that it determines will result in the best public use of the land.

(C)  No lands shall be sold under this section at either public or private sale without the approval of the probate court of the county in which the lands are situated.

(R.C. §1545.12)

§ 1545.13  PARK COMMISSION EMPLOYEES DESIGNATED AS LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICERS.

(A)  As used in this section, Afelony@ has the same meaning as in section 109.511 of the Revised Code.

(B)  The employees that the board of park commissioners designates for that purpose may exercise all the powers of police officers within and adjacent to the lands under the jurisdiction and control of the board or when acting as authorized by section 1545.131 or 1545.132 of the Revised Code. Before exercising the powers of police officers, the designated employees shall comply with the certification requirement established in section 109.77 of the Revised Code, take an oath, and give a bond to the state in the sum that the board prescribes, for the proper performance of their duties in that respect. This division is subject to division (C) of this section.

(C)  (1)   The board of park commissioners shall not designate an employee as provided in division (B) of this section on a permanent basis, on a temporary basis, for a probationary term, or on other than a permanent basis if the employee previously has been convicted of or has pleaded guilty to a felony.

(2)   (a)   The board of park commissioners shall terminate the employment of an employee designated as provided in division (B) of this section if the employee does either of the following:

  1. Pleads guilty to a felony;
  1. Pleads guilty to a misdemeanor pursuant to a negotiated plea agreement as provided in division (D) of section 2929.43 of the Revised Code in which the employee agrees to surrender the certificate awarded to the employee under section 109.77 of the Revised Code.

(b)   The board shall suspend from employment an employee designated as provided in division (B) of this section if the employee is convicted, after trial, of a felony. If the employee files an appeal from that conviction and the conviction is upheld by the highest court to which the appeal is taken or if the employee does not file a timely appeal, the board shall terminate the employment of that employee. If the employee files an appeal that results in the employee’s acquittal of the felony or conviction of a misdemeanor, or in the dismissal of the felony charge against the employee, the board shall reinstate that employee. An employee who is reinstated under division (C)(2)(b) of this section shall not receive any back pay unless that employee’s conviction of the felony was reversed on appeal, or the felony charge was dismissed, because the court found insufficient evidence to convict the employee of the felony.

(3)   Division (C) of this section does not apply regarding an offense that was committed prior to January 1, 1995.

(4)   The suspension from employment, or the termination of the employment, of an employee under division (C)(2) of this section shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(R.C. §1545.13)

§ 1545.131  MUTUAL AID CONTRACTS.

(A)  The board of park commissioners of a park district may enter into contracts with one or more townships, township police districts, joint police districts, municipal corporations, or county sheriffs of this state, with one or more township park districts created pursuant to section 511.18 of the Revised Code or other park districts, with one or more state universities or colleges, as defined in section 3345.12 of the Revised Code, or with a contiguous political subdivision of an adjoining state, and a township, township police district, joint police district, municipal corporation, county sheriff, township park district, other park district, or state university or college may enter into a contract with a park district upon any terms that are agreed to by them, to allow the use of the park district police or law enforcement officers designated under section 1545.13 of the Revised Code to perform any police function, exercise any police power, or render any police service on behalf of the contracting entity that the entity may perform, exercise, or render.

(B)  Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, insofar as it applies to the operation of police departments, applies to the contracting entities and to the members of the police force or law enforcement department when they are rendering service outside their own subdivisions pursuant to that contract.

(C)  Members of the police force or law enforcement department acting outside the political subdivision in which they are employed, pursuant to that contract, shall be entitled to participate in any indemnity fund established by their employer to the same extent as while acting within the employing subdivision. Those members shall be entitled to all the rights and benefits of Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, to the same extent as while performing service within the subdivision.

(D)  The contracts entered into pursuant to this section may provide for the following:

(1)   A fixed annual charge to be paid at the times agreed upon and stipulated in the contract;

(2)   Compensation based upon the following:

(a)   A stipulated price for each call or emergency;

(b)   The number of members or pieces of equipment employed;

(c)   The elapsed time of service required in each call or emergency.

(3)   Compensation for loss or damage to equipment while engaged in rendering police services outside the limits of the subdivision that owns and furnishes the equipment;

(4)   Reimbursement of the subdivision in which the police force or law enforcement department members are employed for any indemnity award or premium contribution assessed against the employing subdivision for workers’ compensation benefits for injuries or death of its police force or law enforcement department members occurring while engaged in rendering police services pursuant to the contract.

(R.C. §1545.131)

§ 1545.132  PROVIDING POLICE SERVICE WITHOUT CONTRACT.

(A)  The police force or law enforcement department of any park district may provide police protection to any county, municipal corporation, township, township police district, or joint police district of this state, to any other park district or any township park district created pursuant to section 511.18 of the Revised Code, or to a governmental entity of an adjoining state without a contract to provide police protection, upon the approval, by resolution, of the board of park commissioners of the park district in which the police force or law enforcement department is located and upon authorization by an officer or employee of the police force or department providing the police protection who is designated by title of office or position, pursuant to the resolution of the board of park commissioners, to give the authorization.

(B)  Chapter 2744 of the Revised Code, insofar as it applies to the operation of police departments, shall apply to any park district and to members of its police force or law enforcement department when those members are rendering police services pursuant to this section outside the park district by which they are employed.

(C)  Police force or law enforcement department members acting, as provided in this section, outside the park district by which they are employed shall be entitled to participate in any pension or indemnity fund established by their employer to the same extent as while acting within the park district by which they are employed. Those members shall be entitled to all rights and benefits of Chapter 4123 of the Revised Code to the same extent as while performing services within the park district by which they are employed.

(R.C. §1545.132)

§ 1545.14  AGREEMENT WITH OTHER PUBLIC AUTHORITIES TO ASSUME CONTROL OF PARKS.

A board of park commissioners may by agreement with the legislative or other public authority in control of parks or park lands either within or without the park district, assume control of all or a portion of any existing parks or park lands or otherwise contract or cooperate with such public authority in connection with the use, development, improvement, and protection of parks or park lands. In such event, such parks or park lands may be developed, improved, and protected as in case of lands otherwise acquired by said board. This section does not authorize said board to acquire or control any park, park lands, parkways, playgrounds, other lands, or boulevards owned or controlled by any other public authority except by agreement as provided in this section.

(R.C. §1545.14)

ANNEXATION; IMPROVEMENTS; TAXES AND ASSESSMENTS

§ 1545.15  ANNEXATION PROCEDURE.

When conducive to the general welfare, any territory adjacent and contiguous to an existing park district, whether located within or without the county in which such district was created, may be annexed to such district. When a petition is filed with the board of park commissioners requesting such annexation, containing an accurate description of the territory proposed to be annexed, accompanied by an accurate map or plat of such territory, and signed either by a majority of the electors residing within such territory or by not less than fifty such electors, the board shall determine whether it is advisable that such annexation should be made. If the board determines in favor of such annexation, it shall make application to the probate court of the county in which such territory is located, setting forth the fact of the filing of such petition and the reasons why it is advisable that such territory should be annexed to such district. Any such board may of its motion file such petition in such court. Upon the filing of such petition, like proceedings shall be had as are provided in sections 1545.03 and 1545.04 of the Revised Code upon application for the creation of a park district, except that the territory so annexed may include a part only of an existing township or municipal corporation.

(R.C. §1545.15)

§ 1545.16  POWERS OF BUDGET COMMISSIONERS, AUDITORS, AND TREASURERS IN RELATION TO PARK DISTRICTS.

In the event of the annexation to a park district of territory located in a county other than the county in which such district was created, the budget commissioners of the county in which such annexed territory is located shall exercise, with reference to such annexed territory, the powers conferred upon budget commissioners by section 1545.20 of the Revised Code, and the county auditor and county treasurer of the county in which such annexed territory is located shall exercise, with reference to taxes levied and collected by the board of park commissioners upon such annexed territory, the powers conferred upon auditors and treasurers by section 1545.22 of the Revised Code.

(R.C. §1545.16)

§ 1545.17  IMPROVEMENT OF PUBLIC HIGHWAY.

When a public highway extends into or through a park area, or when a public highway forms all or part of a suitable connection between two or more park areas, and it is deemed advisable to make alterations in the route or width of such highway, or to grade, drain, pave, or otherwise improve such highway, boards of park commissioners may enter into agreements with the public authorities in charge or control of so much of said highway as lies within such park area or which forms the whole or part of a connecting link between two or more park areas, providing for the doing of any of such things, under the procedure authorized by law in case of such public authorities, and for the payment by such boards of so much of the cost thereof as is agreed upon. This section does not affect the legal status of such highway.

(R.C. §1545.17)

§ 1545.18  ASSESSMENT OF COST OF IMPROVEMENT – COLLECTION.

In the development and improvement of the lands acquired by a board of park commissioners, such board may assess such portion of the cost of such development or improvement as it deems equitable, not to exceed fifty per cent of such total cost, upon abutting, contiguous, adjacent, or otherwise specifically benefited lands, in an amount not in excess of and in proportion to the special benefits conferred upon such lands by such development or improvement. Such assessment shall be payable in not to exceed ten equal annual installments, and said board may borrow money in anticipation of the collection of such special assessments. The proceedings had in the levying and collection of such special assessments, including the issue of bonds of the park district in anticipation of the collection of deferred assessments, shall be as provided in case of the levy and assessment of special assessments for street improvements in municipal corporations, insofar as such proceedings are applicable. If any such assessment is twenty‑five dollars or less, or whenever the unpaid balance of any such assessment is twenty‑five dollars or less, such assessment shall be paid in full, and not in installments, at the time when the first or next installment would otherwise become due and payable.

(R.C. §1545.18)

§ 1545.19  ASSESSMENT MAY BE INCREASED WITH CONSENT OF PROPERTY OWNERS.

(A)  In case of any development or improvement, the assessments authorized by section 1545.18 of the Revised Code shall not in the aggregate exceed the cost of a development or improvement sufficient only to serve that need of the property to be assessed, unless the development or improvement has been petitioned for by the owners of not less than sixty per cent, both in foot frontage and in tax valuation, of the property to be assessed, consenting to a larger assessment than provided for in this section and section 1545.18 of the Revised Code, in which event such larger assessment may be levied to the extent specified in such petition.

(B)  Any owner of property to be assessed in accordance with section 1545.18 of the Revised Code may appeal to the probate court in the county in which such property is located from the action of the board of park commissioners in the matter of the determination of the aggregate amount to be assessed for any given development or improvement or in the matter of the determination of the assessment against any specific property, or both, in the manner provided in sections 6117.01 to 6117.40, inclusive, of the Revised Code, and the court may review and modify the action of the board with respect to such assessments.

(R.C. §1545.19)

§ 1545.20  TAX LEVY.

A board of park commissioners may levy taxes upon all the taxable property within the park district in an amount not in excess of one‑half of one mill upon each dollar of the district tax valuation in any one year, subject to the combined maximum levy for all purposes otherwise provided by law. After the budget commission of the county in which the district is located certifies such levy, or such modification thereof as it considers advisable, to the county auditor, he shall place it upon the tax duplicate. The board may then borrow money in anticipation of the collection of such tax, and issue the negotiable notes of such board therefor in an amount not in excess of fifty per cent of the proceeds of such tax, based upon the amount of the current tax valuation. Such notes shall not be issued for a period longer than one year, and shall be payable out of the proceeds of such levy. To the extent of such notes and the interest which accrues thereon such levy shall be exclusively appropriated to the payment of such notes. Any portion of such notes remaining unpaid through any deficiency in such levy shall be payable out of the next ensuing levy which shall be made by said board in the next ensuing year in an amount at least sufficient to provide for the payment of said notes, but not in excess of one-half of one mill in accordance with section 133.17 of the Revised Code.

(R.C. §1545.20)

§ 1545.21  TAX LEVY FOR USE OF DISTRICT – SUBMISSION TO ELECTORS – BONDS.

(A)  The board of park commissioners, by resolution, may submit to the electors of the park district the question of levying taxes for the use of the district. The resolution shall declare the necessity of levying such taxes, shall specify the purpose for which such taxes shall be used, the annual rate proposed, and the number of consecutive years the rate shall be levied. Such resolution shall be forthwith certified to the board of elections in each county in which any part of such district is located, not later than the ninetieth day before the day of the election, and the question of the levy of taxes as provided in such resolution shall be submitted to the electors of the district at a special election to be held on whichever of the following occurs first:

(1)   The day of the next general election;

(2)   The first Tuesday after the first Monday in May in any calendar year, except that if a presidential primary election is held in that calendar year, then the day of that election.

A resolution to renew, renew and increase, or renew and decrease any existing levy shall not be placed on the ballot unless the question is submitted at the general election held during the last year the tax to be renewed may be extended on the tax list, or at any election described in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section in the ensuing year. Such a resolution may specify that the renewal, increase, or decrease of the existing levy shall be extended on the tax list for the tax year specified in the resolution, which may be the last year the existing levy may be extended on the list for the ensuing year. If the renewal, increase, or decrease is to be extended on the tax list for the last tax year the existing levy would otherwise be extended, the existing levy shall not be extended on the tax list for that last year unless the question of the renewal, increase, or decrease is not approved by a majority of electors voting on the question, in which case the existing levy shall be extended on the tax list for that last year.

Except as otherwise prescribed in division (B) of this section, the ballot shall set forth the purpose for which the taxes shall be levied, the levy’s estimated annual collections, the annual rate of levy, expressed in mills for each dollar of taxable value and in dollars for each one hundred thousand dollars of the county auditor’s appraised value, and the number of years of such levy. If the tax is to be placed on the current tax list, the form of the ballot shall state that the tax will be levied in the current tax year and shall indicate the first calendar year the tax will be due.

(B)  (1)   If the resolution of the board of park commissioners provides that an existing levy will be renewed, increased, or decreased upon the passage of the ballot question, the form of the ballot shall be the same as prescribed for such levies in divisions (B) and (C) of section 5705.25 of the Revised Code.

(2)   If the resolution of the board of park commissioners provides that an existing levy will be canceled upon the passage of the new levy, the board shall request that the county auditor, in addition to the information the auditor is required to certify under section 5705.03 of the Revised Code, certify the estimated effective rate of the existing levy. In such an instance, the ballot must include a statement that: Aan existing levy of ___ mills (stating the original levy millage) for each $1 of taxable value, which amounts to $___ (estimated effective rate) for each $100,000 of the county auditor’s appraised value, having ___ years remaining, will be canceled and replaced upon the passage of this levy.@ In such case, the ballot may refer to the new levy as a Areplacement levy@ if the new millage does not exceed the original millage of the levy being canceled or as a Areplacement and additional levy@ if the new millage exceeds the original millage of the levy being canceled.

(C)  If a majority of the electors voting upon the question of such levy vote in favor thereof, such taxes shall be levied and shall be in addition to the taxes authorized by section 1545.20 of the Revised Code, and all other taxes authorized by law. The rate submitted to the electors at any one time shall not exceed two mills annually upon each dollar of taxable value unless the purpose of the levy includes providing operating revenues for one of Ohio’s major metropolitan zoos, as defined in section 4503.74 of the Revised Code, in which case the rate shall not exceed three mills annually upon each dollar of taxable value. When a tax levy has been authorized as provided in this section or in section 1545.041 of the Revised Code, the board of park commissioners may issue bonds pursuant to section 133.24 of the Revised Code in anticipation of the collection of such levy, provided that such bonds shall be issued only for the purpose of acquiring and improving lands. Such levy, when collected, shall be applied in payment of the bonds so issued and the interest thereon. The amount of bonds so issued and outstanding at any time shall not exceed one per cent of the total taxable value in such district. Such bonds shall bear interest at a rate not to exceed the rate determined as provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code.

(D)  As used in this section, Athe county auditor’s appraised value@ and Aestimated effective rate@ have the same meanings as in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code.

(R.C. §1545.21)

§ 1545.211  ANTICIPATION NOTES.

In addition to the authority conferred by section 1545.21 of the Revised Code, in anticipation of the collection of current revenues in and for any fiscal year, the board of park commissioners may borrow money and issue notes therefor in anticipation of the receipt of taxes for debt charges or current expenses to the extent necessary to meet such charges or expenses, but not in excess of the estimated receipts for the current tax year, less all advances. The sums so anticipated shall be deemed appropriated for the payment of such notes at maturity. The notes shall not run more than one year, nor bear interest at a rate exceeding the rate provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code, and the proceeds therefrom shall be used only for the purposes for which the anticipated taxes were levied. No board shall borrow money or issue notes in anticipation of such taxes before the first day of January of the year of such tax receipts.

(R.C. §1545.211)

§ 1545.22  DEPOSITORIES FOR FUNDS – DUTIES OF COUNTY TREASURER AND COUNTY AUDITOR.

(A)  If a treasurer is appointed by a board of park commissioners pursuant to section 1545.07 of the Revised Code, the accounts of the board shall be kept by that treasurer. The treasurer shall be an ex officio officer of the board. No contract of the board shall become effective until the treasurer certifies that there are funds of the board sufficient to provide for that contract.

(B)  If no treasurer is appointed by the board pursuant to section 1545.07 of the Revised Code:

(1)   All funds under the control of a board of park commissioners shall be kept in depositories selected in the manner provided for the deposit of county funds, insofar as such proceedings are applicable, and such deposits shall be secured as provided in the case of county funds. The county treasurer of the county in which the park district is located shall be the custodian of the funds of the board and shall be an ex officio officer of the board. He shall pay the funds out upon the warrant of the county auditor of the county in which the district is located. Interest earned on all funds under the control of the board of park commissioners shall be credited to such funds.

(2)   The county auditor shall be an ex officio officer of the board, and no contract of the board involving the expenditure of money shall become effective until the auditor certifies that there are funds of the board in the custody of the county treasurer and otherwise unappropriated sufficient to provide therefor. The auditor shall draw warrants on the treasurer to disburse the funds of the board upon order of the board, evidenced by the certificate of its secretary.

(3)   Any such board of park commissioners may select a depository for the funds of the district, in the manner provided in sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the Revised Code, upon the adoption of a resolution declaring such intent. The resolution shall be certified to the board of county commissioners and to the treasurer in the counties in which the district is located. The board of park commissioners shall thereupon become the governing board for such district with respect to the deposit of funds of such district.

(C)  If no deposits to or expenditures from the funds of a park district have been made for a period of five years, the county auditor or the treasurer appointed by the board shall send written notice to the probate court of the county.

(R.C. §1545.22)

§ 1545.23  DISPOSITION OF PROCEEDS FROM SALE OR LEASE OF PARK MINERAL RIGHTS.

If a park district enters into an agreement for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding a park within the district, any royalties or other moneys resulting from the sale or lease shall be deposited into a special fund that the board of park commissioners shall create. The fund shall be used exclusively for maintenance of parks within the district and for the acquisition of new park lands.

(R.C. §1545.23)

BONDS; REPLACEMENT FUND

§ 1545.24  ISSUANCE OF BONDS.

The board of park commissioners of any park district may issue bonds pursuant to Chapter 133 of the Revised Code for the purpose of acquiring and improving lands as authorized by section 1545.11 of the Revised Code. The board may secure the payment of such bonds by pledge or deed of trust of any of its revenues and receipts resulting from rentals, concessions, licenses, and permits. The board shall not pledge the credit or taxing power of the district for the payment of any such bonds, nor shall any of the bonds issued under this section be deemed to be an indebtedness of the district.

(R.C. §1545.24)

§ 1545.27  BONDS ARE LAWFUL INVESTMENTS.

Park district revenue bonds are lawful investments of banks, trust companies, trustees, the boards of trustees of the sinking funds of municipal corporations, school districts, and counties, the administrator of workers’ compensation, the state teachers retirement system, the public employees retirement system, and the school employees retirement system, and also are acceptable as security for the deposit of public moneys.

(R.C. §1545.27)

§ 1545.28  REPLACEMENT FUND.

(A)  The board of park commissioners may establish and maintain a replacement fund, and for that purpose may set aside annually out of its revenue such sum as it may determine necessary. In case of total or partial destruction of or injury to any of the property of the park district from any cause, or in case it becomes necessary to demolish part or to repair or replace the same, in whole or in part, because of the unfitness of such property, such replacement fund may be used to rebuild on the original site or elsewhere, or to restore, repair, or improve such property.

(B)  Such replacement fund may be invested by such district in bonds of the United States, the state, or of a county, municipal corporation, school district, or township of this state, and when necessary for the purposes of such funds such securities may be disposed of by such district.

(R.C. §1545.28)

DISSOLUTION OF PARK DISTRICT

§ 1545.35  DISSOLUTION OF ACTIVE PARK DISTRICT.

An active park district created under this chapter and to which no territory has been annexed under section 1545.15 of the Revised Code may be dissolved under section 1545.36 or 1545.37 of the Revised Code. An active park district to which territory has been annexed under section 1545.15 of the Revised Code may be dissolved only under the applicable provisions of section 1545.37 of the Revised Code. A park district that has been inactive for five years may be dissolved under section 1545.38 of the Revised Code.

(R.C. §1545.35)

§ 1545.36  PETITION FOR DISSOLUTION OF DISTRICT.

(A)  When the board of elections of the county in which a park district is located has had filed with it a petition calling for the dissolution of the district, and determines that the petition meets the requirements of this section and section 3501.38 of the Revised Code, the board shall place the issue of the dissolution on the ballot at the next special election to be held on the day of a general or primary election. Written notice of the filing of the petition shall be sent immediately to the board of park commissioners and the probate court that created the district.

(B)  The petition shall:

(1)   Be filed with the board no less than ninety days before the next election;

(2)   Be supported by the signatures of at least twenty‑five per cent of the number of voters in the district who voted in the preceding gubernatorial election.

(C)  If the petition as filed does not have the required number of signatures and the time for filing has elapsed, the board shall declare it invalid. No further petition for dissolution shall be received until after the next election is completed. On determination of these findings, the board shall send written notice of them to the principal circulator.

(D)  (1)   If a majority of the votes cast support the dissolution, the board shall immediately send written notice of the vote, citing the number of votes for and against the issue, to the probate court, to the board of park commissioners, and to the principal circulator. No park district shall be applied for within the dissolved district for a period of four years following the election in which the issue was supported.

(2)   If the issue fails to obtain a majority of the votes cast, the board shall receive no further petition for dissolution until the fourth year following that in which the election failed, and shall send written notice of these results to the principal circulator and the board of park commissioners.

(R.C. §1545.36)

§ 1545.37  APPLICATION FOR HEARING ON DISSOLUTION.

(A)  An application for a hearing on dissolution may be filed with the probate court of the county that created the district at any time not prohibited by this section and shall meet the requirements of this section.

(B)  The application shall:

(1)   Bear the signatures of at least twenty‑five per cent of the number of voters in the district who voted in the preceding gubernatorial election;

(2)   Bear the name, address, and telephone number of at least one voter registered in the district to be designated the applicant of record. Each applicant of record and the board of park commissioners shall be named parties to the proceedings.

(3)   Be accompanied by a complete statement of the issues to be heard, signed by applicant of record. Failure to list completely the issues to be heard may, in the discretion of the court, be grounds for dismissal of the application.

(C)  Each page of the application:

(1)   Being circulated for signatures shall clearly state the purpose for which it is being circulated and at least one reason supporting that purpose. Each page lacking either statement shall be declared invalid.

(2)   Shall be circulated by and signed in the presence of a voter registered in the district and bear a certification signed by him that this requirement has been met. Failure to certify or a false certification shall invalidate the page.

(D)  Each signatory shall sign his name as recorded by the board of elections together with his current address and the date. Failure to comply with this division shall invalidate the signature.

(E)  The original of the application and statement of issues shall be filed with the court and, concurrently, a copy of each shall be served on the board of park commissioners. Failure to timely serve these documents on the board are grounds for denial of the application.

(F)   (1)   Upon receipt of the application, the court shall determine its validity in terms of the requirements of divisions (B) to (E) of this section, and may on its own assess the application for validity of the signatures or forward it to the county board of elections for that assessment. Immediately upon determining the state of the application’s validity, the court shall send written notice of its findings to each party. If the application is valid, the court shall forthwith set a date for hearing, not less than twenty days nor more than forty days from the date of its findings, and include the date in its notice to each party. Notice of the hearing shall be published in at least one daily newspaper of general circulation within the district for not less than five consecutive days, the period to end no less than ten days before the hearing. Failure to meet the requirement of notice to any party shall not invalidate the proceedings but shall postpone the time of hearing. A corrected notice shall be sent to each party with a new date of hearing set not less than twenty days nor more than forty days from the date of corrected notice, unless each party and the court agree to an earlier date. If the application is found to be invalid, the court shall send written notice to each party that the application is denied and has been impounded by the court. The court shall not receive any further application for hearing on dissolution for two years from the date of original filing.

(2)   On motion, any applicant may be named as a party at the discretion of the court. Any party may be heard on his own or through counsel. On motion by any party made at least five days before the hearing, evidence based on the statement of issues filed with the application shall be heard in accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure. At the hearing, evidence may be heard at the discretion of the court. Argument for and against the dissolution shall be heard by the court, and may be limited at its discretion. A verbatim record of the hearing shall be taken. Upon completion of the hearing, the court shall issue its findings together with its reasons therefor to all parties. No more than thirty days shall pass between the adjournment of the hearing and the issuing of the findings. If the court finds that dissolution is conducive to the public welfare, no other park district shall be created within the same jurisdiction or part of it pursuant to sections 1545.01 to 1545.04 or 1545.15 of the Revised Code for four years from the date of finding. If the court finds that dissolution is not conducive to the public welfare, it shall find against it. Upon a finding against dissolution, the court shall impound the application, and advise each party that no further application for hearing on dissolution shall be received for four years from the date of finding.

(G)  A park district that includes territory annexed under section 1545.15 of the Revised Code shall only be dissolved by order of the probate court that created the district on compliance with this division and divisions (A) to (F) of this section. Pages of the application bearing signatures of registered voters of each annexed territory shall be filed for assessment of their validity with the probate court of the county in which the territory is located. The number of signatures needed to establish validity shall be a majority of the number of voters residing within the annexed territory who voted in the preceding gubernatorial election. Upon determination of its assessment, and in no case more than fifteen days after filing, the probate court of the county in which the annexed territory is located shall forward the pages of the application together with its findings to the probate court that created the district. The probate court that created the district shall incorporate these findings with its assessment of the application filed with it in accordance with division (F) of this section in reaching its determination of the entire application’s validity and proceed in accordance with applicable provisions of division (F) of this section.

(R.C. §1545.37)

§ 1545.38  PROCEEDINGS FOR DISSOLUTION OF INACTIVE DISTRICT.

On receipt of written notice from the county auditor that no deposits to or expenditures from the funds of a park district have been made for a period of five years, the probate court shall immediately serve written notice on the board of park commissioners and the auditor of a date for hearing on the dissolution of the district. The notice shall also order the board to forward to the court a complete, current financial statement of the assets and liabilities of the district, an inventory of its real and personal property, available deeds to, maps or plats for, and other records of real property of the park district, and copies of any available plans of the district for park acquisition and development, or capital improvements. A copy of the notice shall be served on each party. The court shall publish notice of the hearing for five consecutive days in a daily newspaper of general circulation within the district, ending no less than fifteen days before the hearing. The issue of dissolution shall be heard and determined by the court in accordance with the applicable provisions of division (F) of section 1545.37 of the Revised Code. If the court finds for dissolution, it shall as applicable proceed in accordance with section 1545.40 of the Revised Code.

(R.C. §1545.38)

§ 1545.39  CEASING ACTIVITY PENDING DETERMINATION ON PETITION.

On receipt of notice of the filing of a petition with the county board of elections or an application for hearing or a notice of hearing from the probate court, the board of park commissioners shall cease all acquisition of land and the development of existing land unless valid options or contracts for which funds have been committed have been previously signed. No activity shall be resumed until the board of elections or the court determines, respectively, that the petition or application is invalid and the issue will not be voted on or heard, or the issue fails election, or the court finds against dissolution, whichever is earlier.

(R.C. §1545.39)

§ 1545.40  DISSOLUTION.

(A)  On dissolution of a park district, the board of park commissioners is dissolved and all of its duties and responsibilities shall be exercised by the probate court until all of the board’s business is completed and all of its property disposed of. The court may retain special counsel and another person who in the court’s discretion are qualified to assist it in the closing out of business and disposal of property and any employee of the district the court determines is necessary to closing out the business or to maintaining the property of the district in good order until it is disposed of. Any employee not retained by the court shall be terminated within ten working days of the board’s dissolution and paid one month’s base salary or for one hundred seventy‑three hours, whichever is applicable, in addition to all other pay and allowances due him. The same shall be paid to any employee retained by the court upon his termination.

(B)  The court shall send the director of natural resources notice of the dissolution together with an inventory of the district’s real property, any personal property of the district that he considers to be functionally related to the use or management of the real property, and a full and accurate statement of any indebtedness that is secured by the real property. The director shall, within sixty days of receipt of such notice, notify the court of his acceptance or rejection of any such real property and its related personal property and indebtedness. If the director accepts, the court shall convey the real property to the state, subject to any deed or other restrictions placed upon use of the real property as a condition of receiving federal or state assistance for its acquisition or development, and transfer the related personal property to the department of natural resources. If the director rejects, the court shall convey any real property of the district and transfer any related personal property to any other agency of the state or any political subdivision or instrumentality of the state located within the former park district or within a county in which territory that was annexed to the district is located, that is interested in acquiring the real property for parks and recreation, conservation, or other public purposes, in that order of priority, and that is willing to assume any related indebtedness and fulfill any deed restrictions and any other restrictions placed upon use of the real property as a condition of receiving federal or state assistance for its acquisition or development.

(C)  If no state agency, political subdivision, or instrumentality of the state is willing to accept the real property and related personal property and indebtedness, the court shall convey such property to the board of county commissioners of the county in which the property is located. The board of county commissioners may sell, lease, or transfer such property in accordance with sections 307.09 to 307.12 of the Revised Code. If there is any outstanding indebtedness on such property sold or leased, the proceeds from the sale or lease shall be paid into the fund from which payments are made to extinguish the indebtedness on such property and the proceeds shall be used for that purpose; otherwise the proceeds shall be paid into the general fund of the county. The budget commission shall continue to levy and collect taxes necessary for the payment of any outstanding indebtedness of the district for which tax revenues of the district were pledged and that is not otherwise assumed.

(D)  Except as otherwise provided in this section, upon dissolution of a park district, the probate court shall order the budget commission of each county affected to terminate the tax levies of the park district, levied under section 1545.20 or 1545.21 of the Revised Code, and the assessments levied under section 1545.18 of the Revised Code and divide the net indebtedness of the district among the state, political subdivisions, and instrumentalities that acquire the district’s real property on the basis of the market value of the real property that each acquires. Upon disposal of the district’s real property, the court shall notify the budget commission, which shall transfer the remaining funds of the district to the proper authorities.

(R.C. §1545.40)

§ 1545.99  PENALTY.

Whoever violates division (C) of section 1545.09 of the Revised Code shall be punished as follows:

(A)  Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, the offender shall be fined not more than one hundred fifty dollars for a first offense and not more than one thousand dollars for each subsequent offense.

(B)  If the board of park commissioners that adopted the bylaw or rule that the offender violated and that was the basis of the offender’s violation of division (C) of section 1545.09 of the Revised Code has adopted a penalty for the violation under division (B) of that section, the offender shall be penalized in accordance with the penalty so adopted for the violation.

(R.C. §1545.99)

TITLE V: PUBLIC WORKS

(This title is reserved for rules and regulations dealing with sewer, water, trash collection, etc.)

TITLE VII: TRAFFIC CODE

Chapter 70. GENERAL PROVISIONS

Section

70.01 Definitions
70.02 Compliance with state law
70.03 Purposes of way
70.04 Impounding vehicles in violation
70.05 Testing, washing, or repairing vehicles in parks

70.99 Penalty

Statutory reference:

Local traffic regulations, scope and authority, see R.C. § 4511.07

Notice of arrest of certain commercial drivers, see R.C. § 5577.14

Traffic law photo-monitoring devices, state regulations, see R.C. § 4511.092 et seq.

Uniform application and precedence of state traffic laws, see R.C. § 4511.06

§ 70.01  DEFINITIONS.

Except as otherwise provided, the definitions set forth in R.C. ‘ 4501.01 shall apply to this Title and the penal laws of the municipality. For the purpose of this Title, the following definitions shall apply unless the context clearly indicates or requires a different meaning.

AGRICULTURAL TRACTOR. Every self-propelled vehicle designed or used for drawing other vehicles or wheeled machinery, but having no provision for carrying loads independently of such other vehicles, and used principally for agricultural purposes.

ALLEY. A street or highway intended to provide access to the rear or side of lots or buildings in urban districts, and not intended for the purpose of through vehicular traffic, and any street or highway that has been declared an Aalley@ by the Legislative Authority of the municipality in which the street or highway is located.

ARTERIAL STREET. Any United States or state numbered route, controlled-access highway, or other major radial or circumferential street or highway designated by local authorities within their respective jurisdictions as part of a major arterial system of streets or highways.

BEACON. A highway traffic signal with one or more signal sections that operate in a flashing mode.

BICYCLE. Every device, other than a device that is designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is propelled solely by human-power upon which a person may ride, and that has two or more wheels, any of which is more than 14 inches in diameter.

BUS. Every motor vehicle designed for carrying more than nine passengers, and used for the transportation of persons other than in a ridesharing arrangement, and every motor vehicle, automobile for hire, or funeral car, other than a taxicab or motor vehicle used in a ridesharing arrangement, designed and used for the transportation of persons for compensation.

BUSINESS DISTRICT. The territory fronting upon a street or highway, including the street or highway, between successive intersections within the municipality, where 50% or more of the frontage between successive intersections is occupied by buildings in use for business, or within or outside the municipality where 50% or more of the frontage for a distance of 300 feet or more is occupied by buildings in use for business, and the character of the territory is indicated by official traffic-control devices.

CHAUFFEURED LIMOUSINE. A motor vehicle that is designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for hire pursuant to a prearranged contract for the transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not over a defined and regular route. APrearranged contract@ means an agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation from a specific location in an chauffeured limousine. The term does not include any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral directing. (R.C. ‘ 4501.01(LL))

CHILD DAY-CARE CENTER. Has the same meaning as set forth in R.C. ‘ 5104.01.

COMMERCIAL TRACTOR. Every motor vehicle having motive power designed or used for drawing other vehicles, and not so constructed as to carry any load thereon, or designed or used for drawing other vehicles while carrying a portion of the other vehicles, or the load thereon, or both.

CONTROLLED-ACCESS HIGHWAY. Every street or highway in respect to which owners or occupants of abutting lands and other persons have no legal right or access to or from the same except at certain points only and in a manner as may be determined by the public authority having jurisdiction over the street or highway.

CROSSWALK.

(1)   That part of a roadway at intersections ordinarily included within the real or projected prolongation of property lines and curb lines or, in the absence of curbs, the edges of the traversable roadway;

(2)   Any portion of a roadway at an intersection or elsewhere, distinctly indicated for pedestrian crossing by lines or other markings on the surface;

(3)   Notwithstanding the foregoing provisions of this definition, there shall not be a crosswalk where the Legislative Authority has placed signs indicating no crossing.

DRIVER. Any person who drives or is in actual physical control of a vehicle.

ELECTRIC BICYCLE. Means a Aclass 1 electric bicycle@, a Aclass 2 electric bicycle@, or a Aclass 3 electric bicycle@ as defined below.

(1)   CLASS 1 ELECTRIC BICYCLE. Means a bicycle that is equipped with fully operable pedals and an electric motor of less than 750 watts that provides assistance only when the rider is pedaling and ceases to provide assistance when the bicycle reaches the speed of 20 miles per hour.

(2)   CLASS 2 ELECTRIC BICYCLE. Means a bicycle that is equipped with fully operable pedals and an electric motor of less than 750 watts that may provide assistance regardless of whether the rider is pedaling and is not capable of providing assistance when the bicycle reaches the speed of 20 miles per hour.

(3)   CLASS 3 ELECTRIC BICYCLE. Means a bicycle that is equipped with fully operable pedals and an electric motor of less than 750 watts that provides assistance only when the rider is pedaling and ceases to provide assistance when the bicycle reaches the speed of 28 miles per hour.

EMERGENCY VEHICLE. Emergency vehicles of municipal, township or county departments or public utility corporations, when identified as such as required by law, the Director of Public Safety, or local authorities, and motor vehicles when commandeered by a police officer.

EXPLOSIVES. Any chemical compound or mechanical mixture that is intended for the purpose of producing an explosion that contains any oxidizing and combustible units or other ingredients in such proportions, quantities, or packing that an ignition by fire, by friction, by concussion, by percussion, or by a detonator of any part of the compound or mixture may cause a sudden generation of highly heated gases, such that the resultant gaseous pressures are capable of producing destructive effects on contiguous objects, or of destroying life or limb. Manufactured articles shall not be held to be explosives when the individual units contain explosives in limited quantities of such nature or in such packing that it is impossible to procure a simultaneous or a destructive explosion of the units, to the injury of life, limb, or property by fire, friction, concussion, percussion, or by a detonator, such as fixed ammunition for small arms, firecrackers, or safety fuse matches.

EXPRESSWAY. A divided arterial highway for through traffic with full or partial control of access with an excess of 50% of all crossroads separated in grade.

FLAMMABLE LIQUID. Any liquid which has a flash point of 70°F or less, as determined by a tagliabue or equivalent closed cup test device.

FREEWAY. A divided multi-lane highway for through traffic with crossroads separated in grade and with full control of access.

FUNERAL ESCORT VEHICLE. Any motor vehicle, including a funeral hearse, while used to facilitate the movement of a funeral procession.

GROSS WEIGHT. The weight of a vehicle plus the weight of any load thereon.

HIGHWAY. The entire width between the boundary lines of every way open to the use of the public as a thoroughfare for purposes of vehicular travel.

HIGHWAY MAINTENANCE VEHICLE. A vehicle used in snow and ice removal or road surface maintenance, including a snow plow, traffic line striper, road sweeper, mowing machine, asphalt distributing vehicle, or other such vehicle designed for use in specific highway maintenance activities.

HIGHWAY TRAFFIC SIGNAL. A power-operated traffic control device by which traffic is warned or directed to take some specific action. The term does not include a power-operated sign, steadily illuminated pavement marker, warning light, or steady burning electric lamp.

HYBRID BEACON. A type of beacon that is intentionally placed in a dark mode between periods of operation where no indications are displayed and, when in operation, displays both steady and flashing traffic control signal indications.

INTERSECTION.

(1)   The area embraced within the prolongation or connection of the lateral curb lines, or, if none, the lateral boundary lines of the roadways of two highways that join one another at, or approximately at, right angles, or the area within which vehicles traveling upon different highways that join at any other angle might come into conflict. The junction of an alley or driveway with a roadway or highway does not constitute an intersection unless the roadway or highway at the junction is controlled by a traffic control device.

(2)   If a highway includes two roadways that are 30 feet or more apart, then every crossing of each roadway of such divided highway by an intersecting highway constitutes a separate intersection. If both intersecting highways include two roadways 30 feet or more apart, then every crossing of any two roadways of such highways constitutes a separate intersection.

(3)   At a location controlled by a traffic control signal, regardless of the distance between the separate intersections as described in division (2) of this definition:

(a)   If a stop line, yield line, or crosswalk has not been designated on the roadway within the median between the separate intersections, the two intersections and the roadway and median constitute one intersection.

(b)   Where a stop line, yield line, or crosswalk line is designated on the roadway on the intersection approach, the area within the crosswalk and any area beyond the designated stop line or yield line constitute part of the intersection.

(c)   Where a crosswalk is designated on a roadway on the departure from the intersection, the intersection includes the area that extends to the far side of the crosswalk.

LANED HIGHWAY. A highway the roadway of which is divided into two or more clearly marked lanes for vehicular traffic.

LOCAL AUTHORITIES. Every county, municipal, and other local board or body having authority to adopt police regulations under the Constitution and laws of this state.

LOW‑SPEED MICROMOBILITY DEVICE. Means a device weighing less than 100 pounds that has handlebars, is propelled by an electric motor or human-power, and has an attainable speed on a paved level surface of not more than 20 miles per hour when propelled by the electric motor.

MEDIAN. The area between two roadways of a divided highway, measured from edge of traveled way to edge of traveled way, but excluding turn lanes. The width of a median may be different between intersections, between interchanges, and at opposite approaches of the same intersection.

MOTOR VEHICLE. Every vehicle propelled or drawn by power other than muscular power or power collected from overhead electric trolley wires, except motorized bicycles, electric bicycles, road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power cranes and other equipment used in construction work, and not designed for or employed in general highway transportation, hole-digging machinery, well‑drilling machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, and trailers designed and used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a street or highway for a distance of no more than ten miles and at a speed of 25 miles per hour or less.

MOTORCYCLE. Every motor vehicle, other than a tractor, having a seat or saddle for the use of the operator and designed to travel on not more than three wheels in contact with the ground, including but not limited to motor vehicles known as Amotor-driven cycle@, Amotor scooter@, Aautocycle@, Acab‑enclosed motorcycle@, or Amotorcycle@ without regard to weight or brake horsepower.

MOTORIZED BICYCLE or MOPED. Any vehicle having either two tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two wheels in the rear, that may be pedaled, and that is equipped with a helper motor of not more than 50 cubic centimeters piston displacement that produces not more than one brake horsepower and is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of not greater than 20 miles per hour on a level surface. The terms do not include an electric bicycle.

MOTORIZED WHEELCHAIR. Any self-propelled vehicle designed for, and used by, a person with a disability and that is incapable of a speed in excess of eight miles per hour.

MULTI-WHEEL AGRICULTURAL TRACTOR. A type of agricultural tractor that has two or more wheels or tires on each side of one axle at the rear of the tractor, is designed or used for drawing other vehicles or wheeled machinery, has no provision for carrying loads independently of the drawn vehicles or machinery, and is used principally for agricultural purposes.

OPERATE. To cause or have caused movement of a vehicle.

OPERATOR. Any person who drives or is in actual physical control of a vehicle.

PARKED or PARKING. The standing of a vehicle upon a street, road, alley, highway or public ground, whether accompanied or unaccompanied by a driver, but does not include the temporary standing of a vehicle for the purpose of and while actually engaged in loading or loading merchandise or passengers.

PEDESTRIAN. Any natural person afoot. The term includes a personal delivery device as defined in R.C. ‘ 4511.513 unless the context clearly suggests otherwise.

PERSON. Every natural person, firm, partnership, association or corporation.

POLE TRAILER. Every trailer or semitrailer attached to the towing vehicle by means of a reach, pole, or by being boomed or otherwise secured to the towing vehicle, and ordinarily used for transporting long or irregular shaped loads such as poles, pipes, or structural members capable, generally, of sustaining themselves as beams between the supporting connections.

POLICE OFFICER. Every officer authorized to direct or regulate traffic, or to make arrests for violations of traffic regulations.

PREDICATE MOTOR VEHICLE OR TRAFFIC OFFENSE. Any of the following:

(1)   A violation of R.C. ‘ 4511.03, 4511.051, 4511.12, 4511.132, 4511.16, 4511.20, 4511.201, 4511.21, 4511.211, 4511.213, 4511.22, 4511.23, 4511.25, 4511.26, 4511.27, 4511.28, 4511.29, 4511.30, 4511.31, 4511.32, 4511.33, 4511.34, 4511.35, 4511.36, 4511.37, 4511.38, 4511.39, 4511.40, 4511.41, 4511.42, 4511.43, 4511.431, 4511.432, 4511.44, 4511.441, 4511.451, 4511.452, 4511.46, 4511.47, 4511.48, 4511.481, 4511.49, 4511.50, 4511.511, 4511.53, 4511.54, 4511.55, 4511.56, 4511.57, 4511.58, 4511.59, 4511.60, 4511.61, 4511.64, 4511.66, 4511.661, 4511.68, 4511.70, 4511.701, 4511.71, 4511.711, 4511.712, 4511.713, 4511.72, 4511.73, 4511.763, 4511.771, 4511.78, or 4511.84;

(2)   A violation of R.C. ‘ 4511.17(A)(2), 4511.51(A) through (D), or 4511.74(A);

(3)   A violation of any provision of R.C. ” 4511.01 through 4511.76 for which no penalty otherwise is provided in the section that contains the provision violated;

(4)   A violation of R.C. ‘ 4511.214;

(5)   A violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially equivalent to any section or provision set forth or described in division (1), (2), (3), or (4) of this definition.

PRIVATE ROAD OPEN TO PUBLIC TRAVEL. A private toll road or road, including any adjacent sidewalks that generally run parallel to the road, within a shopping center, airport, sports arena, or other similar business or recreation facility that is privately owned but where the public is allowed to travel without access restrictions. The term includes a gated toll road but does not include a road within a private gated property where access is restricted at all times, a parking area, a driving aisle within a parking area, or a private grade crossing.

PRIVATE ROAD OR DRIVEWAY. Every way or place in private ownership used for vehicular travel by the owner, and those having express or implied permission from the owner, but not by other persons.

PUBLIC SAFETY VEHICLE. Any of the following:

(1)   Ambulances, including private ambulance companies under contract to a municipality, township, or county, and private ambulances and nontransport vehicles bearing license plates issued under R.C. ‘ 4503.49;

(2)   Motor vehicles used by public law enforcement officers or other persons sworn to enforce the criminal and traffic laws of the state;

(3)   Any motor vehicle when properly identified as required by the Director of Public Safety, when used in response to fire emergency calls or to provide emergency medical service to ill or injured persons, and when operated by a duly qualified person who is a member of a volunteer rescue service or a volunteer fire department, and who is on duty pursuant to the rules or directives of that service. The State Fire Marshal shall be designated by the Director of Public Safety as the certifying agency for all public safety vehicles described herein;

(4)   Vehicles used by fire departments, including motor vehicles when used by volunteer firefighters responding to emergency calls in the fire department service when identified as required by the Director of Public Safety;

(5)   Any vehicle used to transport or provide emergency medical service to an ill or injured person, when certified as a public safety vehicle, shall be considered such a vehicle when transporting an ill or injured person to a hospital, regardless of whether such vehicle has already passed a hospital;

(6)   Vehicles used by the Motor Carrier Enforcement Unit for the enforcement of orders and rules of the Public Utilities Commission as specified in R.C. ‘ 5503.34.

RAILROAD. A carrier of persons or property operating upon rails placed principally on a private right-of-way.

RAILROAD SIGN OR SIGNAL. Any sign, signal, or device erected by authority of a public body or official or by a railroad, and intended to give notice of the presence of railroad tracks or the approach of a railroad train.

RAILROAD TRAIN. A steam engine or an electric or other motor, with or without cars coupled thereto, operated by a railroad.

RESIDENCE DISTRICT. The territory, not comprising a business district, fronting on a street or highway, including the street or highway, where, for a distance of 300 feet or more, the frontage is improved with residences or residences and buildings in use for business.

RIDESHARING ARRANGEMENT. Includes the transportation of persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental to another purpose of a volunteer driver, and includes arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.

RIGHT-OF-WAY. Either of the following, as the context requires:

(1)   The right of a vehicle or pedestrian to proceed uninterruptedly in a lawful manner in the direction in which it, he or she is moving, in preference to another vehicle or pedestrian approaching from a different direction into its, his or her path;

(2)   A general term denoting land, property, or the interest therein, usually in the configuration of a strip, acquired for or devoted to transportation purposes. When used in this context, Aright-of-way@ includes the roadway, shoulders or berm, ditch, and slopes extending to the right-of-way limits under the control of the state or local authority.

ROAD SERVICE VEHICLE. Wreckers, utility repair vehicles, and state, county, and municipal service vehicles equipped with visual signals by means of flashing, rotating, or oscillating lights.

ROADWAY. The portion of a highway improved, designed, or ordinarily used for vehicular travel, except the berm or shoulder. If a highway includes two or more separate roadways, the term means any roadway separately, but not all the roadways collectively.

RURAL MAIL DELIVERY VEHICLE. Every vehicle used to deliver United States mail on a rural mail delivery route.

SAFETY ZONE. The area or space officially set apart within a roadway for the exclusive use of pedestrians, and protected or marked or indicated by adequate signs so as to be plainly visible at all times.

SCHOOL BUS. Every bus designed for carrying more than nine passengers which is owned by a public, private, or governmental agency or institution of learning, and operated for the transportation of children to or from a school session or a school function, or owned by a private person and operated for compensation for the transportation of children to or from a school session or a school function; provided the term does not include a bus operated by a municipally owned transportation system, a mass transit company operating exclusively within the territorial limits of a municipality, or within such limits and the territorial limits of municipalities immediately contiguous to the municipality, nor a common passenger carrier certified by the Public Utilities Commission unless the bus is devoted exclusively to the transportation of children to and from a school session or a school function, and the term does not include a van or bus used by a licensed child day-care center or Type A Family Day-Care Home to transport children from the child day-care center or Type A Family Day-Care Home to a school if the van or bus does not have more than 15 children in the van or bus at any time.

SCOOTER. A foot‑powered vehicle consisting of a platform mounted between two wheels with an upright handle attached to the front wheel or platform.

(Rules and Regs. §2)

SEMITRAILER. Every vehicle designed or used for carrying persons or property with another and separate motor vehicle so that in operation a part of its own weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by another vehicle.

SHARED-USE PATH. A bikeway outside the traveled way and physically separated from motorized vehicular traffic by an open space or barrier and either within the highway right-of-way or within an independent alignment. A shared-use path also may be used by pedestrians, including skaters, joggers, users of manual and motorized wheelchairs, and other authorized motorized and non-motorized users. A SHARED-USE PATH does not include any trail that is intended to be used primarily for mountain biking, hiking, equestrian use, or other similar uses, or any other single track or natural surface trail that has historically been reserved for non-motorized use.

SIDEWALK. That portion of a street between the curb lines, or the lateral line of a roadway, and the adjacent property lines, intended for the use of pedestrians.

SKATEBOARD. A narrow board, about two feet long, mounted on rollerskate wheels, propelled solely by human power upon which any person may ride.

(Rules and Regs. §2)

STANDING. When prohibited, means any halting of a vehicle, even momentarily, except when necessary to avoid conflict with other traffic or in compliance with the directions of a police officer or traffic control device.

STATE HIGHWAY. A highway under the jurisdiction of the Department of Transportation, outside the limits of municipalities, provided that the authority conferred upon the Director of Transportation in R.C. ‘ 5511.01 to erect state highway route markers and signs directing traffic shall not be modified by R.C. ” 4511.01 through 4511.79 and 4511.99.

STATE ROUTE. Every highway which is designated with an official state route number and so marked.

STOP. When required, means a complete cessation of movement.

STOP INTERSECTION. Any intersection at one or more entrances of which stop signs are erected.

STOPPING. When prohibited, means any halting of a vehicle, even momentarily, except when necessary to avoid conflict with other traffic or in compliance with the directions of a police officer or traffic control device.

STREET. The entire width between the boundary lines of every way open to the use of the public as a thoroughfare for purposes of vehicular travel.

THROUGH HIGHWAY. Every street or highway as provided in R.C. ‘ 4511.65, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

THRUWAY. A through highway whose entire roadway is reserved for through traffic and on which roadway parking is prohibited.

TRAFFIC. Pedestrians, ridden or herded animals, vehicles, streetcars, and other devices, either singly or together, while using for purposes of travel any highway or private road open to public travel.

TRAFFIC CONTROL DEVICE. A flagger, sign, signal, marking, or other device used to regulate, warn, or guide traffic, placed on, over, or adjacent to a street, highway, private road open to public travel, pedestrian facility, or shared-use path by authority of a public agency or official having jurisdiction, or, in the case of a private road open to public travel, by authority of the private owner or private official having jurisdiction.

TRAFFIC CONTROL SIGNAL. Any highway traffic signal by which traffic is alternately directed to stop and permitted to proceed.

TRAILER. Every vehicle designed or used for carrying persons or property wholly on its own structure, and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, including any vehicle when formed by or operated as a combination of a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type, such as that commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or towed on a street or highway at a speed greater than 25 miles per hour and a vehicle designed and used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a street or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at a speed of more than 25 miles per hour.

TRUCK. Every motor vehicle, except trailers and semitrailers, designed and used to carry property.

TYPE A FAMILY DAY-CARE HOME. Has the same meaning as set forth in R.C. ‘ 5104.01.

URBAN DISTRICT. The territory contiguous to and including any street or highway which is built up with structures devoted to business, industry, or dwelling houses situated at intervals of less than 100 feet for a distance of one-quarter of a mile or more, and the character of the territory is indicated by official traffic-control devices.

VEHICLE. Every device, including a motorized bicycle and an electric bicycle, in, upon, or by which any person or property may be transported or drawn upon a highway, except that the term does not include any motorized wheelchair, any electric personal assistive mobility device, any low-speed micromobility device, any personal delivery device as defined in R.C. ‘ 4511.513, any device that is moved by power collected from overhead electric trolley wires or that is used exclusively upon stationary rails or tracks, or any device, other than a bicycle, that is moved by human-power.

WASTE COLLECTION VEHICLE. A vehicle used in the collection of garbage, refuse, trash, or recyclable materials.

(R.C. §4511.01)

(Prior Code, §70.01)

§ 70.02  COMPLIANCE WITH STATE LAW.

All motor vehicles and operators shall comply with the requirements of all sections of the Ohio Revised Code pertaining to motor vehicles and operators while using Five Rivers MetroParks roads.

(Prior Code, §70.02)  (Rules and Regs. §16.1)

§ 70.03  PURPOSES OF WAY.

No person shall use any portion of a park for purposes of way, except drives, roadways, walks, and trails established for such purposes. Trails established as horse trails, foot trails, bicycle trails, or multipurpose trails shall not be used for motor vehicular traffic.

(Prior Code, §70.03)  (Rules and Regs. §16.2)

§ 70.04  IMPOUNDING VEHICLES IN VIOLATION.

Vehicles in parks in violation of these Rules and Regulations shall be removed, or caused to be removed, by police officers to a location in or outside of a park, where the same may be kept until owners or their authorized representative obtain an order from the Chief Executive Officer, or his or her agents, releasing such vehicles to the owners thereof or their authorized representatives.

(Prior Code, §70.04)  (Rules and Regs. §16.10)

§ 70.05  TESTING, WASHING, OR REPAIRING VEHICLES IN PARKS.

No person shall test, repair, wash, or wax any vehicle or mechanical device within the parks.

(Prior Code, §70.05)

§ 70.99  PENALTY.

(A)  Generally. Pursuant to R.C. §1545.99, any person who violates any provision of this traffic code where no specific penalty is otherwise provided shall be fined not more than $150 for a first offense; for each subsequent offense, such person shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(Rules and Regs. §22)

(B)  State law penalty. Whoever violates any provision of this traffic code for which no penalty otherwise is provided in the section violated is guilty of one of the following:

(1)   Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) or (B)(3) of this section, a minor misdemeanor;

(2)   If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree;

(3)   If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §4511.99)

(C)  Violations committed while distracted.

(1)   As used in this section and each section referenced in division (C)(2) of this section, all of the following apply:

(a)   Distracted means doing either of the following while operating a vehicle:

  1. Using an electronic wireless communications device, as defined in R.C. ‘ 4511.204, in violation of that section.

(c)   Distracted does not include conducting any activity while operating a utility service vehicle or a vehicle for or on behalf of a utility, provided that the driver of the vehicle is acting in response to an emergency, power outage, or a circumstance affecting the health or safety of individuals. As used in this division (C)(1)(c):

UTILITY. An entity specified in R.C. ‘ 4905.03(A), (C), (D), (E), or (G).

UTILITY SERVICE VEHICLE. A vehicle owned or operated by a utility.

(2)   If an offender violates R.C. ‘§4511.03, 4511.051, 4511.12, 4511.121, 4511.132, 4511.21, 4511.211, 4511.213, 4511.22, 4511.23, 4511.25, 4511.26, 4511.27, 4511.28, 4511.29, 4511.30, 4511.31, 4511.32, 4511.33, 4511.34, 4511.35, 4511.36, 4511.37, 4511.38, 4511.39, 4511.40, 4511.41, 4511.42, 4511.43, 4511.431, 4511.44, 4511.441, 4511.451, 4511.46, 4511.47, 4511.54, 4511.55, 4511.57, 4511.58, 4511.59, 4511.60, 4511.61, 4511.64, 4511.71, 4511.711, 4511.712, 4511.713, 4511.72, or 4511.73, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the violation, the offender is subject to the applicable penalty for the violation and, notwithstanding R.C. ‘ 2929.28, is subject to an additional fine of not more than $100 as follows:

(a)   1. Subject to Traffic Rule 13, if a law enforcement officer issues an offender a ticket, citation, or summons for a violation of any of the aforementioned sections of the Ohio Revised Code, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, that indicates that the offender was distracted while committing the violation and that the distracting activity was a contributing factor to the commission of the violation, the offender may enter a written plea of guilty and waive the offender’s right to contest the ticket, citation, or summons in a trial provided that the offender pays the total amount of the fine established for the violation and pays the additional fine of $100.

      1. In lieu of payment of the additional fine of $100, the offender instead may elect to attend a distracted driving safety course, the duration and contents of which shall be established by the Ohio Director of Public Safety. If the offender attends and successfully completes the course, the offender shall be issued written evidence that the offender successfully completed the course. The offender shall be required to pay the total amount of the fine established for the violation, but shall not be required to pay the additional fine of $100, so long as the offender submits to the court both the offender’s payment in full and such written evidence.

(b)   1. If the offender appears in person to contest the ticket, citation, or summons in a trial and the offender pleads guilty to or is convicted of the violation, the court, in addition to all other penalties provided by law, may impose the applicable penalty for the violation and may impose the additional fine of not more than $100.

      1. If the court imposes upon the offender the applicable penalty for the violation and an additional fine of not more than $100, the court shall inform the offender that, in lieu of payment of the additional fine of not more than $100, the offender instead may elect to attend the distracted driving safety course described in division (C)(2)(a) of this section. If the offender elects the course option and attends and successfully completes the course, the offender shall be issued written evidence that the offender successfully completed the course. The offender shall be required to pay the total amount of the fine established for the violation, but shall not be required to pay the additional fine of not more than $100, so long as the offender submits to the court the offender’s payment and such written evidence.

(3)   If a law enforcement officer issues an offender a ticket, citation, or summons for a violation of any of the sections of the Revised Code listed in division (C)(2) of this section that indicates that the offender was distracted while committing the violation and that the distracting activity was a contributing factor to the commission of the violation, the officer shall do both of the following:

(a)   Report the issuance of the ticket, citation, or summons to the officer’s law enforcement agency;

(b)   Ensure that such report indicates the offender’s race.

(R.C. §4511.991)

(D)  Sentencing. Whoever is convicted of or pleads guilty to a misdemeanor or minor misdemeanor shall be sentenced in accordance with ‘ 130.99.

(Prior Code, §70.99)

Statutory reference:

Reimbursement for costs of confinement, see R.C. §2929.36 et seq.

Chapter 71. LICENSING PROVISIONS

Section

Motor Vehicle Licensing
71.01     Display of license plates or validation stickers; registration

Prohibitions
71.15     Prohibited acts
71.16     Display of license
71.17     Prohibition against false statements
71.18     Use of unauthorized plates
71.19     Operating with number of former owner
71.20     Driving without license
71.21     Driving without license plates

Statutory reference:
Commercial drivers licenses, see R.C. Chapter 4506
Drivers licenses, see R.C. Chapter 4507
Motor vehicle licensing, see R.C. Chapter 4504
Municipal motor vehicle license tax, see R.C. §4504.06
Notice of arrest of certain commercial drivers, see R.C. §5577.14
Proof of financial responsibility required; civil penalties; peace officers as agents of Registrar of
Motor Vehicles; procedures and rules, see R.C. §§ 4509.101 et seq.
Suspension and revocation of drivers licenses, see R.C. Chapter 4510
Suspension of drivers licenses; municipal power to suspend for a period not to exceed time permitted or required by state law, see R.C.  4510.05

MOTOR VEHICLE LICENSING

§ 71.01  DISPLAY OF LICENSE PLATES OR VALIDATION STICKERS; REGISTRATION.

(A)  (1)   No person who is the owner or operator of a motor vehicle shall fail to display in plain view on the rear of the motor vehicle a license plate that displays the distinctive number and registration mark assigned to the motor vehicle by the Ohio Director of Public Safety, including any county identification sticker and any validation sticker when required by and issued under R.C. §§ 4503.19 and 4503.191. However, a commercial tractor shall display the license plate on the front of the commercial tractor.

(2)   The license plate shall be securely fastened so as not to swing, and shall not be covered by any material that obstructs its visibility.

(3)   No person to whom a temporary motor vehicle license registration has been issued for the use of a motor vehicle under R.C. §4503.182, and no operator of that motor vehicle, shall fail to display the temporary motor vehicle license registration in plain view from the rear of the vehicle either in the rear window or on an external rear surface of the motor vehicle.

(4)   No person shall cover a temporary motor vehicle license registration by any material that obstructs its visibility.

(R.C. §4503.21(A))

(B)  Except as otherwise provided by R.C. §§ 4503.103, 4503.173, 4503.41, 4503.43, and 4503.46, no person who is the owner or chauffeur of a motor vehicle operated or driven upon the public roads or highways shall fail to file annually the application for registration or to pay the tax therefor.

(R.C. §4503.11(A))

(C)  (1)   Within 30 days of becoming a resident of this state, any person who owns a motor vehicle operated or driven upon the public roads or highways shall register the vehicle in this state. If such a person fails to register a vehicle owned by the person, the person shall not operate any motor vehicle in this state under a license issued by another state.

(2)   For purposes of division (C)(1) of this section, RESIDENT means any person to whom any of the following applies:

(a)   The person maintains their principal residence in this state and does not reside in this state as a result of the person’s active service in the United States armed forces.

(b)   The person is determined by the Registrar of Motor Vehicles to be a resident in accordance with standards adopted by the Registrar under R.C. §4507.01.

(R.C. §4503.111(A), (C))

(D)  Upon the transfer of ownership of a motor vehicle, the registration of the motor vehicle expires, and the original owner immediately shall remove the license plates from the motor vehicle, except as otherwise provided in R.C. §4503.12.

(R.C. §4503.12(A))

(E)  No person who is the owner of a motor vehicle and a resident of this state shall operate or drive the motor vehicle upon the highways of this municipality while it displays a distinctive number or identification mark issued by or under the authority of another state, without complying with the laws of this state relating to the registration and identification of motor vehicles.

(R.C. §4549.12(A))

(F)   (1)   (a)   Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(b)   The offenses established under division (A) of this section are strict liability offenses and R.C. §2901.20 does not apply. The designation of these offenses as strict liability offenses shall not be construed to imply that any other offense, for which there is no specified degree of culpability, is not a strict liability offense.

(R.C. §4503.21(B), (C))

(2)   Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4503.11(D))

(3)   (a)   Whoever violates division (C) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(b)   The offense established under division (F)(3)(a) of this section is a strict liability offense and strict liability is a culpable mental state for purposes of R.C. §2901.20. The designation of this offense as a strict liability offense shall not be construed to imply that any other offense, for which there is no specified degree of culpability, is not a strict liability offense.

(R.C. §4503.111(B))

(4)   Whoever violates division (D) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(R.C. §4503.12(D))

(6)   Whoever violates division (E) of this section is guilty of illegal operation by a resident of this state of a motor vehicle bearing the distinctive number or identification mark issued by a foreign jurisdiction, a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4549.12(B))

(Prior Code, §71.01)

PROHIBITIONS

§ 71.15  PROHIBITED ACTS.

(A)  No person shall do any of the following:

(1)   Display or cause or permit to be displayed, or possess any identification card, driver’s or commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, or commercial driver’s license temporary instruction permit knowing the same to be fictitious, or to have been canceled, suspended, or altered;

(2)   Lend to a person not entitled thereto, or knowingly permit a person not entitled thereto to use any identification card, driver’s or commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit or commercial driver’s license temporary instruction permit issued to the person so lending or permitting the use thereof;

(3)   Display, or represent as one’s own, any identification card, driver’s or commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, or commercial driver’s license temporary instruction permit not issued to the person so displaying the same;

(4)   Fail to surrender to the Registrar of Motor Vehicles, upon the Registrar’s demand, any identification card, driver’s or commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, or commercial driver’s license temporary instruction permit that has been suspended or canceled;

(5)   In any application for an identification card, driver’s or commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, or commercial driver’s license temporary instruction permit or any renewal, reprint, or duplicate thereof, knowingly conceal a material fact or present any physician’s statement required under R.C. §4507.08 or 4507.081 when knowing the same to be false or fictitious.

(B)  Whoever violates any division of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §4507.30)  (Prior Code, §71.05)

Statutory reference:

Use of license to violate liquor laws; suspension; procedures, see R.C.  4510.33

§ 71.16  DISPLAY OF LICENSE.

(A)  The operator of a motor vehicle shall display the operator’s driver’s license, or furnish satisfactory proof that the operator has a driver’s license, upon demand of any peace officer or of any person damaged or injured in any collision in which the licensee may be involved. When a demand is properly made, and the operator has the operator’s driver’s license on or about the operator’s person, the operator shall not refuse to display the license. A person’s failure to furnish satisfactory evidence that the person is licensed under R.C. Chapter 4507 when the person does not have the person’s license on or about the person’s person shall be prima facie evidence of the person’s not having obtained a driver’s license.

(B)  (1)   Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, whoever violates this section is guilty of an unclassified misdemeanor. When the offense is an unclassified misdemeanor, the offender shall be sentenced pursuant to §130.18, §130.99 or R.C. §§ 2929.21 to 2929.28, except that the offender shall not be sentenced to a jail term; the offender shall not be sentenced to a community residential sanction pursuant to §130.99(E) or R.C. §2929.26; notwithstanding §130.99(H)(1)(b)1. and R.C. §2929.28(A)(2)(a), the offender may be fined up to $1,000; and notwithstanding §130.99(G)(1)(c) and R.C. §2929.27(A)(3), the offender may be ordered pursuant to §130.99(G)(3) or R.C. §2929.27(C) to serve a term of community service of up to 500 hours. The failure of an offender to complete a term of community service imposed by the court may be punished as indirect criminal contempt under R.C. §2705.02(A) that may be filed in the underlying case.

(2)   If, within three years of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two or more violations of this section, R.C. §4507.35, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, the offense is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §4507.35)  (Prior Code, §71.06)

§ 71.17  PROHIBITION AGAINST FALSE STATEMENTS.

(A)  No person shall knowingly make a false statement to any matter or thing required by the provisions of this traffic code.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §4507.36)  (Prior Code, §71.07)

§ 71.18  USE OF UNAUTHORIZED PLATES.

(A)  Generally. No person shall operate or drive a motor vehicle upon the public roads and highways in this municipality if it displays a license plate or a distinctive number or identification mark that meets any of the following criteria:

(1)   It is fictitious;

(2)   It is a counterfeit or an unlawfully made copy of any distinctive number or identification mark;

(3)   It belongs to another motor vehicle, provided that this section does not apply to a motor vehicle that is operated on the public roads and highways in this municipality when the motor vehicle displays license plates that originally were issued for a motor vehicle that previously was owned by the same person who owns the motor vehicle that is operated on the public roads and highways in this municipality during the 30‑day period described in R.C. §4503.12(A)(4).

(B)  Failure to comply with R.C. 4503.12. A person who fails to comply with the transfer of registration provisions of R.C. §4503.12 and is charged with a violation of that section shall not be charged with a violation of this section.

(C)  State law penalty. Whoever violates division (A)(1), (A)(2), or (A)(3) of this section is guilty of operating a motor vehicle bearing an invalid license plate or identification mark, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree on a first offense and a misdemeanor of the third degree on each subsequent offense.

(R.C. §4549.08)  (Prior Code, §71.09)

§ 71.19  OPERATING WITH NUMBER OF FORMER OWNER.

(A)  Generally. No person shall operate or drive upon the highways of this municipality a motor vehicle acquired from a former owner who has registered the motor vehicle, while the motor vehicle displays the distinctive number or identification mark assigned to it upon its original registration.

(R.C. §4549.11(A))

(B)  State law penalty. Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of operation of a motor vehicle bearing license plates or an identification mark issued to another, a minor misdemeanor on a first offense and a misdemeanor of the fourth degree on each subsequent offense.

(R.C. §4549.11(B))

(Prior Code, §71.10)

§ 71.20  DRIVING WITHOUT LICENSE.

No person shall drive a motor vehicle within a park unless such person has been licensed as an operator or chauffeur, or cause or permit a minor under 18 years of age to drive a motor vehicle within a park unless such minor has first obtained a license or permit to drive a motor vehicle.

(Prior Code, §71.11)  (Rules and Regs. §16.17)

Statutory reference:

Similar provisions, see R.C. §§ 4507.01 through 4507.39

Specifically, see R.C. 4507.31

§ 71.21  DRIVING WITHOUT LICENSE PLATES.

No person who is the owner or operator of a motor vehicle shall operate, or cause or permit such motor vehicle to be operated, within the park unless such vehicle displays the distinctive number and registration marks of license plates, legally issued for the current year, securely fastened to the vehicle.

(Prior Code, §71.12)  (Rules and Regs. §16.16)

Chapter 72. TRAFFIC RULES

Section

General Provisions

72.001   Lanes of travel upon roadways
72.002   Vehicles traveling in opposite directions
72.003   Emergency vehicles to proceed cautiously past red or stop signal
72.004   Obeying traffic‑control devices
72.005   Prohibition against alteration, defacing, or removal prohibited
72.006   One‑way highways and rotary traffic islands
72.007   Rules for driving in marked lanes
72.008   Space between moving vehicles
72.009   No passing
72.010   Rules for turns at intersections
72.011   U‑turns and turning in roadway prohibited
72.012   Starting and backing vehicles
72.013   Turn and stop signals
72.014   Hand and arm signals
72.015   Compliance with order of police officer
72.016   Prohibition against resisting officer

Right‑of‑Way
72.030   Right‑of‑way at intersections
72.031   Right‑of‑way when turning left
72.032   Right‑of‑way at through highways; stop signs; yield signs
72.033   Stop at sidewalk or trail area
72.034   Right‑of‑way on public highway
72.035   Failure to yield to pedestrians
72.036   Failure to yield to emergency vehicles
72.037   Animal compliance
72.038   Pedestrians yield right‑of‑way to public safety vehicle
72.039   Pedestrian on crosswalk has right‑of‑way
72.040   Right‑of‑way yielded to blind person
72.041   Right‑of‑way yielded by pedestrian

Pedestrians
72.055   Pedestrian movement in crosswalks
72.056   Prohibition against soliciting rides; riding on outside of vehicle

Reckless Operation
72.070   Reckless operation of vehicle
72.071   Operator to be in reasonable control

Accidents
72.085   Exchange of identity and vehicle registration
72.086   Accident involving injury to persons or property
72.087   Accident involving damage to realty
72.088   Failure to report accident

Prohibitions
72.100   Obstruction and interference affecting view and control of driver
72.101   Driving on closed roads
72.102   Following an emergency or public vehicle prohibited; approaching stationary public safety vehicle with caution
72.103   Slow speed; speed limit
72.104   Transporting child not in child‑restraint system prohibited
72.105   Occupant restraining devices
72.106   Street racing defined; prohibited on public highways
72.107   Driving through safety zone
72.108   Operating motor vehicles while wearing earphones or earplugs
72.109   Defacement of surface

Statutory reference:
Notice of arrest of certain commercial drivers, see R.C.  5577.14

GENERAL PROVISIONS

§ 72.001  LANES OF TRAVEL UPON ROADWAYS.

(A)  Upon all roadways of sufficient width, a vehicle shall be driven upon the right half of the roadway, except as follows:

(1)   When overtaking and passing another vehicle proceeding in the same direction, or when making a left turn under the rules governing such movements;

(2)   When an obstruction exists making it necessary to drive to the left of the center of the highway; provided, any person so doing shall yield the right-of-way to all vehicles traveling in the proper direction upon the unobstructed portion of the highway within such distance as to constitute an immediate hazard;

(3)   When driving upon a roadway divided into three or more marked lanes for traffic under the rules applicable thereon;

(4)   When driving upon a roadway designated and posted with signs for one-way traffic;

(5)   When otherwise directed by a police officer or traffic-control device.

(B)  (1)   Upon all roadways any vehicle proceeding at less than the prevailing and lawful speed of traffic at the time and place and under the conditions then existing shall be driven in the right-hand lane then available for traffic, and far enough to the right to allow passing by faster vehicles if such passing is safe and reasonable, except under any of the following circumstances:

(a)   When overtaking and passing another vehicle proceeding in the same direction;

(b)   When preparing for a left turn;

(c)   When the driver must necessarily drive in a lane other than the right-hand lane to continue on the driver’s intended route.

(2)   Nothing in division (B)(1) of this section requires a driver of a slower vehicle to compromise the driver’s safety to allow overtaking by a faster vehicle.

(C)  Upon any roadway having four or more lanes for moving traffic and providing for two-way movement of traffic, no vehicle shall be driven to the left of the center line of the roadway, except when authorized by official traffic-control devices designating certain lanes to the left of the center of the roadway for use by traffic not otherwise permitted to use the lanes, or except as permitted under division (A)(2) of this section. This division shall not be construed as prohibiting the crossing of the center line in making a left turn into or from an alley, private road, or driveway.

(D)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(E)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.25)  (Prior Code, §72.001)

§ 72.002  VEHICLES TRAVELING IN OPPOSITE DIRECTIONS.

(A)  Operators of vehicles proceeding in opposite directions shall pass each other to the right, and upon roadways having width for not more than one line of traffic in each direction, each operator shall give to the other one-half of the main traveled portion of the roadway or as nearly one-half as is reasonably possible.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(C)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.26)  (Prior Code, §72.002)

§ 72.003  EMERGENCY VEHICLES TO PROCEED CAUTIOUSLY PAST RED OR STOP SIGNAL.

(A)  The driver of any emergency vehicle or public safety vehicle, when responding to an emergency call, upon approaching a red or stop signal or any stop sign, shall slow down as necessary for safety to traffic, but may proceed cautiously past the red or stop sign or signal with due regard for the safety of all persons using the street or highway.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(C)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.03)  (Prior Code, §72.003)

§ 72.004  OBEYING TRAFFIC‑CONTROL DEVICES.

(A)  (1)   No pedestrian or driver of a vehicle shall disobey the instructions of any traffic-control device placed in accordance with the provisions of this traffic code, unless at the time otherwise directed by a police officer.

(2)   No provision of this traffic code for which signs are required shall be enforced against an alleged violator if, at the time and place of the alleged violation, an official sign is not in proper position and sufficiently legible to be seen by an ordinarily observant person. Whenever a particular section of this traffic code does not state that signs are required, that section shall be effective even though no signs are erected or in place.

(R.C. §4511.12(A))

(B)  (1)   Except as provided in division (C) of this section, any operator of a commercial motor vehicle, upon approaching a scale location established for the purpose of determining the weight of the vehicle and its load, shall comply with any traffic control device or the order of a peace officer directing the vehicle to proceed to be weighed or otherwise inspected.

(2)   Any operator of a commercial motor vehicle, upon bypassing a scale location in accordance with division (C) of this section, shall comply with an order of a peace officer to stop the vehicle to verify the use and operation of an electronic clearance device.

(C)  Any operator of a commercial motor vehicle that is equipped with an electronic clearance device authorized by the Superintendent of the State Highway Patrol under R.C. §4549.081 may bypass a scale location, regardless of the instruction of a traffic control device to enter the scale facility, if either of the following apply:

(1)   The in-cab transponder displays a green light or other affirmative visual signal and also sounds an affirmative audible signal;

(2)   Any other criterion established by the Superintendent of the State Highway Patrol is met.

(D)  Any peace officer may order the operator of a commercial motor vehicle that bypasses a scale location to stop the vehicle to verify the use and operation of an electronic clearance device.

(E)  As used in this section, COMMERCIAL MOTOR VEHICLE means any combination of vehicles with a gross vehicle weight rating or an actual gross vehicle weight of more than 10,000 pounds if the vehicle is used in interstate or intrastate commerce to transport property and also means any vehicle that is transporting hazardous materials for which placarding is required pursuant to 49 C.F.R. parts 100 through 180.

(R.C. §4511.121(A) – (C), (E))

(F)   No person shall use an electronic clearance device if the device or its use is not in compliance with rules of the Superintendent of the State Highway Patrol.

(R.C. §4549.081(B))

(G)  (1)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.12(B))

(2)   Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B) of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two or more violations of division (B) of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.121(D))

(3)   Whoever violates division (F) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree on a first offense and a misdemeanor of the third degree on each subsequent offense.

(R.C. §4549.081(C))

(Prior Code, §72.004)

Statutory reference:

Placing traffic-control devices on state highways, permission required, see R.C.  4511.10

Traffic-control devices to conform to the state manual and specifications, see R.C.  4511.11

Uniform system of traffic-control devices, see R.C.  4511.09

§ 72.005  PROHIBITION AGAINST ALTERATION, DEFACING, OR REMOVAL PROHIBITED.

(A)  No person, without lawful authority, shall do any of the following:

(1)   Knowingly move, deface, damage, destroy, or otherwise improperly tamper with any traffic-control device, any railroad sign or signal, or any inscription, shield, or insignia on the device, sign, or signal, or any part of the device, sign, or signal;

(2)   Knowingly drive upon or over any freshly applied pavement marking material on the surface of a roadway while the marking material is in an undried condition, and is marked by flags, markers, signs, or other devices intended to protect it;

(3)   Knowingly move, damage, destroy, or otherwise improperly tamper with a manhole cover.

(B)  (1)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates division (A)(1) or (A)(3) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. If a violation of division (A)(1) or (A)(3) of this section creates a risk of physical harm to any person, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. If a violation of division (A)(1) or (A)(3) of this section causes serious physical harm to property that is owned, leased, or controlled by a state or local authority, the offender is guilty of a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates division (A)(2) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates division (A)(2) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates division (A)(2) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §4511.17)  (Prior Code, §72.005)

§ 72.006  ONE‑WAY HIGHWAYS AND ROTARY TRAFFIC ISLANDS.

(A)  (1)   Upon a roadway designated and posted with signs for one-way traffic, a vehicle shall be driven only in the direction designated.

(2)   A vehicle passing around a rotary traffic island shall be driven only to the right of the rotary traffic island.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(C)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.32)  (Prior Code, §72.006)

§ 72.007  RULES FOR DRIVING IN MARKED LANES.

(A)  Whenever any roadway has been divided into two or more clearly marked lanes for traffic, or wherever within the municipality traffic is lawfully moving in two or more substantially continuous lines in the same direction, the following rules apply.

(1)   A vehicle shall be driven, as nearly as is practicable, entirely within a single lane or line of traffic and shall not be moved from the lane or line until the driver has first ascertained that the movement can be made with safety.

(2)   Upon a roadway which is divided into three lanes and provides for the two-way movement of traffic, a vehicle shall not be driven in the center lane, except when overtaking and passing another vehicle where the roadway is clearly visible and the center lane is clear of traffic within a safe distance, or when preparing for a left turn, or where the center lane is at the time allocated exclusively to traffic moving in the direction the vehicle is proceeding, and is posted with signs to give notice of such allocation.

(3)   Official signs may be erected directing specified traffic to use a designated lane or designating those lanes to be used by traffic moving in a particular direction, regardless of the center of the roadway, or restricting the use of a particular lane to only buses during certain hours or during all hours, and drivers of vehicles shall obey the directions of such signs.

(4)   Official traffic-control devices may be installed prohibiting the changing of lanes on sections of roadway, and drivers of vehicles shall obey the directions of every such device.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(C)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.33)  (Prior Code, §72.007)

§ 72.008  SPACE BETWEEN MOVING VEHICLES.

(A)  (1)   The operator of a motor vehicle shall not follow another vehicle more closely than is reasonable and prudent, having due regard for the speed of the vehicle and the traffic upon and the condition of the highway.

(2)   The driver of any truck, or motor vehicle drawing another vehicle, when traveling upon a roadway outside a business or residence district, shall maintain a sufficient space, whenever conditions permit, between the vehicle and another vehicle ahead so an overtaking motor vehicle may enter and occupy the space without danger. This division (A)(2) does not prevent overtaking and passing nor does it apply to any lane specially designated for use by trucks.

(3)   Motor vehicles being driven upon any roadway outside of a business or residence district in a caravan or motorcade shall maintain a sufficient space between the vehicles so an overtaking vehicle may enter and occupy the space without danger. This division (A)(3) shall not apply to funeral processions.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(C)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.34)  (Prior Code, §72.008)

§ 72.009  NO PASSING.

No person, while operating a vehicle on a park road, except authorized agents in park vehicles, shall pass another moving vehicle on the left, except as set forth in §72.001.

(Prior Code, §72.009)

§ 72.010  RULES FOR TURNS AT INTERSECTIONS.

(A)  The driver of a vehicle intending to turn at an intersection shall be governed by the following rules:

(1)   Approach for a right turn and a right turn shall be made as close as practicable to the right‑hand curb or edge of the roadway.

(2)   At any intersection where traffic is permitted to move in both directions on each roadway entering the intersection, an approach for a left turn shall be made in that portion of the right half of the roadway nearest the center line thereof and by passing to the right of the center line where it enters the intersection, and, after entering the intersection, the left turn shall be made so as to leave the intersection to the right of the center line of the roadway being entered. Whenever practicable, the left turn shall be made in that portion of the intersection to the left of the center of the intersection.

(3)   At any intersection where traffic is restricted to one direction on one or more of the roadways, the driver of a vehicle intending to turn left at any such intersection shall approach the intersection in the extreme left-hand lane lawfully available to traffic moving in the direction of travel of the vehicle, and, after entering the intersection, the left turn shall be made so as to leave the intersection, as nearly as practicable, in the left hand lane of the roadway being entered lawfully available to traffic moving in that lane.

(B)  The Department of Transportation and local authorities may cause markers, buttons, or signs to be placed within or adjacent to intersections, and thereby require and direct that a different course from that specified in this section be traveled by vehicles turning at an intersection, and when markers, buttons, or signs are so placed, no operator of a vehicle shall turn the vehicle at an intersection other than as directed and required by the markers, buttons, or signs.

(C)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(D)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.36)  (Prior Code, §72.010)

§ 72.011  U‑TURNS AND TURNING IN ROADWAY PROHIBITED.

(A)  Except as provided in R.C. §4511.13 and division (B) of this section, no vehicle shall be turned so as to proceed in the opposite direction upon any curve, or upon the approach to or near the crest of a grade, if such vehicle cannot be seen within 500 feet by the driver of any other vehicle approaching from either direction.

(B)  The driver of an emergency vehicle or public safety vehicle, when responding to an emergency call, may turn the vehicle so as to proceed in the opposite direction. This division applies only when the emergency vehicle or public safety vehicle is responding to an emergency call, is equipped with and displaying at least one flashing, rotating, or oscillating light visible under normal atmospheric conditions from a distance of 500 feet to the front of the vehicle, and when the driver of the vehicle is giving an audible signal by siren, exhaust whistle, or bell. This division does not relieve the driver of an emergency vehicle or public safety vehicle from the duty to drive with due regard for the safety of all persons and property upon the highway.

(C)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(D)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.37)  (Prior Code, §72.011)

§ 72.012  STARTING AND BACKING VEHICLES.

(A)  (1)   No person shall start a vehicle which is stopped, standing, or parked until the movement can be made with reasonable safety.

(2)   Before backing, operators of vehicles shall give ample warning, and while backing they shall exercise vigilance not to injure person or property on the street or highway.

(3)   No person shall back a motor vehicle on a freeway, except:

(a)   In a rest area;

(b)   In the performance of public works or official duties;

(c)   As a result of an emergency caused by an accident or breakdown of a motor vehicle.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(C)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.38)  (Prior Code, §72.012)

§ 72.013  TURN AND STOP SIGNALS.

(A)  (1)   No person shall turn a vehicle or move right or left upon a highway unless and until the person has exercised due care to ascertain that the movement can be made with reasonable safety, nor without giving an appropriate signal in the manner hereinafter provided.

(2)   When required, a signal of intention to turn or move right or left shall be given continuously during not less than the last 100 feet traveled by the vehicle before turning, except that in the case of a person operating a bicycle or electric bicycle, the signal shall be made not less than one time but is not required to be continuous. A bicycle or electric bicycle operator is not required to make a signal if the bicycle is in a designated turn lane, and a signal shall not be given when the operator’s hands are needed for the safe operation of the bicycle or electric bicycle.

(3)   No person shall stop or suddenly decrease the speed of a vehicle without first giving an appropriate signal in the manner provided herein to the driver of any vehicle immediately to the rear, when there is opportunity to give a signal.

(4)   Any stop or turn signal required by this section shall be given either by means of the hand and arm, or by signal lights that clearly indicate to both approaching and following traffic the intention to turn or move right or left, except that any motor vehicle in use on a highway shall be equipped with, and the required signal shall be given by, signal lights when the distance from the center of the top of the steering post to the left outside limit of the body, cab or load of such motor vehicle exceeds 24 inches, or when the distance from the center of the top of the steering post to the rear limit of the body or load thereof exceeds 14 feet, whether a single vehicle or a combination of vehicles.

(5)   The signal lights required by this section shall not be flashed on one side only on a disabled vehicle, flashed as a courtesy or Ado pass@ signal to operators of other vehicles approaching from the rear, nor be flashed on one side only of a parked vehicle except as may be necessary for compliance with this section.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(C)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.39)  (Prior Code, §72.013)

§ 72.014  HAND AND ARM SIGNALS.

(A)  Except as provided in division (B) of this section, all signals required by the provisions of this traffic code, when given by hand and arm, shall be given from the left side of the vehicle in the following manner, and the signals shall indicate as follows:

(1)   Left turn, hand and arm extended horizontally;

(2)   Right turn, hand and arm extended upward;

(3)   Stop or decrease speed, hand and arm extended downward.

(B)  As an alternative to division (A)(2) of this section, a person operating a bicycle or electric bicycle may give a right turn signal by extending the right hand and arm horizontally and to the right side of the bicycle or electric bicycle.

(C)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(D)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.40)  (Prior Code, §72.014)

§ 72.015  COMPLIANCE WITH ORDER OF POLICE OFFICER.

(A)  No person shall fail to comply with any lawful order or direction of any police officer invested with authority to direct, control, or regulate traffic.

(B)  No person shall operate a motor vehicle so as willfully to elude or flee a police officer after receiving a visible or audible signal from a police officer to bring the person’s motor vehicle to a stop.

(C)  (1)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of failure to comply with an order or signal of a police officer.

(2)   A violation of division (A) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(3)   Except as provided in divisions (C)(4) and (C)(5) of this section, a violation of division (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(4)   Except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section, a violation of division (B) of this section is a felony and shall be prosecuted under appropriate state law if the jury or judge as trier of fact finds by proof beyond a reasonable doubt that in committing the offense, the offender was fleeing immediately after the commission of a felony.

(5)   (a)   A violation of division (B) of this section is a felony and shall be prosecuted under appropriate state law if the jury or judge as trier of fact finds any of the following by proof beyond a reasonable doubt:

  1. The operation of the motor vehicle by the offender was a proximate cause of serious physical harm to persons or property.
  1. The operation of the motor vehicle by the offender caused a substantial risk of serious physical harm to persons or property.

(b)   If a police officer pursues an offender who is violating division (B) of this section and division (C)(5)(a) of this section applies, the sentencing court, in determining the seriousness of an offender’s conduct for purposes of sentencing the offender for a violation of division (B) of this section, shall consider, along with the factors set forth in R.C. ‘§2929.12 and 2929.13 that are required to be considered, all of the following:

  1. The duration of the pursuit;
  1. The distance of the pursuit;
  1. The rate of speed at which the offender operated the motor vehicle during the pursuit;
  1. Whether the offender failed to stop for traffic lights or stop signs during the pursuit;
  1. The number of traffic lights or stop signs for which the offender failed to stop during the pursuit;
  1. Whether the offender operated the motor vehicle during the pursuit without lighted lights during a time when lighted lights are required;
  1. Whether the offender committed a moving violation during the pursuit;
  1. The number of moving violations the offender committed during the pursuit;
  1. Any other relevant factors indicating that the offender’s conduct is more serious than conduct normally constituting the offense.

(D)  In addition to any other sanction imposed for a violation of division (A) of this section or a misdemeanor violation of division (B) of this section, the court shall impose a class five suspension from the range specified in R.C. §4510.02(A)(5). If the offender previously has been found guilty of an offense under this section or under R.C. §2921.331 or any other substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, in addition to any other sanction imposed for the offense, the court shall impose a class one suspension as described in R.C. §4510.02(A)(1). The court may grant limited driving privileges to the offender on a suspension imposed for a misdemeanor violation of this section as set forth in R.C. §4510.021. No judge shall suspend any portion of the suspension under a class one suspension of an offender’s license, permit, or privilege required by this division.

(E)  As used in this section:

MOVING VIOLATION. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2743.70.

POLICE OFFICER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4511.01.

(R.C. §2921.331(A) – (C), (E), (F))  (Prior Code, §72.015)

§ 72.016  PROHIBITION AGAINST RESISTING OFFICER.

(A)  No person shall resist, hinder, obstruct, or abuse any sheriff, constable, or other official while that official is attempting to arrest offenders under any provision of this Title VII. No person shall interfere with any person charged under any provision of this Title VII with the enforcement of the law relative to public highways.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.36)

(C)  It is a defense to prosecution under this section that the hindrance, obstruction, resistance, or interference alleged consisted of constitutionally protected speech only.

(Prior Code, §72.016)

RIGHT‑OF‑WAY

§ 72.030  RIGHT‑OF‑WAY AT INTERSECTIONS.

(A)  When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection from different streets or highways at approximately the same time, the driver of the vehicle on the left shall yield the right-of-way to the vehicle on the right.

(B)  The right-of-way rule declared in division (A) of this section is modified at through highways and otherwise as stated in this traffic code or R.C. Chapter 4511.

(C)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(D)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.41)  (Prior Code, §72.030)

§ 72.031  RIGHT‑OF‑WAY WHEN TURNING LEFT.

(A)  The operator of a vehicle intending to turn to the left within an intersection or into an alley, private road, or driveway shall yield the right-of-way to any vehicle approaching from the opposite direction which is within the intersection or so close thereto as to constitute an immediate hazard.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(C)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.42)  (Prior Code, §72.031)

§ 72.032  RIGHT‑OF‑WAY AT THROUGH HIGHWAYS; STOP SIGNS; YIELD SIGNS.

(A)  Except when directed to proceed by a law enforcement officer, every driver of a vehicle approaching a stop sign shall stop at a clearly marked stop line, but if none, before entering the crosswalk on the near side of the intersection, or, if none, then at the point nearest the intersecting roadway where the driver has a view of approaching traffic on the intersecting roadway before entering it. After having stopped, the driver shall yield the right-of-way to any vehicle in the intersection or approaching on another roadway so closely as to constitute an immediate hazard during the time the driver is moving across or within the intersection or junction of roadways.

(B)  The driver of a vehicle approaching a yield sign shall slow down to a speed reasonable for the existing conditions, and if required for safety to stop, shall stop at a clearly marked stop line, but if none, before entering the crosswalk on the near side of the intersection, or if none, then at the point nearest the intersecting roadway where the driver has a view of approaching traffic on the intersecting roadway before entering it. After slowing, the driver shall yield the right-of-way to any vehicle in the intersection or approaching on another roadway so closely as to constitute an immediate hazard during the time the driver is moving across or within the intersection or junction of roadways. Whenever a driver is involved in a collision with a vehicle in the intersection or junction of roadways, after driving past a yield sign without stopping, the collision shall be prima facie evidence of the driver’s failure to yield the right‑of‑way.

(C)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(D)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.43)  (Prior Code, §72.032)

§ 72.033  STOP AT SIDEWALK OR TRAIL AREA.

(A)  The driver of a vehicle emerging from an alley, building, private road, or driveway within a business or residence district shall stop the vehicle immediately prior to driving onto a sidewalk or trail or onto the sidewalk or trail area extending across the alley, building entrance, road, or driveway, or in the event there is no sidewalk or trail area, shall stop at the point nearest the street to be entered where the driver has a view of approaching traffic thereon.

(R.C. §4511.431(A))

(B)  The owner of a private road or driveway located in a private residential area containing 20 or more dwelling units may erect stop signs at places where the road or driveway intersects with another private road or driveway in the residential area, in compliance with all of the following requirements:

(1)   The stop sign is sufficiently legible to be seen by an ordinarily observant person and meets the specifications of and is placed in accordance with the manual adopted by the Department of Transportation pursuant to R.C. §4511.09;

(2)   The owner has posted a sign at the entrance of the private road or driveway that is in plain view and clearly informs persons entering the road or driveway that they are entering private property, stop signs have been posted and must be obeyed, and the signs are enforceable by law enforcement officers under state law. The sign required by this division, where appropriate, may be incorporated with the sign required by R.C. §4511.211(A)(2), or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

(C)  The provisions of R.C. §4511.43(A) and R.C. §4511.46, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, shall be deemed to apply to the driver of a vehicle on a private road or driveway where a stop sign is placed in accordance with division (B) of this section and to a pedestrian crossing such a road or driveway at an intersection where a stop sign is in place.

(D)  When a stop sign is placed in accordance with division (B) of this section, any law enforcement officer may apprehend a person found violating the stop sign and may stop and charge the person with violating the stop sign.

(E)  As used in this section, and for the purpose of applying R.C. §4511.43(A) and R.C. §4511.46, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, to conduct under this section:

INTERSECTION. Means:

(a)   The area embraced within the prolongation or connection of the lateral curb lines, or, if none, then the lateral boundary lines of the roadways of two private roads or driveways which join one another at, or approximately at, right angles, or the area within which vehicles traveling upon different private roads or driveways joining at any other angle may come in conflict.

(b)   Where a private road or driveway includes two roadways 30 feet or more apart, then every crossing of two roadways of such private roads or driveways shall be regarded as a separate intersection.

OWNER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4511.211.

PRIVATE RESIDENTIAL AREA CONTAINING 20 OR MORE DWELLING UNITS. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4511.211.

ROADWAY. Means that portion of a private road or driveway improved, designed or ordinarily used for vehicular travel, except the berm or shoulder. If a private road or driveway includes two or more separate roadways, the term means any such roadway separately but not all such roadways collectively.

(R.C.§4511.432(A) – (C), (E))

(F)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. Ԥ4511.431(B), 4511.432(D))

(G)  If the offender violates division (A) of this section while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. Ԥ4511.431(B))

(Prior Code, §72.033)

§ 72.034  RIGHT‑OF‑WAY ON PUBLIC HIGHWAY.

(A)  The operator of a vehicle about to enter or cross a highway from any place other than another roadway shall yield the right-of-way to all traffic approaching on the roadway to be entered or crossed.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(C)  If the offender violates division (A) of this section while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.44)  (Prior Code, §72.034)

§ 72.035  FAILURE TO YIELD TO PEDESTRIANS.

No person, while operating a motor vehicle, bicycle, or riding a horse, shall fail to yield to a pedestrian.

(Prior Code, §72.035)

Statutory reference:

Right‑of‑way of pedestrian on sidewalk, see R.C. 4511.441

§ 72.036  FAILURE TO YIELD TO EMERGENCY VEHICLES.

No person shall fail to yield to an emergency vehicle engaged in a law enforcement or rescue capacity.

(Prior Code, §72.036)

Statutory reference:

Right‑of‑way of public safety vehicles, see R.C. 4511.45

§ 72.037  ANIMAL COMPLIANCE.

Every person riding, driving, or leading an animal upon a roadway is subject to the provisions of this traffic code, applicable to the driver of a vehicle, except those provisions of this traffic code which by their nature are inapplicable.

(R.C. §4511.05)  (Prior Code, §72.037)

§ 72.038  PEDESTRIANS YIELD RIGHT‑OF‑WAY TO PUBLIC SAFETY VEHICLE.

(A)  Upon the immediate approach of a public safety vehicle, as stated in R.C. §4511.45 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, every pedestrian shall yield the right-of-way to the public safety vehicle.

(B)  This section shall not relieve the driver of a public safety vehicle from the duty to exercise due care to avoid colliding with any pedestrian.

(C)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §4511.452)  (Prior Code, §72.038)

§ 72.039  PEDESTRIAN ON CROSSWALK HAS RIGHT‑OF‑WAY.

(A)  When traffic-control signals are not in place, not in operation, or are not clearly assigning the right-of-way, the driver of a vehicle shall yield the right-of-way, slowing down or stopping if need be to so yield, or if required by R.C. §4511.132 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, to a pedestrian crossing the roadway within a crosswalk when the pedestrian is upon the half of the roadway upon which the vehicle is traveling, or when the pedestrian is approaching so closely from the opposite half of the roadway as to be in danger.

(B)  No pedestrian shall suddenly leave a curb or other place of safety and walk or run into the path of a vehicle which is so close as to constitute an immediate hazard.

(C)  Division (A) of this section does not apply under the conditions stated in R.C. §4511.48(B), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

(D)  Whenever any vehicle is stopped at a marked crosswalk or at any unmarked crosswalk at an intersection to permit a pedestrian to cross the roadway, the driver of any other vehicle approaching from the rear shall not overtake and pass the stopped vehicle.

(E)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(F)   If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.46)

(Prior Code, §72.039)

§ 72.040  RIGHT‑OF‑WAY YIELDED TO BLIND PERSON.

(A)  (1)   As used in this section BLIND PERSON or BLIND PEDESTRIAN means a person having not more than 20/200 visual acuity in the better eye with correcting lenses, or visual acuity greater than 20/200, but with a limitation in the fields of vision such that the widest diameter of the visual field subtends an angle no greater than 20 degrees.

(2)   The driver of every vehicle shall yield the right-of-way to every blind pedestrian guided by a guide dog, or carrying a cane which is predominantly white or metallic in color, with or without a red tip.

(B)  No person, other than a blind person, while on any public highway, street, alley, or other public thoroughfare, shall carry a white or metallic cane, with or without a red tip.

(C)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(D)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.47)  (Prior Code, §72.040)

§ 72.041  RIGHT‑OF‑WAY YIELDED BY PEDESTRIAN.

(A)  Every pedestrian crossing a roadway at any point other than within a marked crosswalk or within an unmarked crosswalk at an intersection shall yield the right-of-way to all vehicles upon the roadway.

(B)  Any pedestrian crossing a roadway at a point where a pedestrian tunnel or overhead pedestrian crossing has been provided shall yield the right-of-way to all traffic upon the roadway.

(C)  Between adjacent intersections at which traffic-control signals are in operation, pedestrians shall not cross at any place except in a marked crosswalk.

(D)  No pedestrian shall cross a roadway intersection diagonally unless authorized by official traffic‑control devices; and when authorized to cross diagonally, pedestrians shall cross only in accordance with the official traffic-control devices pertaining to such crossing movements.

(E)  This section does not relieve the operator of a vehicle from exercising due care to avoid colliding with any pedestrian upon any roadway.

(F)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §4511.48)  (Prior Code, §72.041)

PEDESTRIANS

§ 72.055  PEDESTRIAN MOVEMENT IN CROSSWALKS.

(A)  Pedestrians shall move, whenever practicable, upon the right half of crosswalks.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §4511.49)  (Prior Code, §72.055)

§ 72.056  PROHIBITION AGAINST SOLICITING RIDES; RIDING ON OUTSIDE OF VEHICLE.

(A)  Safety zone; solicitation. No person while on a roadway outside a safety zone shall solicit a ride from the driver of any vehicle.

(B)  Standing on highway for solicitation; exceptions.

(1)   Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, no person shall stand on a highway for the purpose of soliciting employment, business, or contributions from the occupant of any vehicle.

(2)   The Legislative Authority, by ordinance, may authorize the issuance of a permit to a charitable organization to allow a person acting on behalf of the organization to solicit charitable contributions from the occupant of a vehicle by standing on a highway, other than a freeway as provided in R.C. §4511.051(A)(1), that is under the jurisdiction of the municipality. The permit shall be valid for only one period of time, which shall be specified in the permit, in any calendar year. The Legislative Authority also may specify the locations where contributions may be solicited and may impose any other restrictions on or requirements regarding the manner in which the solicitations are to be conducted that the Legislative Authority considers advisable.

(3)   As used in division (B)(2) of this section, CHARITABLE ORGANIZATION means an organization that has received from the Internal Revenue Service a currently valid ruling or determination letter recognizing the tax-exempt status of the organization pursuant to I.R.C. §501(c)(3).

(C)  Hanging, riding outside of vehicle. No person shall hang onto or ride on the outside of any motor vehicle while it is moving upon a roadway, except mechanics or test engineers making repairs or adjustments, or workers performing specialized highway or street maintenance or construction under authority of a public agency.

(D)  Riding in unenclosed, unroofed cargo storage area. No operator shall knowingly permit any person to hang onto or ride on the outside of any motor vehicle while it is moving upon a roadway, except mechanics or test engineers making repairs or adjustments, or workers performing specialized highway or street maintenance or construction under authority of a public agency.

(E)  Unhitched tailgate. No driver of a truck, trailer, or semitrailer shall knowingly permit any person who has not attained the age of 16 years to ride in the unenclosed or unroofed cargo storage area of the driver’s vehicle if the vehicle is traveling faster than 25 miles per hour, unless either of the following applies:

(1)   The cargo storage area of the vehicle is equipped with a properly secured seat to which is attached a seat safety belt that is in compliance with federal standards for an occupant restraining device as defined in R.C. §4513.263(A)(2), the seat and seat safety belt were installed at the time the vehicle was originally assembled, and the person riding in the cargo storage area is in the seat and is wearing the seat safety belt; or

(2)   An emergency exists that threatens the life of the driver or the person being transported in the cargo storage area of the truck, trailer, or semitrailer.

(F)   Riding in cargo area not permitted; exceptions. No driver of a truck, trailer, or semitrailer shall permit any person, except for those workers performing specialized highway or street maintenance or construction under authority of a public agency, to ride in the cargo storage area or on a tailgate of the driver’s vehicle while the tailgate is unlatched.

(G)  State law penalty.

(1)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates any provision of divisions (A) through (D) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates any provision of divisions (A) through (D) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates any provision of divisions (A) through (D) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(2)   Whoever violates division (E) or (F) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4511.51)  (Prior Code, §72.056)

RECKLESS OPERATION

§ 72.070  RECKLESS OPERATION OF VEHICLE.

No person shall operate a vehicle along or over any road or drive within or adjacent to the park in a reckless manner or without due regard for the safety and the rights of pedestrians and drivers and occupants of all other vehicles.

(Prior Code, §72.070)  (Rules and Regs. §16.13)

§ 72.071  OPERATOR TO BE IN REASONABLE CONTROL.

(A)  No person shall operate a motor vehicle, agricultural tractor, or agricultural tractor that is towing, pulling, or otherwise drawing a unit of farm machinery on any street, highway, or property open to the public for vehicular traffic without being in reasonable control of the vehicle, agricultural tractor, or unit of farm machinery.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of operating a motor vehicle or agricultural tractor without being in control of it, a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4511.202)  (Prior Code, §72.071)

ACCIDENTS

§ 72.085  EXCHANGE OF IDENTITY AND VEHICLE REGISTRATION.

(A)  (1)   In the case of a motor vehicle accident or collision with persons or property on a public road or highway, the operator of the motor vehicle, having knowledge of the accident or collision, immediately shall stop the operator’s motor vehicle at the scene of the accident or collision. The operator shall remain at the scene of the accident or collision until the operator has given the operator’s name and address and, if the operator is not the owner, the name and address of the owner of that motor vehicle, together with the registered number of that motor vehicle, to all of the following:

(a)   Any person injured in the accident or collision;

(b)   The operator, occupant, owner, or attendant of any motor vehicle damaged in the accident or collision;

(c)   The police officer at the scene of the accident or collision.

(2)   In the event an injured person is unable to comprehend and record the information required to be given under division (A)(1) of this section, the other operator involved in the accident or collision shall notify the nearest police authority concerning the location of the accident or collision, and the operator’s name, address, and the registered number of the motor vehicle the operator was operating. The operator shall remain at the scene of the accident or collision until a police officer arrives, unless removed from the scene by an emergency vehicle operated by a political subdivision or an ambulance.

(3)   If the accident or collision is with an unoccupied or unattended motor vehicle, the operator who collides with the motor vehicle shall securely attach the information required to be given in this section, in writing, to a conspicuous place in or on the unoccupied or unattended motor vehicle.

(B)  (1)   Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of failure to stop after an accident. Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) or (B)(3) of this section, failure to stop after an accident is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(2)   If the accident or collision results in serious physical harm to a person, failure to stop after an accident is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   If the accident or collision results in the death of a person, failure to stop after an accident is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(4)   In all cases, the court, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, shall impose upon the offender a class five suspension of the offender’s driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating privilege from the range specified in R.C. §4510.02(A)(5). No judge shall suspend the first six months of suspension of an offender’s license, permit, or privilege required by this division.

(5)   The offender shall provide the court with proof of financial responsibility as defined in R.C. §4509.01. If the offender fails to provide that proof of financial responsibility, then, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, the court may order restitution pursuant to R.C. §2929.18 or 2929.28 in an amount not exceeding $5,000 for any economic loss arising from an accident or collision that was the direct and proximate result of the offender’s operation of the motor vehicle before, during, or after committing the offense charged under this section.

(R.C. §4549.02)  (Prior Code, §72.085)

§ 72.086  ACCIDENT INVOLVING INJURY TO PERSONS OR PROPERTY.

(A)  (1)   In the case of a motor vehicle accident or collision resulting in injury or damage to persons or property on any public or private property other than a public road or highway, the operator of the motor vehicle, having knowledge of the accident or collision, shall stop at the scene of the accident or collision. Upon request of any person who is injured or damaged, or any other person, the operator shall give that person the operator’s name and address, and, if the operator is not the owner, the name and address of the owner of that motor vehicle, together with the registered number of that motor vehicle, and, if available, exhibit the operator’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license.

(2)   If the operator of the motor vehicle involved in the accident or collision does not provide the information specified in division (A)(1) of this section, the operator shall give that information, within 24 hours after the accident or collision, to the police department of the city or village in which the accident or collision occurred, or if it occurred outside the corporate limits of a city or village, to the sheriff of the county in which the accident or collision occurred.

(3)   If the accident or collision is with an unoccupied or unattended motor vehicle, the operator who collides with the motor vehicle shall securely attach the information required under division (A)(1) of this section, in writing, to a conspicuous place in or on the unoccupied or unattended motor vehicle.

(B)  (1)   Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of failure to stop after a nonpublic road accident. Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) or (B)(3) of this section, failure to stop after a nonpublic road accident is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(2)   If the accident or collision results in serious physical harm to a person, failure to stop after a nonpublic road accident is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   If the accident or collision results in the death of a person, failure to stop after a nonpublic road accident is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(4)   In all cases, the court, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, shall impose upon the offender a class five suspension of the offender’s driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating privilege from the range specified in R.C. §4510.02(A)(5). No judge shall suspend the first six months of suspension of an offender’s license, permit, or privilege required by this division.

(5)   The offender shall provide the court with proof of financial responsibility as defined in R.C. §4509.01. If the offender fails to provide that proof of financial responsibility, then, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, the court may order restitution pursuant to R.C. §2929.18 or 2929.28 in an amount not exceeding $5,000 for any economic loss arising from an accident or collision that was the direct and proximate result of the offender’s operation of the motor vehicle before, during, or after committing the offense charged under this section.

(R.C. §4549.021)  (Prior Code, §72.086)

§ 72.087  ACCIDENT INVOLVING DAMAGE TO REALTY.

(A)  (1)   The driver of any vehicle involved in an accident resulting in damage to real property, or personal property attached to real property, legally upon or adjacent to a public road or highway immediately shall stop and take reasonable steps to locate and notify the owner or person in charge of the property of that fact, of the driver’s name and address, and of the registration number of vehicle the driver is driving and, upon request and if available, shall exhibit the driver’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license.

(2)   If the owner or person in charge of the property cannot be located after reasonable search, the driver of the vehicle involved in the accident resulting in damage to the property, within 24 hours after accident, shall forward to the police department of the municipality the same information required to be given to the owner or person in control of the property and give the location of the accident and a description of the damage insofar as it is known.

(B)  (1)   Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of failure to stop after an accident involving the property of others, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(2)   The offender shall provide the court with proof of financial responsibility as defined in R.C. §4509.01. If the offender fails to provide that proof of financial responsibility, then, in addition to any other penalties provided by law, the court may order restitution pursuant to §130.99(H) or R.C. §2929.28 in an amount not exceeding $5,000 for any economic loss arising from an accident or collision that was the direct and proximate result of the offender’s operation of the motor vehicle before, during, or after committing the offense charged under this section.

(R.C. §4549.03)  (Prior Code, §72.087)

§ 72.088  FAILURE TO REPORT ACCIDENT.

(A)  No person shall fail to report a motor vehicle accident as required under state or local law.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4509.74)  (Prior Code, §72.088)

PROHIBITIONS

§ 72.100  OBSTRUCTION AND INTERFERENCE AFFECTING VIEW AND CONTROL OF DRIVER.

(A)  No person shall drive a vehicle when it is so loaded, or when there are in the front seat such number of persons, as to obstruct the view of the driver to the front or sides of the vehicle, or to interfere with the driver’s control over the driving mechanism of the vehicle.

(B)  No passenger in a vehicle shall ride in a position as to interfere with the driver’s view ahead or to the sides, or to interfere with the driver’s control over the driving mechanism of the vehicle.

(C)  No person shall open the door of a vehicle on the side available to moving traffic unless and until it is reasonably safe to do so, and can be done without interfering with the movement of other traffic, nor shall any person leave a door open on the side of a vehicle available to moving traffic for a period of time longer than necessary to load or unload passengers.

(D)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §4511.70)  (Prior Code, §72.100)

§ 72.101  DRIVING ON CLOSED ROADS.

No person shall drive upon or along any park road or drive which has been closed or posted with appropriate signs or barricades. No person in a park shall drive around, cause to be moved, or damage any barricade barrier, so placed to temporarily or permanently close a road to sign traffic.

(Prior Code, §72.101)  (Rules and Regs. §16.3)

§ 72.102  FOLLOWING AN EMERGENCY OR PUBLIC VEHICLE PROHIBITED; APPROACHING STATIONARY PUBLIC SAFETY VEHICLE WITH CAUTION.

(A)  Following an emergency or public vehicle prohibited. The driver of any vehicle, other than an emergency vehicle or public safety vehicle on official business, shall not follow any emergency vehicle or public safety vehicle traveling in response to an alarm closer than 500 feet, or drive into or park the vehicle within the block where the fire apparatus has stopped in answer to a fire alarm, unless directed to do so by a police officer or a firefighter.

(R.C. §4511.72(A))

(B)  Approaching stationary public safety vehicle with caution.

(1)   The driver of a motor vehicle, upon approaching a stationary public safety vehicle, emergency vehicle, road service vehicle, waste collection vehicle, vehicle used by the Public Utilities Commission to conduct motor vehicle inspections in accordance with R.C. ‘§4923.04 and 4923.06, or a highway maintenance vehicle that is displaying the appropriate visual signals by means of flashing, oscillating, or rotating lights, as prescribed in R.C. §4513.17, shall do either of the following:

(a)   If the driver of the motor vehicle is traveling on a highway that consists of at least two lanes that carry traffic in the same direction of travel as that of the driver’s motor vehicle, the driver shall proceed with due caution and, if possible and with due regard to the road, weather, and traffic conditions, shall change lanes into a lane that is not adjacent to that of the stationary public safety vehicle, emergency vehicle, road service vehicle, waste collection vehicle, vehicle used by the Public Utilities Commission to conduct motor vehicle inspections in accordance with R.C. ‘§4923.04 and 4923.06, or a highway maintenance vehicle.

(b)   If the driver is not traveling on a highway of a type described in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, or if the driver is traveling on a highway of that type but it is not possible to change lanes or if to do so would be unsafe, the driver shall proceed with due caution, reduce the speed of the motor vehicle, and maintain a safe speed for the road, weather, and traffic conditions.

(2)   This division (B) does not relieve the driver of a public safety vehicle, emergency vehicle, road service vehicle, waste collection vehicle, vehicle used by the Public Utilities Commission to conduct motor vehicle inspections in accordance with R.C. ‘§4923.04 and 4923.06, or a highway maintenance vehicle from the duty to drive with due regard for the safety of all persons and property upon the highway.

(3)   No person shall fail to drive a motor vehicle in compliance with divisions (B)(1)(a) or (B)(1)(b) of this section when so required by division (B) of this section.

(R.C. §4511.213(A) – (C))

(C)  Penalty.

(1)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(2)   Notwithstanding §130.99 or R.C. §2929.28, upon a finding that a person operated a motor vehicle in violation of division (B)(3) of this section, the court, in addition to all other penalties provided by law, shall impose a fine of two times the usual amount imposed for the violation.

(3)   If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. Ԥ4511.213(D), 4511.72(B))

(D)  The offense established under division (B) of this section is a strict liability offense and R.C. §2901.20 does not apply. The designation of this offense as a strict liability offense shall not be construed to imply that any other offense, for which there is no specified degree of culpability, is not a strict liability offense.

(R.C. Ԥ4511.213(E))

(Prior Code, §72.102)

§ 72.103  SLOW SPEED; SPEED LIMIT.

(A)  (1)   No person shall stop or operate a vehicle at such an unreasonably slow speed as to impede or block the normal and reasonable movement of traffic, except when stopping or reduced speed is necessary for safe operation or to comply with law.

(2)   Whenever the Director of Transportation or local authorities determine on the basis of an engineering and traffic investigation that slow speeds on any part of a controlled-access highway, expressway, or freeway consistently impede the normal and reasonable movement of traffic, the Director or such local authority may declare a minimum speed limit below which no person shall operate a motor vehicle, except when necessary for safe operation or in compliance with the law. No minimum speed limit established hereunder shall be less than 30 mph, greater than 50 mph, nor effective until the provisions of R.C. §4511.21 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, relating to appropriate signs, have been fulfilled and local authorities have obtained the approval of the Director.

(3)   In a case involving a violation of this section, the trier of fact, in determining whether the vehicle was being operated at an unreasonably slow speed, shall consider the capabilities of the vehicle and its operator.

(4)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(5)   If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.22)

(B)  No person in a park shall operate a motor vehicle at a greater speed than will permit him or her to bring it to a stop within the assured clear distance ahead, but in no event at a greater speed than the posted speed limit.

(Prior Code, §72.103)

§ 72.104  TRANSPORTING CHILD NOT IN CHILD‑RESTRAINT SYSTEM PROHIBITED.

(A)  When any child who is in either or both of the following categories is being transported in a motor vehicle, other than a taxicab or public safety vehicle as defined in R.C. §4511.01, that is required by the United States Department of Transportation to be equipped with seat belts at the time of manufacture or assembly, the operator of the motor vehicle shall have the child properly secured in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions in a child restraint system that meets federal motor vehicle safety standards:

(1)   A child who is less than four years of age;

(2)   A child who weighs less than 40 pounds.

(B)  When any child who is in either or both of the following categories is being transported in a motor vehicle, other than a taxicab, that is owned, leased, or otherwise under the control of a nursery school or day-care center, the operator of the motor vehicle shall have the child properly secured in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions in a child restraint system that meets federal motor vehicle safety standards:

(1)   A child who is less than four years of age;

(2)   A child who weighs less than 40 pounds.

(C)  When any child who is less than eight years of age and less than four feet nine inches in height, who is not required by division (A) or (B) of this section to be secured in a child restraint system, is being transported in a motor vehicle, other than a taxicab or public safety vehicle as defined in R.C. §4511.01 or a vehicle that is regulated under R.C. §5104.015, that is required by the United States Department of Transportation to be equipped with seat belts at the time of manufacture or assembly, the operator of the motor vehicle shall have the child properly secured in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions on a booster seat that meets federal motor vehicle safety standards.

(D)  When any child who is at least eight years of age but not older than 15 years of age, and who is not otherwise required by division (A), (B), or (C) of this section to be secured in a child restraint system or booster seat, is being transported in a motor vehicle, other than a taxicab or public safety vehicle as defined in R.C. §4511.01, that is required by the United States Department of Transportation to be equipped with seat belts at the time of manufacture or assembly, the operator of the motor vehicle shall have the child properly restrained either in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions in a child restraint system that meets federal motor vehicle safety standards or in an occupant restraining device as defined in R.C. §4513.263.

(E)  Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, no law enforcement officer shall cause an operator of a motor vehicle being operated on any street or highway to stop the motor vehicle for the sole purpose of determining whether a violation of division (C) or (D) of this section has been or is being committed or for the sole purpose of issuing a ticket, citation, or summons for a violation of division (C) or (D) of this section or causing the arrest of or commencing a prosecution of a person for a violation of division (C) or (D) of this section, and absent another violation of law, a law enforcement officer’s view of the interior or visual inspection of a motor vehicle being operated on any street or highway may not be used for the purpose of determining whether a violation of division (C) or (D) of this section has been or is being committed.

(F)   The Director of Public Safety shall adopt such rules as are necessary to carry out this section.

(G)  The failure of an operator of a motor vehicle to secure a child in a child restraint system, a booster seat, or an occupant restraining device as required in this section is not negligence imputable to the child, is not admissible as evidence in any civil action involving the rights of the child against any other person allegedly liable for injuries to the child, is not to be used as a basis for a criminal prosecution of the operator of the motor vehicle other than a prosecution for a violation of this section, and is not admissible as evidence in any criminal action involving the operator of the motor vehicle other than a prosecution for a violation of this section.

(H)  This section does not apply when an emergency exists that threatens the life of any person operating or occupying a motor vehicle that is being used to transport a child who otherwise would be required to be restrained under this section. This section does not apply to a person operating a motor vehicle who has an affidavit signed by a physician licensed to practice in this state under R.C. Chapter 4731 or a chiropractor licensed to practice in this state under R.C. Chapter 4734 that states that the child who otherwise would be required to be restrained under this section has a physical impairment that makes use of a child restraint system, booster seat, or an occupant restraining device impossible or impractical, provided that the person operating the vehicle has safely and appropriately restrained the child in accordance with any recommendations of the physician or chiropractor as noted on the affidavit.

(I)   Nothing in this section shall be construed to require any person to carry with the person the birth certificate of a child to prove the age of the child, but the production of a valid birth certificate for a child showing that the child was not of an age to which this section applies is a defense against any ticket, citation, or summons issued for violating this section.

(J)   (1)   Whoever violates division (A), (B), (C), or (D) of this section shall be punished as follows, provided that the failure of an operator of a motor vehicle to secure more than one child in a child restraint system, booster seat, or occupant restraining device as required by this section that occurred at the same time, on the same day, and at the same location is deemed to be a single violation of this section:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (J)(1)(b) of this section, the offender is guilty of a minor misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than $25 nor more than $75.

(b)   If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A), (B), (C), or (D) of this section or of a state law or municipal ordinance that is substantially equivalent any of those divisions, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(2)   All fines imposed pursuant to division (J)(1) of this section shall be forwarded to the State Treasurer for deposit in the Child Highway Safety Fund created by R.C. §4511.81(I).

(R.C. §4511.81(A) – (H), (K), (L))  (Prior Code, §72.104)

§ 72.105  OCCUPANT RESTRAINING DEVICES.

(A)  Definitions. As used in this section:

AUTOMOBILE. Means any commercial tractor, passenger car, commercial car, or truck that is required to be factory-equipped with an occupant restraining device for the operator or any passenger by regulations adopted by the United States Secretary of Transportation pursuant to the ANational Traffic and Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1966@, 80 Stat. 719, 15 U.S.C. §1392.

COMMERCIAL CAR. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4501.01.

COMMERCIAL TRACTOR. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4501.01.

OCCUPANT RESTRAINING DEVICE. A seat safety belt, shoulder belt, harness, or other safety device for restraining a person who is an operator of or passenger in an automobile and that satisfies the minimum federal vehicle safety standards established by the United States Department of Transportation.

PASSENGER. Any person in an automobile, other than its operator, who is occupying a seating position for which an occupant restraining device is provided.

PASSENGER CAR. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4501.01.

TORT ACTION. A civil action for damages for injury, death, or loss to person or property. The term includes a product liability claim, as defined in R.C. §2307.71, and as asbestos claim, as defined in R.C. §2307.91, but does not include a civil action for damages for breach of contract or another agreement between persons.

VEHICLE and MOTOR VEHICLE. As used in the definitions of the terms set forth above, VEHICLE and MOTOR VEHICLE have the same meanings as in R.C. §4511.01.

(B)  Prohibited acts. No person shall do any of the following:

(1)   Operate an automobile on any street or highway unless he or she is wearing all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device, or operate a school bus that has an occupant restraining device installed for use in its operator’s seat unless he or she is wearing all of the available elements of the device, as properly adjusted.

(2)   Operate an automobile on any street or highway unless each passenger in the automobile who is subject to the requirement set forth in division (B)(3) of this section is wearing all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device.

(3)   Occupy, as a passenger, a seating position on the front seat of an automobile being operated on any street or highway unless he or she is wearing all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device.

(4)   Operate a taxicab on any street or highway unless all factory-equipped occupant restraining devices in the taxicab are maintained in usable form.

(C)  Exceptions.

(1)   Division (B)(3) of this section does not apply to a person who is required by R.C. §4511.81 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance to be secured in a child restraint device or booster seat.

(2)   Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to a person who is an employee of the United States Postal Service or of a newspaper home delivery service, during any period in which the person is engaged in the operation of an automobile to deliver mail or newspapers to addressees.

(3)   Divisions (B)(1) and (B)(3) of this section do not apply to a person who has an affidavit signed by a physician licensed to practice in this state under R.C. Chapter 4731 or a chiropractor licensed to practice in this state under R.C. Chapter 4734 that states the following:

(a)   That the person has a physical impairment that makes use of an occupant restraining device impossible or impractical;

(b)   Whether the physical impairment is temporary, permanent, or reasonably expected to be permanent;

(c)   If the physical impairment is temporary, how long the physical impairment is expected to make the use of an occupant restraining device impossible or impractical.

(4)   Divisions (B)(1) and (B)(3) of this section do not apply to a person who has registered with the Registrar of Motor Vehicles in accordance with division (C)(5) of this section.

(5)   A person who has received an affidavit under division (C)(3) of this section stating that the person has a permanent or reasonably expected to be permanent physical impairment that makes use of an occupant restraining device impossible or impracticable may register with the Registrar of Motor Vehicles attesting to that fact. Upon such registration, the Registrar shall make that information available in the law enforcement automated data system. A person included in the database under division (C)(5) of this section is not required to have the affidavit obtained in accordance with division (C)(3) of this section in their possession while operating or occupying an automobile.

(6)   A physician or chiropractor who issues an affidavit for the purposes of division (C)(3) or (C)(4) of this section is immune from civil liability arising from any injury or death sustained by the person who was issued the affidavit due to the failure of the person to wear an occupant restraining device unless the physician or chiropractor, in issuing the affidavit, acted in a manner that constituted willful, wanton, or reckless misconduct.

(7)   The Registrar of Motor Vehicles shall adopt rules in accordance with R.C. Chapter 119 establishing a process for a person to be included in the database under division (C)(5) of this section. The information provided and included in the database under division (C)(5) of this section is not a public record subject to inspection or copying under R.C. §149.43.

(D)  Officers not permitted to stop cars to determine violation. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, no law enforcement officer shall cause an operator of an automobile being operated on any street or highway to stop the automobile for the sole purpose of determining whether a violation of division (B) of this section has been or is being committed or for the sole purpose of issuing a ticket, citation, or summons for the violation or for causing the arrest of or commencing a prosecution of a person for the violation. No law enforcement officer shall view the interior or visually inspect any automobile being operated on any street or highway for the sole purpose of determining whether the violation has been or is being committed.

(E)  Use of fines for educational program. All fines collected for violations of division (B) of this section shall be forwarded to the State Treasurer for deposit in the funds as set forth in R.C. §4513.263(E).

(F)   Limitations on evidence used for prosecution.

(1)   Subject to division (F)(2) of this section, the failure of a person to wear all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device in violation of division (B)(1) or (B)(3) of this section or the failure of a person to ensure that each minor who is a passenger of an automobile being operated by that person is wearing all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device in violation of division (B)(2) of this section shall not be considered or used by the trier of fact in a tort action as evidence of negligence or contributory negligence. But, the trier of fact may determine based on evidence admitted consistent with the Ohio Rules of Evidence that the failure contributed to the harm alleged in the tort action and may diminish a recovery of compensatory damages that represents non-economic loss, as defined in R.C. §2307.011, in a tort action that could have been recovered but for the plaintiff’s failure to wear all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device. Evidence of that failure shall not be used as a basis for a criminal prosecution of the person other than a prosecution for a violation of this section; and shall not be admissible as evidence in a criminal action involving the person other than a prosecution for a violation of this section.

(2)   If, at the time of an accident involving a passenger car equipped with occupant restraining devices, any occupant of the passenger car who sustained injury or death was not wearing an available occupant restraining device, was not wearing all of the available elements of such a device, or was not wearing such a device as properly adjusted, then, consistent with the Rules of Evidence, the fact that the occupant was not wearing the available occupant restraining device, was not wearing all of the available elements of such a device, or was not wearing such a device as properly adjusted is admissible in evidence in relation to any claim for relief in a tort action to the extent that the claim for relief satisfies all of the following:

(a)   It seeks to recover damages for injury or death to the occupant;

(b)   The defendant in question is the manufacturer, designer, distributor, or seller of the passenger car;

(c)   The claim for relief against the defendant in question is that the injury or death sustained by the occupant was enhanced or aggravated by some design defect in the passenger car or that the passenger car was not crashworthy.

(G)  Penalty.

(1)   Whoever violates division (B)(1) of this section shall be fined $30.

(2)   Whoever violates division (B)(2) shall be subject to the penalty set forth in §70.99(C).

(3)   Whoever violates division (B)(3) of this section shall be fined $20.

(4)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates division (B)(4) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B)(4) of this section, whoever violates division (B)(4) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §4513.263)  (Prior Code, §72.105)

§ 72.106  STREET RACING DEFINED; PROHIBITED ON PUBLIC HIGHWAYS.

(A)  As used in this section, STREET RACING means the operation of two or more vehicles from a point side by side at accelerating speeds in a competitive attempt to outdistance each other, or the operation of one or more vehicles over a common selected course, from the same point to the same point, wherein timing is made of the participating vehicles involving competitive accelerations or speeds. Persons rendering assistance in any manner to such competitive use of vehicles shall be equally charged as the participants. The operation of two or more vehicles side by side either at speeds in excess of prima facie lawful speeds established by R.C. §4511.21(B)(1)(a) through (B)(9) or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, or rapidly accelerating from a common starting point to a speed in excess of such prima facie lawful speeds shall be prima facie evidence of street racing.

(B)  No person shall participate in street racing upon any public road, street, or highway in this municipality.

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of street racing, a misdemeanor of the first degree. In addition to any other sanctions, the court shall suspend the offender’s driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating privileges for not less than 30 days or more than three years. No judge shall suspend the first 30 days of any suspension of an offender’s license, permit, or privilege imposed under this division.

(R.C. §4511.251)  (Prior Code, §72.106)

§ 72.107  DRIVING THROUGH SAFETY ZONE.

(A)  No vehicle shall at any time be driven through or within a safety zone.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(C)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(C).

(R.C. §4511.60)  (Prior Code, §72.107)

§ 72.108  OPERATING MOTOR VEHICLES WHILE WEARING EARPHONES OR EARPLUGS.

(A)  As used in this section:

EARPHONES. Any device that covers all or a portion of both ears and that does either of the following:

(a)   Through either a physical connection to another device or a wireless connection, provides the listener with radio programs, music, or other information;

(b)   Provides hearing protection.

EARPHONES does not include speakers or other listening devices that are built into protective headgear.

EARPLUGS. Any device that can be inserted into one or both ears and that does either of the following:

(a)   Through either a physical connection to another device or a wireless connection, provides the listener with radio programs, music, or other information;

(b)   Provides hearing protection.

(B)  No person shall operate a motor vehicle while wearing earphones over, or earplugs in, both ears.

(C)  This section does not apply to:

(1)   Any person wearing a hearing aid;

(2)   Law enforcement personnel while on duty;

(3)   Fire Department personnel and emergency medical service personnel while on duty;

(4)   Any person engaged in the operation of equipment for use in the maintenance or repair of any highway;

(5)   Any person engaged in the operation of refuse collection equipment;

(6)   Any person wearing earphones or earplugs for hearing protection while operating a motorcycle.

(D)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §4511.84)  (Prior Code, §72.108)

§ 72.109  DEFACEMENT OF SURFACE.

No person in a park shall intentionally accelerate a motor vehicle causing the rubber tires to mark or deface park roadway surfaces.

(Prior Code, §72.109)  (Rules and Regs. §16.11)

Chapter 73. PARKING REGULATIONS

Section

73.01 Condition when motor vehicle left unattended
73.02 Officer may remove ignition key
73.03 Parking permitted in designated parking areas only
73.04 After hours parking
73.05 Handicapped parking

Statutory reference:

Noncriminal parking infractions, local option to create, see R.C. Chapter 4521

§ 73.01  CONDITION WHEN MOTOR VEHICLE LEFT UNATTENDED.

(A)  (1)   No person driving or in charge of a motor vehicle shall permit it to stand unattended without first stopping the engine, locking the ignition, removing the key from the ignition, effectively setting the parking brake, and, when the motor vehicle is standing upon any grade, turning the front wheels to the curb or side of the highway.

(2)   The requirements of this section relating to the stopping of the engine, locking of the ignition, and removing the key from the ignition of a motor vehicle do not apply to any of the following:

(a)   A motor vehicle that is parked on residential property;

(b)   A motor vehicle that is locked, regardless of where it is parked;

(c)   An emergency vehicle; and

(d)   A public safety vehicle.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §4511.661)  (Prior Code, §73.01)

§ 73.02  OFFICER MAY REMOVE IGNITION KEY.

A law enforcement officer may remove the ignition key left in the ignition switch of an unlocked and unattended motor vehicle parked on a street or highway. The officer removing the key shall place notification upon the vehicle detailing his or her name and badge number, the place where the key may be reclaimed, and the procedure for reclaiming the key. The key shall be returned to the owner of the motor vehicle upon presentation of proof of ownership.

(R.C. §4549.05)  (Prior Code, §73.02)

§ 73.03  PARKING PERMITTED IN DESIGNATED PARKING AREAS ONLY.

(A)  No person shall park any motor vehicle; bicycle; electric transportation devices, as defined in Chapter 75; or other vehicle within any traveled roadway within the park or any location where posted signs prohibit parking except in emergencies, or upon any sod, gravel, or other surface not specifically designated as a parking area.

(B)  No shared bicycles or electric transportation devices shall be parked in limited use areas, as defined in §94.03, or in area under conservation stewardship, including woods, prairies, meadows, and wetlands, or within levees.

(Prior Code, §73.03)  (Rules and Regs. §16.5)  (Amendment approved 8-1-2022)

§ 73.04  AFTER HOURS PARKING.

No person shall leave a vehicle in a park during the hours when a park is closed.

(Prior Code, §73.04)  (Rules and Regs. §16.6)

§ 73.05  HANDICAPPED PARKING.

No person who is not handicapped or operating a motor vehicle to transport a handicapped person shall stop, stand, or park any motor vehicle at specially designated locations provided for the handicapped.

(Prior Code, §73.05)  (Rules and Regs. §16.12)

Statutory reference:

Privileges for persons with disabilities, see R.C. §4511.69

Chapter 74. EQUIPMENT AND LOADS

Section

Equipment
74.01 Driving a vehicle in an unsafe condition
74.02 Bumpers on motor vehicles; suspension systems
74.03 Lighted lights required
74.04 Headlights
74.05 Taillights and illumination of rear license plate
74.06 Stoplight regulations
74.07 Red light or flag required
74.08 Lights on parked vehicles
74.09 Spotlight and auxiliary driving lights
74.10 Two lights displayed
74.11 Headlights required
74.12 Horns, sirens, and warning devices
74.13 Mufflers; excessive smoke or gas
74.14 Rearview mirrors
74.15 Windshields and wipers
74.16 Requirements for safety glass in motor vehicles; use of tinted glass or reflectorized material

Loads
74.30 Safety and load limits
74.31 Permit required for operation of trucks in parks
74.32 Limitation of load extension on left side of vehicle
74.33 All loads shall be properly secured

EQUIPMENT

§ 74.01  DRIVING A VEHICLE IN AN UNSAFE CONDITION.

No person shall drive or move within the park any vehicle or combination of vehicles which is in an unsafe condition so as to endanger any person. This includes the provisions of R.C. ‘§4513.01 to 4513.65 inclusive, and R.C. §4513.99(A).

(Prior Code, §74.01)  (Rules and Regs. §16.15)

§ 74.02  BUMPERS ON MOTOR VEHICLES; SUSPENSION SYSTEMS.

(A)  Definition. As used in this section:

GROSS VEHICLE WEIGHT RATING. Means the manufacturer=s gross vehicle weight rating established for that vehicle.

MANUFACTURER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4501.01.

MULTIPURPOSE PASSENGER VEHICLE. Means a motor vehicle with motive power, except a motorcycle, designed to carry ten persons or less, that is constructed either on a truck chassis or with special features for occasional off-road operation.

PASSENGER CAR. Means any motor vehicle with motive power, designed for carrying ten persons or less, except a multipurpose passenger vehicle or motorcycle.

TRUCK. Means every motor vehicle, except trailers and semitrailers, designed and used to carry property and having a gross vehicle weight rating of 10,000 pounds or less.

(B)  Rules adopted. Rules adopted by the Director of Public Safety, in accordance with R.C. Chapter 119, shall govern the maximum bumper height or, in the absence of bumpers and in cases where bumper height have been lowered or modified, the maximum height to the bottom of the frame rail of any passenger car, multipurpose passenger vehicle or truck.

(C)  Vehicle to conform. No person shall operate upon a street or highway any passenger car, multipurpose passenger vehicle or truck registered in this state that does not conform to the requirements of this section or any applicable rule adopted pursuant to R.C. §4513.021.

(D)  Modification of motor vehicle. No person shall modify any motor vehicle registered in this state in such a manner as to cause the vehicle body or chassis to come in contact with the ground, expose the fuel tank to damage from collision, or cause the wheels to come in contact with the body under normal operation, and no person shall disconnect any part of the original suspension system of the vehicle to defeat the safe operation of that system.

(E)  Heavy duty equipment; normal wear. Nothing contained in this section or in the rules adopted pursuant to R.C. §4513.021 shall be construed to prohibit either of the following:

(1)   The installation upon a passenger car, multipurpose passenger vehicle or truck registered in this state of heavy duty equipment, including shock absorbers and overload springs:

(2)   The operation on a street or highway of a passenger car, multipurpose passenger vehicle, or truck registered in this state with normal wear to the suspension system if the normal wear does not adversely affect the control of the vehicle.

(F)   Exception. This section and the rules adopted pursuant to R.C. §4513.021 do not apply to any specially designed or modified passenger car, multipurpose passenger vehicle, or truck when operated off a street or highway in races and similar events.

(G)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.021)  (Prior Code, §74.02)

Statutory reference:

Maximum height on bumpers, see O.A.C. Chapter 4501‑43

§ 74.03  LIGHTED LIGHTS REQUIRED.

(A)  Every vehicle, other than a motorized bicycle, operated upon a street or highway within this state shall display lighted lights and illuminating devices as required by R.C. ‘§4513.04 to 4513.37 during all of the following times:

(1)   The time from sunset to sunrise;

(2)   At any other time when, due to insufficient natural light or unfavorable atmospheric conditions, persons, vehicles, and substantial objects on the highway are not discernible at a distance of 1,000 feet ahead;

(3)   At any time when the windshield wipers of the vehicle are in use because of precipitation on the windshield.

(B)  Every motorized bicycle shall display at such times lighted lights meeting the rules adopted by the Ohio Director of Public Safety under R.C. §4511.521. No motor vehicle, during any time specified in this section, shall be operated upon a street or highway within this state using only parking lights as illumination.

(C)  Whenever in such sections a requirement is declared as to the distance from which certain lamps and devices shall render objects visible, or within which such lamps or devices shall be visible, such distance shall be measured upon a straight level unlighted highway under normal atmospheric conditions unless a different condition is expressly stated.

(D)  Whenever in such sections a requirement is declared as to the mounted height of lights or devices, it shall mean from the center of such light or device to the level ground upon which the vehicle stands.

(E)  Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, no law enforcement officer shall cause the operator of a vehicle being operated upon a street or highway within this state to stop the vehicle solely because the officer observes that a violation of division (A)(3) of this section has been or is being committed or for the sole purpose of issuing a ticket, citation, or summons for a violation of that division, or causing the arrest of or commencing a prosecution of a person for a violation of that division.

(F)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.03)  (Prior Code, §74.03)

§ 74.04  HEADLIGHTS.

(A)  (1)   Every motor vehicle, other than a motorcycle, shall be equipped with at least two headlights with at least one near each side of the front of the motor vehicle.

(2)   Every motorcycle shall be equipped with at least one and not more than two headlights.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.04)  (Prior Code, §74.04)

§ 74.05  TAILLIGHTS AND ILLUMINATION OF REAR LICENSE PLATE.

(A)  (1)   Every motor vehicle, trailer, semitrailer, pole trailer or vehicle which is being drawn at the end of a train of vehicles shall be equipped with at least one tail light mounted on the rear which, when lighted, shall emit a red light visible from a distance of 500 feet to the rear, provided that in the case of a train of vehicles only the tail light on the rearmost vehicle need be visible from the distance specified.

(2)   Either a tail light or a separate light shall be so constructed and placed as to illuminate with a white light the rear registration plate, when such registration plate is required, and render it legible from a distance of 50 feet to the rear. Any tail light, together with any separate light for illuminating the rear registration plate, shall be so wired as to be lighted whenever the headlights or auxiliary driving lights are lighted, except where separate lighting systems are provided for trailers for the purpose of illuminating such registration plate.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.05)  (Prior Code, §74.05)

§ 74.06  STOPLIGHT REGULATIONS.

(A)  (1)   Every motor vehicle, trailer, semitrailer, and pole trailer when operated upon a highway shall be equipped with two or more stop lights, except that passenger cars manufactured or assembled prior to January 1, 1967, motorcycles, and motor-driven cycles shall be equipped with at least one stop light. Stop lights shall be mounted on the rear of the vehicle, actuated upon application of the service brake, and may be incorporated with other rear lights. Such stop lights when actuated shall emit a red light visible from a distance of 500 feet to the rear; provided that in the case of a train of vehicles only the stop lights on the rearmost vehicle need be visible from the distance specified.

(2)   Such stop lights when actuated shall give a steady warning light to the rear of a vehicle or train of vehicles to indicate the intention of the operator to diminish the speed of or stop a vehicle or train of vehicles.

(3)   When stop lights are used as required by this section, they shall be constructed or installed so as to provide adequate and reliable illumination and shall conform to the appropriate rules and regulations established under R.C. §4513.19.

(4)   Historical motor vehicles as defined in R.C. §4503.181, not originally manufactured with stop lights, are not subject to this section.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.071)  (Prior Code, §74.06)

§ 74.07  RED LIGHT OR FLAG REQUIRED.

(A)  Whenever the load upon any vehicle extends to the rear four feet or more beyond the bed or body of this vehicle, there shall be displayed at the extreme rear end of the load, at the times specified in R.C. §4513.03 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, a red light or lantern plainly visible from a distance of at least 500 feet to the sides and rear. The red light or lantern required by this section is in addition to the red rear light required upon every vehicle. At any other time there shall be displayed at the extreme rear end of such load a red flag or cloth not less than 16 inches square.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.09)  (Prior Code, §74.07)

§ 74.08  LIGHTS ON PARKED VEHICLES.

(A)  Except in case of an emergency, whenever a vehicle is parked or stopped upon a roadway open to traffic or a shoulder adjacent thereto, whether attended or unattended, during the times mentioned in R.C. §4513.03 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, such vehicle shall be equipped with one or more lights which shall exhibit a white or amber light on the roadway side visible from a distance of 500 feet to the front of such vehicle, and a red light visible from a distance of 500 feet to the rear. No lights need be displayed upon any such vehicle when it is stopped or parked within the municipality where there is sufficient light to reveal any person or substantial object within a distance of 500 feet upon such highway. Any lighted headlights upon a parked vehicle shall be depressed or dimmed.

(R.C. §4513.10)

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.99)

(Prior Code, §74.08)

§ 74.09  SPOTLIGHT AND AUXILIARY DRIVING LIGHTS.

(A)  (1)   Any motor vehicle may be equipped with not more than one spotlight and every lighted spotlight shall be so aimed and used upon approaching another vehicle that no part of the high-intensity portion of the beam will be directed to the left of the prolongation of the extreme left side of the vehicle, nor more than 100 feet ahead of the vehicle.

(2)   Any motor vehicle may be equipped with not more than three auxiliary driving lights mounted on the front of the vehicle. Any such lights which do not conform to the specifications for auxiliary driving lights and the regulations for their use prescribed by the Director of Public Safety shall not be used.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.12)  (Prior Code, §74.09)

§ 74.10  TWO LIGHTS DISPLAYED.

(A)  At all times mentioned in R.C. §4513.03 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, at least two lighted lights shall be displayed, one near each side of the front of every motor vehicle, except when such vehicle is parked subject to the regulations governing lights on parked vehicles.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.14)  (Prior Code, §74.10)

§ 74.11  HEADLIGHTS REQUIRED.

(A)  Whenever a motor vehicle is being operated on a roadway or shoulder adjacent thereto during the times specified in R.C. §4513.03 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, the driver shall use a distribution of light, or composite beam, directed high enough and of sufficient intensity to reveal persons, vehicles and substantial objects at a safe distance in advance of the vehicle, subject to the following requirements:

(1)   Whenever the driver of a vehicle approaches an oncoming vehicle, such driver shall use a distribution of light, or composite beam, so aimed that the glaring rays are not projected into the eyes of the oncoming driver.

(2)   Every new motor vehicle registered in this state which has multiple-beam road lighting equipment shall be equipped with a beam indicator, which shall be lighted whenever the uppermost distribution of light from the headlights is in use, and shall not otherwise be lighted. This indicator shall be so designed and located that, when lighted, it will be readily visible without glare to the driver of the vehicle.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.15)  (Prior Code, §74.11)

§ 74.12  HORNS, SIRENS, AND WARNING DEVICES.

(A)  (1)   Every motor vehicle when operated upon a highway shall be equipped with a horn which is in good working order and capable of emitting sound audible, under normal conditions, from a distance of not less than 200 feet.

(2)   No motor vehicle shall be equipped with, nor shall any person use upon a vehicle, any siren, whistle, or bell. Any vehicle may be equipped with a theft alarm signal device which shall be so arranged that it cannot be used as an ordinary warning signal. Every emergency vehicle shall be equipped with a siren, whistle or bell, capable of emitting sound audible under normal conditions from a distance of not less than 500 feet and of a type approved by the Director of Public Safety. Such equipment shall not be used except when such vehicle is operated in response to an emergency call or is in the immediate pursuit of an actual or suspected violator of the law, in which case the driver of the emergency vehicle shall sound such equipment when it is necessary to warn pedestrians and other drivers of the approach thereof.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.21)  (Prior Code, §74.12)

§ 74.13  MUFFLERS; EXCESSIVE SMOKE OR GAS.

(A)  (1)   Every motor vehicle and motorcycle with an internal combustion engine shall at all times be equipped with a muffler which is in good working order and in constant operation to prevent excessive or unusual noise, and no person shall use a muffler cutout, bypass or similar device upon a motor vehicle on a highway. Every motorcycle muffler shall be equipped with baffle plates.

(2)   No person shall own, operate or have in the person=s possession any motor vehicle or motorcycle equipped with a device for producing excessive smoke or gas, or so equipped as to permit oil or any other chemical to flow into or upon the exhaust pipe or muffler of such vehicle, or equipped in any way to produce or emit smoke or dangerous or annoying gases from any portion of such vehicle, other than the ordinary gases emitted by the exhaust of an internal combustion engine under normal operation.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.22)  (Prior Code, §74.13)

§ 74.14  REARVIEW MIRRORS.

(A)  Every motor vehicle and motorcycle shall be equipped with a mirror so located as to reflect to the operator a view of the highway to the rear of such vehicle or motorcycle. Operators of vehicles and motorcycles shall have a clear and unobstructed view to the front and to both sides of their vehicles and motorcycles and shall have a clear view to the rear of their vehicles and motorcycles by mirror.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.23)  (Prior Code, §74.14)

§ 74.15  WINDSHIELDS AND WIPERS.

(A)  No person shall drive any motor vehicle on a street or highway in this municipality, other than a motorcycle or motorized bicycle, that is not equipped with a windshield.

(B)  (1)   No person shall drive any motor vehicle, other than a bus, with any sign, poster, or other nontransparent material upon the front windshield, sidewings, side, or rear windows of such vehicle other than a certificate or other paper required to be displayed by law, except that there may be in the lower left-hand or right-hand corner of the windshield a sign, poster, or decal not to exceed four inches in height by six inches in width. No sign, poster, or decal shall be displayed in the front windshield in such a manner as to conceal the vehicle identification number for the motor vehicle when, in accordance with federal law, that number is located inside the vehicle passenger compartment and so placed as to be readable through the vehicle glazing without moving any part of the vehicle.

(2)   Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to a person who is driving a passenger car with an electronic device, including an antenna, electronic tolling or other transponder, camera, directional navigation device, or other similar electronic device located in the front windshield if either of the following apply to the device:

(a)   It is a Avehicle safety technology@ as defined in 49 C.F.R. §393.5 and complies with 49 C.F.R. §393.60(e)(1)(ii).

(b)   It does not restrict the vehicle operator=s sight lines to the road and highway signs and signals, and it does not conceal the vehicle identification number.

(3)   Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to a person who is driving a commercial car with an electronic device, including an antenna, electronic tolling or other transponder, camera, directional navigation device, or other similar electronic device located in the front windshield if either of the following apply to the device:

(a)   It is a Avehicle safety technology@ as defined in 49 C.F.R. §393.5 and complies with 49 C.F.R. §393.60(e)(1)(ii).

(b)   It does not restrict the vehicle operator=s sight lines to the road and highway signs and signals, and it is mounted not more than 8.5 inches below the upper edge of the windshield.

(C)  The windshield on every motor vehicle shall be equipped with a device for cleaning rain, snow, or other moisture from the windshield. The device shall be maintained in good working order and so constructed as to be controlled or operated by the operator of the vehicle.

(D)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.24)  (Prior Code, §74.15)

§ 74.16  REQUIREMENTS FOR SAFETY GLASS IN MOTOR VEHICLES; USE OF TINTED GLASS OR REFLECTORIZED MATERIAL.

(A)  Safety glass.

(1)   No person shall sell any new motor vehicle nor shall any new motor vehicle be registered, and no person shall operate any motor vehicle, which is registered in this state and which has been manufactured or assembled on or after January 1, 1936, unless the motor vehicle is equipped with safety glass, wherever glass is used in the windshields, doors, partitions, rear windows, and windows on each side immediately adjacent to the rear window.

(2)   As used in this section, SAFETY GLASS means any product composed of glass so manufactured, fabricated, or treated as substantially to prevent shattering and flying of the glass when it is struck or broken, or such other or similar product as may be approved by the Registrar of Motor Vehicles.

(3)   Glass other than safety glass shall not be offered for sale, or sold for use in, or installed in any door, window, partition, or windshield that is required by this section to be equipped with safety glass.

(R.C. §4513.26)

(B)  Tinted or reflectorized material.

(1)   No person shall operate, on any highway or other public or private property open to the public for vehicular travel or parking, lease, or rent any motor vehicle that is registered in this state unless the motor vehicle conforms to the requirements concerning tinted glass and reflectorized material of R.C. §4513.241 and of any applicable rule adopted under that section.

(2)   No person shall install in or on any motor vehicle, any glass or other material that fails to conform to the requirements of R.C. §4513.241 or of any rule adopted under that section.

(3)   (a)   No used motor vehicle dealer or new motor vehicle dealer, as defined in R.C. §4517.01, shall sell any motor vehicle that fails to conform to the requirements of R.C. §4513.241 or of any rule adopted under that section.

(b)   No manufacturer, remanufacturer, or distributor, as defined in R.C. §4517.01, shall provide to a motor vehicle dealer licensed under R.C. Chapter 4517 or to any other person, a motor vehicle that fails to conform to the requirements of R.C. §4513.241 or of any rule adopted under that section.

(4)   No reflectorized materials shall be permitted upon or in any front windshield, side windows, sidewings, or rear window.

(5)   This division (B) does not apply to the manufacturer=s tinting or glazing of motor vehicle windows or windshields that is otherwise in compliance with or permitted by Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standard #205.

(6)   With regard to any side window behind a driver=s seat or any rear window other than any window on an emergency door, this division (B) does not apply to any school bus used to transport a child with disabilities pursuant to R.C. Chapter 3323, whom it is impossible or impractical to transport by regular school bus in the course of regular route transportation provided by a school district. As used in this division, CHILD WITH DISABILITIES has the same meaning as in R.C. §3323.01.

(7)   This division (B) does not apply to any school bus that is to be sold and operated outside the municipality.

(8)   (a)   This division (B) does not apply to a motor vehicle used by a law enforcement agency under either of the following circumstances:

  1. The vehicle does not have distinctive markings of a law enforcement vehicle but is operated by or on behalf of the law enforcement agency in an authorized investigation or other activity requiring that the presence and identity of the vehicle occupants be undisclosed.
  1. The vehicle primarily is used by the law enforcement canine unit for transporting a police dog.

(b)   As used in this division, LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCY means a police department, the office of a sheriff, the State Highway Patrol, a county prosecuting attorney, or a federal, state, or local governmental body that enforces criminal laws and that has employees who have a statutory power of arrest.

(R.C. §4513.241(C) – (J))

(C)  (1)   Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.99)

(2)   Whoever violates division (B)(1),(B)(3)(b) or (B)(4) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(3)   Whoever violates division (B)(3)(a) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor if the dealer or the dealer=s agent knew of the nonconformity at the time of sale.

(4)   (a)   Whoever violates division (B)(2) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree, except that an organization may not be convicted unless the act of installation was authorized by the board of directors, trustees, partners, or by a high managerial officer acting on behalf of the organization, and installation was performed by an employee of the organization acting within the scope of the person=s employment.

(b)   In addition to any other penalty imposed under this section, whoever violates division (B)(2) of this section is liable in a civil action to the owner of a motor vehicle on which was installed the nonconforming glass or material for any damages incurred by that person as a result of the installation of the nonconforming glass or material, costs of maintaining the civil action, and attorney fees.

(c)   In addition to any other penalty imposed under this section, if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B)(2) of this section and the offender is a motor vehicle repair operator registered under R.C. Chapter 4775 or a motor vehicle dealer licensed under R.C. Chapter 4517, whoever violates division (B)(2) of this section is subject to a registration or license suspension, as applicable, for a period of not more than 180 days.

(R.C. §4513.241(K))

(Prior Code, §74.16)

Statutory reference:

Recording and reporting violations, certain court requirements, see R.C.  4513.241(L)

Regulations, see O.A.C. Chapter 4501‑41

LOADS

§ 74.30  SAFETY AND LOAD LIMITS.

(A)  No person in a park shall operate a motor vehicle when such motor vehicle is in excess of the ten‑ton gross load limit without a permit from the Chief Executive Officer.

(B)  PERMIT is herein defined as any written permission by the Chief Executive Officer.

(Prior Code, §74.30)  (Rules and Regs. §16.9)

§ 74.31  PERMIT REQUIRED FOR OPERATION OF TRUCKS IN PARKS.

(A)  No person in a park shall drive a truck, tractor, or other vehicle which is, at that time, used for the transportation of goods or materials over any park road without a permit from the Chief Executive Officer.

(B)  PERMIT is herein defined as any written permission by the Chief Executive Officer.

(Prior Code, §74.31)  (Rules and Regs. §16.8)

§ 74.32  LIMITATION OF LOAD EXTENSION ON LEFT SIDE OF VEHICLE.

(A)  No passenger-type vehicle shall be operated on a highway with any load carried on the vehicle which extends more than six inches beyond the line of the fenders on the vehicle=s left side.

(R.C. §4513.30)

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.99)

(Prior Code, §74.32)

§ 74.33  ALL LOADS SHALL BE PROPERLY SECURED.

(A)  No vehicle shall be driven or moved on any highway unless the vehicle is so constructed, loaded, or covered as to prevent any of its load from dropping, sifting, leaking, or otherwise escaping therefrom, except that sand or other substances may be dropped for the purpose of securing traction, or water or other substances may be sprinkled on a roadway in cleaning or maintaining the roadway.

(B)  Except for a farm vehicle used to transport agricultural produce or agricultural production materials or a rubbish vehicle in the process of acquiring its load, no vehicle loaded with garbage, swill, cans, bottles, waste paper, ashes, refuse, trash, rubbish, waste, wire, paper, cartons, boxes, glass, solid waste, or any other material of an unsanitary nature that is susceptible to blowing or bouncing from a moving vehicle shall be driven or moved on any highway unless the load is covered with a sufficient cover to prevent the load or any part of the load from spilling onto the highway.

(R.C. §4513.31)

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4513.99)

(Prior Code, §74.33)

Chapter 75. BICYCLES, ELECTRIC TRANSPORTATION DEVICES

Section

General Provisions
75.01 Provisions applicable to bicycles and electric transportation devices
75.02 Bicycle and electric transportation device operation permitted on roads or designated trails
75.03 Compliance with state law required
75.04 Reckless operation
75.05 Operation of motorcycles; required equipment
75.06 Operation of motorized bicycle
75.07 Rules for bicycles, motorcycles, and snowmobiles
75.08 Prohibition against attaching bicycles, electric transportation devices, and sleds to vehicles
75.09 Riding bicycles; motorcycles abreast
75.10 Equipment of bicycles
75.11 Mountain biking facilities

Statutory reference:

Bicycle regulations to be consistent with state law, see R.C. § 4511.07(A)(8)

Protective eye devices required for motorcycle operators and passengers; helmets required for

  persons under 18 years of age, see O.A.C.  4501‑17‑01

GENERAL PROVISIONS

§ 75.01  PROVISIONS APPLICABLE TO BICYCLES AND ELECTRIC TRANSPORTATION DEVICES.

(A)  As used in these regulations, ELECTRIC TRANSPORTATION DEVICE means a small electronic transportation device, such as an electric scooter, electric bicycle, electric unicycle, electric personal assistive mobility device, or other similar device equipped with an electric motor. This includes, but is not limited to, all recreational devices such as skateboards, hover boards, caster boards, tricycles, skates, roller blades, and heel wheels if equipped with an electric motor. This does not include any assistive mobility device used by persons with disabilities.

(B)  The provisions of this title that are applicable to bicycles and electric transportation devices apply whenever a bicycle or electric transportation device is operated upon any highway or upon any path set aside for the exclusive use of bicycles.

(C)  Except as provided in division (E) of this section, a bicycle or electric transportation device operator who violates any provisions of this title described in division (B) of this section that is applicable to bicycles or electric transportation devices may be issued a ticket, citation, or summons by a law enforcement officer for the violation in the same manner as the operator of a motor vehicle would be cited for the same violation. A person who commits any such violation while operating a bicycle or electric transportation device shall not have any points assessed against the person=s driver=s license, commercial driver=s license, temporary instruction permit, or probationary license under R.C. §4510.036.

(D)  Except as provided in division (E) of this section, in the case of a violation of any provision of this title, described in division (B) of this section, by a bicycle or electric transportation device operator, electric bicycle operator, or motor vehicle operator when the trier of fact finds that the violation by the motor vehicle operator endangered the lives of bicycle or electric transportation device riders or electric bicycle riders at the time of the violation, the court, notwithstanding any provision of the Ohio Revised Code to the contrary, may require the bicycle or electric transportation device operator, electric bicycle operator, or motor vehicle operator to take and successfully complete a bicycling or similar appropriate skills course approved by the court in addition to or in lieu of any penalty otherwise prescribed by this Traffic Code or the Ohio Revised Code for that violation.

(E)  Divisions (C) and (D) of this section do not apply to violations of R.C. §4511.19, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

(R.C. §4511.52)  (Prior Code, §75.01)  (Amendment approved 8-1-2022)

§ 75.02  BICYCLE AND ELECTRIC TRANSPORTATION DEVICE OPERATION PERMITTED ON ROADS OR DESIGNATED TRAILS.

No person in a park shall operate a bicycle, electric transportation device, or human-powered vehicles wider than 42 inches and longer than 96 inches except on paved roads, or in areas or on trails designated for such purpose.

(Prior Code, §75.02)  (Rules and Regs. §17.1)  (Amendment approved 8-1-2022)

§ 75.03  COMPLIANCE WITH STATE LAW REQUIRED.

Bicycle operators shall comply with the requirements of all sections of the Ohio Revised Code pertaining to motor vehicles, operators, and bicycles while using MetroParks roads.

(Prior Code, §75.03)  (Rules and Regs. §17.2)

§ 75.04  RECKLESS OPERATION.

No person in a park shall operate a bicycle, electric transportation device, or human-powered vehicle in a reckless manner so as to endanger the operator or any other person or any property. No person shall operate a bicycle in excess of a speed that will permit him or her to bring it to a stop within the assured clear distance ahead. No person in a park shall operate a bicycle or motorized bicycle on a designated mountain bike trail without a helmet.

(Prior Code, §75.04)  (Rules and Regs. §17.3)  (Amendment approved 8-1-2022)

§ 75.05  OPERATION OF MOTORCYCLES; REQUIRED EQUIPMENT.

No person shall operate a motorcycle or motorbike over or upon any roadway within a park without having a muffler in good working order, a fender covering each tire, and, in the night time, having a headlight emitting a white light and a taillight emitting red light.

(Prior Code, §75.05)  (Rules and Regs. §16.14)

§ 75.06  OPERATION OF MOTORIZED BICYCLE.

(A)  Generally. No person shall operate a motorized bicycle, except those that fall under the definition of an electric transportation device, upon a highway or any public or private property used by the public for purposes of vehicular travel or parking, unless all of the following conditions are met:

(1)   The person is 14 or 15 years of age and holds a valid probationary motorized bicycle license issued after the person has passed the test provided for in this section, or the person is 16 years of age or older and holds either a valid commercial driver=s license issued under R.C. Chapter 4506 or a driver=s license issued under R.C. Chapter 4507 or a valid motorized bicycle license issued after the person has passed the test provided for in this section, except that if a person is 16 years of age, has a valid probationary motorized bicycle license, and desires a motorized bicycle license, the person is not required to comply with the testing requirements provided for in this section.

(2)   The motorized bicycle is equipped in accordance with the rules adopted under division (B) of this section and is in proper working order.

(3)   The person, if under 18 years of age, is wearing a protective helmet on the person=s head with the chin strap properly fastened and the motorized bicycle is equipped with a rearview mirror.

(4)   The person operates the motorized bicycle when practicable within three feet of the right edge of the roadway obeying all traffic rules applicable to vehicles.

(B)  Adoption, promulgation of rules. The Director of Public Safety, subject to R.C. Chapter 119, shall adopt and promulgate rules concerning protective helmets, the equipment of motorized bicycles, and the testing and qualifications of persons who do not hold a valid driver=s or commercial driver=s license. The test shall be as near as practicable to the examination required for a motorcycle operator=s endorsement under R.C. §4507.11. The test shall also require the operator to give an actual demonstration of the operator=s ability to operate and control a motorized bicycle by driving one under the supervision of an examining officer.

(C)  Expiration of license. Every motorized bicycle license expires on the birthday of the applicant in the fourth or eighth year after the date it is issued, based on the period of renewal requested by the applicant. No motorized bicycle license shall be issued for a period longer than eight years. A person who is 65 years of age or older may only apply for a motorized bicycle license that expires on the birthday of the applicant in the fourth year after the date it is issued.

(D)  One person on motorized bicycle. No person operating a motorized bicycle shall carry another person upon the motorized bicycle.

(E)  Helmet; rearview mirror. The protective helmet and rearview mirror required by division (A)(3) of this section shall, on and after January 1, 1985, conform with rules adopted by the Director under division (B) of this section.

(F)   State law penalty. Whoever violates division (A), (D), or (E) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §4511.521)  (Prior Code, §75.06)  (Amendment approved 8-1-2022)

Statutory reference:

Suspension of probationary motorized bicycle license by the state, see R.C.  4510.34

§ 75.07  RULES FOR BICYCLES, MOTORCYCLES, AND SNOWMOBILES.

(A)  As used in this section, SNOWMOBILE has the same meaning as given that term in R.C. §4519.01.

(B)  (1)   No person operating a bicycle or electric bicycle shall ride other than upon or astride the permanent and regular seat attached thereto or carry any other person upon such bicycle or electric bicycle other than upon a firmly attached and regular seat thereon, and no person shall ride upon a bicycle or electric bicycle other than upon such a firmly attached and regular seat.

(2)   No person operating a motorcycle shall ride other than upon or astride the permanent and regular seat or saddle attached thereto, or carry any other person upon such motorcycle other than upon a firmly attached and regular seat or saddle thereon, and no person shall ride upon a motorcycle other than upon such a firmly attached and regular seat or saddle.

(3)   No person shall ride upon a motorcycle that is equipped with a saddle other than while sitting astride the saddle, facing forward, with one leg on each side of the motorcycle.

(4)   No person shall ride upon a motorcycle that is equipped with a seat other than while sitting upon the seat.

(5)   No person operating a bicycle or electric bicycle shall carry any package, bundle, or article that prevents the driver from keeping at least one hand upon the handlebars.

(6)   No bicycle, electric bicycle, or motorcycle shall be used to carry more persons at one time than the number for which it is designed and equipped. No motorcycle shall be operated on a highway when the handlebars rise higher than the shoulders of the operator when the operator is seated in the operator=s seat or saddle.

(C)  (1)   Except as provided in division (C)(3) of this section, no person shall operate or be a passenger on a snowmobile or motorcycle without using safety glasses or other protective eye device. Except as provided in division (C)(3) of this section, no person who is under the age of 18 years, or who holds a motorcycle operator=s endorsement or license bearing a Anovice@ designation that is currently in effect as provided in R.C. §4507.13, shall operate a motorcycle on a highway, or be a passenger on a motorcycle, unless wearing a protective helmet on the person=s head, and no other person shall be a passenger on a motorcycle operated by such a person unless similarly wearing a protective helmet. The helmet, safety glasses, or other protective eye device shall conform with rules adopted by the Ohio Director of Public Safety. The provisions of this paragraph or a violation thereof shall not be used in the trial of any civil action.

(2)   (a)   Except as provided in division (C)(3) of this section, no person shall operate a motorcycle with a valid temporary instruction permit and temporary instruction permit identification card issued by the Registrar of Motor Vehicles pursuant to R.C. §4507.05 unless the person, at the time of such operation, is wearing on the person=s head a protective helmet that conforms with rules adopted by the Ohio Director of Public Safety.

(b)   No person shall operate a motorcycle with a valid temporary instruction permit and temporary instruction permit identification card issued by the Registrar of Motor Vehicles pursuant to R.C. §4507.05 in any of the following circumstances:

  1. At any time when lighted lights are required by R.C. §4513.03(A)(1);
  1. While carrying a passenger;
  1. On any limited access highway or heavily congested roadway.

(3)   Divisions (C)(1) and (C)(2)(a) of this section do not apply to a person who operates or is a passenger in an autocycle or cab-enclosed motorcycle when the occupant compartment top is in place enclosing the occupants.

(D)  Nothing in this section shall be construed as prohibiting the carrying of a child in a seat or trailer that is designed for carrying children and is firmly attached to the bicycle or electric bicycle.

(E)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates division (B) or (C)(1) or (C)(2) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates division (B) or (C)(1) or (C)(2) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates division (B) or (C)(1) or (C)(2) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §4511.53)  (Prior Code, §75.07)

§ 75.08  PROHIBITION AGAINST ATTACHING BICYCLES, ELECTRIC TRANSPORTATION DEVICES, AND SLEDS TO VEHICLES.

(A)  (1)   No person riding upon any bicycle, electric transportation device, coaster, roller skates, sled, skateboard, or toy vehicle shall attach the same or self to any vehicle upon a roadway.

(2)   No operator shall knowingly permit any person riding upon any bicycle, electric transportation device, coaster, roller skates, sled, skateboard, or toy vehicle to attach the same or self to any vehicle while it is moving upon a roadway.

(3)   This section does not apply to towing a disabled vehicle.

(B)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(C)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(B).

(R.C. §4511.54)  (Prior Code, §75.08)  (Amendment approved 8-1-2022)

§ 75.09  RIDING BICYCLES; MOTORCYCLES ABREAST.

(A)  Every person operating a bicycle or electric bicycle upon a roadway shall ride as near to the right side of the roadway as practicable obeying all traffic rules applicable to vehicles and exercising due care when passing a standing vehicle or one proceeding in the same direction.

(B)  Persons riding bicycles, electric bicycles, or motorcycles upon a roadway shall ride not more than two abreast in a single lane, except on paths or parts of roadways set aside for the exclusive use of bicycles, electric bicycles, or motorcycles.

(C)  This section does not require a person operating a bicycle or electric bicycle to ride at the edge of the roadway when it is unreasonable or unsafe to do so. Conditions that may require riding away from the edge of the roadway include when necessary to avoid fixed or moving objects, parked or moving vehicles, surface hazards, or if it otherwise is unsafe or impracticable to do so, including if the lane is too narrow for the bicycle or electric bicycle and an overtaking vehicle to travel safely side by side within the lane.

(D)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(E)  If the offender commits the offense while distracted and the distracting activity is a contributing factor to the commission of the offense, the offender is subject to the additional fine established under §70.99(B).

(R.C. §4511.55)  (Prior Code, §75.09)

§ 75.10  EQUIPMENT OF BICYCLES.

(A)  Every bicycle or electric bicycle when in use at the times specified in R.C. §4513.03 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance shall be equipped with the following:

(1)   A lamp mounted on the front of either the bicycle or electric bicycle or the operator that shall emit a white light visible from a distance of at least 500 feet to the front and 300 feet to the sides. A generator-powered lamp that emits light only when the bicycle or electric bicycle is moving may be used to meet this requirement.

(2)   A red reflector on the rear that shall be visible from all distances from 100 feet to 600 feet to the rear when directly in front of lawful lower beams of head lamps on a motor vehicle;

(3)   A lamp emitting either flashing or steady red light visible from a distance of 500 feet to the rear shall be used in addition to the red reflector. If the red lamp performs as a reflector in that it is visible as specified in division (A)(2) of this section, the red lamp may serve as the reflector and a separate reflector is not required.

(B)  Additional lamps and reflectors may be used in addition to those required under division (A) of this section, except that red lamps and red reflectors shall not be used on the front of the bicycle or electric bicycle and white lamps and white reflectors shall not be used on the rear of the bicycle or electric bicycle.

(C)  A bicycle or electric bicycle may be equipped with a device capable of giving an audible signal, except that a bicycle or electric bicycle shall not be equipped with nor shall any person use upon a bicycle or electric bicycle any siren or whistle.

(D)  Every bicycle and electric bicycle shall be equipped with an adequate brake when used on a street or highway.

(E)  Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §4511.56)  (Prior Code, §75.10)

§ 75.11  MOUNTAIN BIKING FACILITIES.

Class 1 electric bicycles are permitted at designated mountain biking facilities. Motorized bicycles, Class 2 and 3 electric bicycles, and all other electric transportation devices are prohibited.

(Amendment approved 8-1-2022)

TITLE IX: GENERAL REGULATIONS

CHAPTER 90: ANIMALS

CHAPTER 90: ANIMALS

Section
90.01 Authority to impound or destroy feral or diseased animals
90.02 Hunting, trapping or molesting wildlife; trapshooting
90.03 Fishing 90.04 Fishing license required
90.05 Household pets and other animals; pets prohibited in play areas
90.06 Releasing or abandoning animals; livestock
90.07 Regulation of horses
90.08 Jacklighting prohibited
Cross-reference: Animal compliance with traffic regulations, see § 72.037

§ 90.01 AUTHORITY TO IMPOUND OR DESTROY FERAL OR DISEASED ANIMALS.

Five Rivers MetroParks shall have the right to impound or destroy any feral or diseased animal found in a park. (Rules and Regs. § 5.8)

§ 90.02 HUNTING, TRAPPING OR MOLESTING WILDLIFE; TRAPSHOOTING.

(A) No person within the confines of a park shall hunt, pursue with dogs, trap, or in any other way molest any wild bird or animal found within the confines of the park, or rob or molest any bird nest, or take the eggs of any bird. (Rules and Regs. § 5.1) (B) (1) Trapshooting. Live birds or fowl shall not be used as targets in trapshooting. (R.C. § 959.17) (2) State law penalty. Whoever violates this division (B) is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. (C) No person shall feed wildlife or place food or artificial items that might attract wildlife or that wildlife might consume. (R.C. § 959.99(C)) Penalty, see § 10.99

§ 90.03 FISHING.

(A) No person in a park shall fish in park waters in a manner, or at a time, prohibited by R.C. Chapter 1533 as now in effect or as hereafter amended. The use of hooks left unattended, traps, spears or gigs, or bows and arrows for fishing is prohibited. (B) No person shall fish in park waters in violation of any sign or signs prohibiting fishing or a manner thereof. Ice fishing is prohibited except in areas and at times designated by the Chief Executive Officer. (Rules and Regs. §§ 5.2, 5.3) Penalty, see § 10.99

§ 90.04 FISHING LICENSE REQUIRED.

(A) License required. Except as provided in this section or R.C. § 1533.12(A)(2) or (C), no person, including nonresidents, shall take or catch any fish by angling in any of the waters in the state or engage in fishing in those waters without a license. No person shall take or catch frogs or turtles without a valid fishing license, except as provided in this section. Persons fishing in privately owned ponds, lakes, or reservoirs to or from which fish are not accustomed to migrate are exempt from the license requirements set forth in this section. Persons fishing in privately owned ponds, lakes, or reservoirs that are open to public fishing through an agreement or lease with the division of wildlife shall comply with the license requirements set forth in this section. (B) Fee. The fee for an annual license shall be $39 for a resident of a state that is not a party to an agreement under R.C. § 1533.91. The fee for an annual license shall be $18 for a resident of a state that is a party to such an agreement. The fee for an annual license for residents of this state shall be $18 unless the rules adopted under R.C. § 1533.12(B) provide for issuance of a resident fishing license to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in rules adopted under R.C. § 1533.12(B)(2), each applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of application is 66 years of age or older shall procure a special senior fishing license, the fee for which shall be one-half of the annual resident fishing license fee. (C) Catching frogs, turtles. Any person under the age of 16 years may take or catch frogs and turtles and take or catch fish by angling without a license. (D) Tourist license; fee. The chief of the division of wildlife may issue a tourist’s license expiring 3 days from the effective date of the license to a resident of a state that is not a party to an agreement under R.C. § 1533.91. The fee for a tourist’s license shall be $18. (E) Adoption of rules. The chief shall adopt rules under R.C. § 1531.10 providing for the issuance of a 1-day fishing license to a resident of this state or of any other state. The fee for such a license shall be 55% of the amount established under this section for a tourist’s license, rounded up to the nearest whole dollar. A 1-day fishing license shall allow the holder to take or catch fish by angling in the waters in the state, engage in fishing in those waters, or take or catch frogs or turtles in those waters for 1 day without obtaining an annual license or a tourist’s license under this section. At the request of a holder of a 1-day fishing license who wishes to obtain an annual license, a clerk or agent authorized to issue licenses under R.C. § 1533.13, not later than the last day on which the 1-day license would be valid if it were an annual license, shall credit the amount of the fee paid for the 1-day license toward the fee charged for the annual license if so authorized by the chief. The clerk or agent shall issue the annual license upon presentation of the 1-day license and payment of a fee in an amount equal to the difference between the fee for the annual license and the fee for the 1-day license. Unless otherwise provided by division rule, each annual license shall begin on the first day of March of the current year and expire on the last day of February of the following year. (F) Altered license. No person shall alter a fishing license or possess a fishing license that has been altered. (G) Fraud; procurement of license. No person shall procure or attempt to procure a fishing license by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or any false statement. (H) Exemption. Owners of land over, through, upon, or along which any water flows or stands, except where the land is in or borders on state parks or state-owned lakes, together with the members of the immediate families of such owners, may take frogs and turtles and may take or catch fish of the kind permitted to be taken or caught therefrom without procuring a license provided for in this section. This exemption extends to tenants actually residing upon such lands and to the members of the immediate families of the tenants. Residents of state or county institutions, charitable institutions, and military homes in this state may take frogs and turtles without procuring the required license, provided that a member of the institution or home has an identification card, which shall be carried on that person when fishing. (I) Requirement to carry, exhibit license. Every fisher required to be licensed, while fishing or taking or attempting to take frogs or turtles, shall carry the license and exhibit it to any person. Failure to so carry and exhibit the license constitutes an offense under this section. (R.C. § 1533.32) (J) State law penalty. Whoever violates any provision of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. (R.C § 1533.99(F)) Penalty, see § 10.99

§ 90.05 HOUSEHOLD PETS AND OTHER ANIMALS; PETS PROHIBITED IN PLAY AREAS.

(A) No persons shall bring pets or other animals onto the grounds of Aullwood Garden, the gardens at Wegerzyn Gardens MetroPark or the farm complexes at Carriage Hill and Possum Creek MetroParks. (B) No persons shall bring, permit, have or keep in the park any dog, cat, household pet or other animal destructive to birds and other wildlife, except that dogs or cats are permitted if they are controlled at all times on a leash not more than 8 feet long. (C) No pets or other animals shall be allowed to become obnoxious or disturbing to the other users of park facilities. (D) No person, while in or on a moving motor vehicle, shall lead or permit to be led, any leashed pet or animal. (E) Pets are not permitted in play equipment areas in a park. (Rules and Regs. §§ 5.4, 5.5) Penalty, see § 10.99

§ 90.06 RELEASING OR ABANDONING ANIMALS; LIVESTOCK.

No person shall herd, graze, drive or permit to run at large within a park, any cattle, horse, mule, donkey, goat, swine, sheep or other animal, or any poultry or other fowl. (Rules and Regs. §§ 5.6, 5.7) (Amendment approved 3-13-2009) Penalty, see § 10.99 Cross-reference: Regulations for permits for use of MetroParks, see Chapter 94

§ 90.07 REGULATION OF HORSES.

(A) No person in a park shall ride a horse except in areas or on trails designated for this use. (B) No person in a park shall ride a horse in such manner as to endanger the rider, the horse or any other person or any property. Horseback riders in a park shall yield right-of-way to pedestrians and motorists at points where bridle trails intersect foot trails, roads, drives and parkways. (C) No person in a park shall leave a horse unattended other than for the purpose of stabling at a designated stable. (D) No person in a park shall over-ride, cruelly mistreat, mutilate, or torture a horse. (Rules and Regs. § 12) Penalty, see § 10.99

§ 90.08 JACKLIGHTING PROHIBITED.

(A) Artificial lighting. No person shall throw or cast the rays of a spotlight or other artificial light from any vehicle into any field, woodland, or forest while having in his or her possession a hunting device, or throw or cast the rays of a spotlight or other artificial light from any vehicle into any field, woodland, or forest for the purpose of locating a wild animal. (B) Exception. This section does not apply to law enforcement officers, wildlife officers, military personnel, and officers or employees of the Department of Natural Resources while in the performance of their duties, or to any landowner or lessee having a reason to use a light while engaged in surveillance or protection of his or her property. (C) Arrest, search, seizure. An officer whose duty it is to enforce this chapter may arrest a person whom he or she has reasonable grounds to believe is violating this section, search the vehicle for firearms or other hunting implements in the possession or under the control of that person, and seize the same. (R.C. § 1533.161) (D) State law penalty. Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. (R.C. § 1533.99(B))

CHAPTER 91: BOATING AND WATERCRAFT

Section
91.01 Watercraft operation permitted only on designated waters
91.02 Compliance with state law required
91.03 Restrictions on child operators; duty of supervisory adult
91.04 Safe operation
91.05 Unlicensed inflatable watercraft prohibited; freestyle maneuvers
91.06 Motorboats on Huffman Lake and Miller Lakes
91.07 Regulations for Eastwood Lake
91.08 Provisions not applicable to authorized competitions
Statutory reference: Watercraft certificates of title, see R.C. Chapter 1548 Watercraft, vessels and waterways, see R.C. Chapter 1547

§ 91.01 WATERCRAFT OPERATION PERMITTED ONLY ON DESIGNATED WATERS.

No person in a park shall operate a watercraft on any park waters except those designated by the Chief Executive Officer. (Rules and Regs. § 14.1) Penalty, see § 10.99

§ 91.02 COMPLIANCE WITH STATE LAW REQUIRED.

All watercraft and their operators shall comply with the requirements of Chapter 1547 and 1548 of the Ohio Revised Code when using any park waters under the jurisdiction of Five Rivers MetroParks. (Rules and Regs. § 14.2)

§ 91.03 RESTRICTIONS ON CHILD OPERATORS; DUTY OF SUPERVISORY ADULT.

(A) Except as otherwise provided in this division, no person under 16 years of age shall operate a personal watercraft on the waters under the jurisdiction of Five Rivers MetroParks. A person who is not less than 12 nor more than 15 years of age may operate a personal watercraft if a supervising person 18 years of age or older is aboard the personal watercraft and, in the case of a supervising person born on or after January 1, 1982, if the supervising person holds a certificate obtained under R.C. § 1547.05 or, in the case of a rented powercraft, meets the requirements of R.C. § 1547.052(A) and (B). (B) No person under 12 years of age shall operate any vessel on the waters under the jurisdiction of Five Rivers MetroParks unless the person is under the direct visual and audible supervision, during the operation, of a person who is 18 years of age or older. This division does not apply to a personal watercraft, which shall be governed by division (A) of this section, or to a powercraft, other than a personal watercraft, powered by more than 10 horsepower, which shall be governed by division (C) of this section. (C) No person under 12 years of age shall operate on the waters under the jurisdiction of Five Rivers MetroParks a powercraft, other than a personal watercraft, powered by more than 10 horsepower unless the person is under the direct visual and audible supervision, during the operation, of a person 18 years of age or older who is aboard the powercraft and, in the case of such a supervising person born on or after January 1, 1982, who holds a certificate obtained under R.C. § 1547.05 or, in the case of a rented powercraft, meets the requirements of R.C. § 1547.052(A) and (B). (D) No supervising person 18 years of age or older shall permit any person who is under the supervising person’s supervision and who is operating a vessel on the waters in this municipality to violate any section of this chapter, R.C. Chapter 1547 or a rule adopted under it. (R.C. § 1547.06) Penalty, see § 10.99

§ 91.04 SAFE OPERATION.

(A) No person in a park shall operate a watercraft on park waters in such a manner as to endanger the operator or any other person or any property. (B) Every watercraft shall at all times maintain a proper lookout by sight and hearing as well as by all available means appropriate in the prevailing circumstances and conditions so as to make a full appraisal of the situation and of the risk of collision. No person shall operate or permit to be operated any watercraft on park waters, in violation of this rule. (Rules and Regs. §§ 14.4, 14.15)

§ 91.05 UNLICENSED INFLATABLE WATERCRAFT PROHIBITED; FREESTYLE MANEUVERS.

(A) No operator of a personal watercraft, or passenger on a personal watercraft, shall engage in freestyle maneuvers. For the purpose of this section, freestyle maneuvers shall mean the operation or use of a personal watercraft in any manner for which it was not designed. (Rules and Regs. §§ 14.6, 14.14)

§ 91.06 MOTORBOATS ON HUFFMAN LAKE AND MILLER LAKES.

(A) No person shall operate a motorboat, except by electric motor power at speeds not exceeding 5 mph, on park waters with the exception of Eastwood Lake. This, however, shall not prohibit the presence of gas motors on boats at these lakes as long as the motors are not operated. Boat trailers must be parked in designated areas. (B) No person shall put a boat or watercraft into park waters via a vehicle or boat trailer except at designated boat launch ramps and areas.

§ 91.07 REGULATIONS FOR EASTWOOD LAKE.

(A) No person shall operate a watercraft on the waters of Eastwood Lake in excess of the posted speed limit or at a greater speed than that which will permit him or her to safely bring it to a stop within a distance appropriate to the prevailing circumstances or conditions. (B) No person shall launch a watercraft on to the waters of Eastwood Lake except in areas specifically designated for that purpose. Rigging of sailboats or making repairs to watercraft on launching ramps in such a manner as to impede the use of ramps by others is prohibited. (C) Boat trailers must be parked in designated areas. No person shall knowingly or recklessly launch a watercraft on to the waters of Eastwood Lake when the presence of such watercraft shall exceed the posted boat capacity of the lake. (D) No person shall operate a watercraft on the waters of Eastwood Lake in a manner which violates any sign or posted regulation which regulates the operation of watercraft. (E) No person shall operate a watercraft on the waters of Eastwood Lake so as to create a wake, within 100 feet of shore or in any other restricted area. (Rules and Regs. §§ 14.7, 14.9 – 14.12) Penalty, see § 10.99

§ 91.08 PROVISIONS NOT APPLICABLE TO AUTHORIZED COMPETITIONS.

The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to any watercraft competing in an authorized race as herein provided, held under the auspices of duly incorporated boating or racing associations approved by the Director. (Rules and Regs. § 14.13)

 

 

CHAPTER 92: FIRE PREVENTION; FIREWORKS

Section
92.01 Fires
Cross-reference: Regulations for permits for use of MetroParks, see Chapter 94

§ 92.01 FIRES.

No person shall start or maintain a fire in a park except privately owned grills, or fires in designated areas, except that the Director may at his or her discretion prohibit fires for limited periods at any location or for any purpose when necessary for the protection of park property. All fires shall be put out by the person, or persons starting or using the same before leaving the immediate vicinity of the fire. The dumping of hot ashes or fire from portable picnic grills onto the grass or plants is prohibited. No person in a park shall collect wood for any purpose. (Rules and Regs. § 7) Penalty, see § 10.99

CHAPTER 93: ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGES

Section
93.01 Definitions
93.02 Permit required for sale of alcoholic beverages
93.03 Consumption, possession or display of alcoholic beverages
93.04 Bringing alcohol onto permit premises
93.05 Permit required; activities prohibited without permit
93.06 Underage person shall not purchase intoxicating liquor or beer
93.07 Prohibitions; minors under 18 years; low-alcohol beverages
93.08 Misrepresentation to obtain alcoholic beverage for a minor prohibited
93.09 Misrepresentation by a minor under 21 years
93.10 Sale to underage persons prohibited
93.11 Consumption in motor vehicle prohibited

§ 93.01 DEFINITIONS.

For the purpose of this chapter, the following definitions shall apply unless the context clearly indicates or requires a different meaning.

  • ALCOHOL. Ethyl alcohol, whether rectified or diluted with water or not, whatever its origin may be, and includes synthetic ethyl alcohol. The term does not include denatured alcohol and wood alcohol. ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGES. Beer and/or intoxicating liquor as defined in R.C. § 4301.01.
  • AT RETAIL. For use or consumption by the purchaser and not for resale.
  • BEER. Includes all beverages brewed or fermented wholly or in part from malt products and containing 0.5% or more, but not more than 12%, of alcohol by volume.
  • CIDER. All liquids that are fit to use for beverage purposes that contain 0.5% of alcohol by volume, but not more than 6% of alcohol by weight that are made through the normal alcoholic fermentation of the juice of sound, ripe apples, including, without limitation, flavored, sparkling, or carbonated cider and cider made from pure condensed apple must.
  • CLUB. A corporation or association of individuals organized in good faith for social, recreational, benevolent, charitable, fraternal, political, patriotic, or athletic purposes, which is the owner, lessor, or occupant of a permanent building or part of a permanent building operated solely for such purposes, membership in which entails the prepayment of regular dues, and includes the place so operated.
  • COMMUNITY FACILITY. Means either of the following: (1) Any convention, sports or entertainment facility or complex, or any combination of these, that is used by or accessible to the general public and that is owned or operated in whole or in part by the state, a state agency, or a political subdivision of the state or that is leased from, or located on property owned by or leased from, the state, a state agency, a political subdivision of the state, or a convention facilities authority created pursuant to R.C. § 351.02; (2) An area designated as a community entertainment district pursuant to R.C. § 4301.80.
  • CONTROLLED ACCESS ALCOHOL AND BEVERAGE CABINET. A closed container, either refrigerated, in whole or in part, or nonrefrigerated, access to the interior of which is restricted by means of a device that requires the use of a key, magnetic card, or similar device and from which beer, intoxicating liquor, other beverages, or food may be sold.
  • HOTEL. The same meaning as in R.C. § 3731.01, subject to the exceptions mentioned in R.C. § 3731.03.
  • INTOXICATING LIQUOR and LIQUOR. All liquids and compounds, other than beer, containing 0.5% or more of alcohol by volume which are fit to use for beverage purposes, from whatever source and by whatever process produced, by whatever name called, and whether they are medicated, proprietary, or patented. INTOXICATING LIQUOR and LIQUOR include wine even if it contains less than 4% of alcohol by volume, mixed beverages even if they contain less than 4% of alcohol by volume, cider, alcohol, and all solids and confections which contain any alcohol.
  • LOW-ALCOHOL BEVERAGE. Any brewed or fermented malt product or any product made from the fermented juices of grapes, fruits, or other agricultural products that contains either no alcohol or less than 0.5% of alcohol by volume. The beverages described in this definition do not include a soft drink such as root beer, birch beer, or ginger beer.
  • MANUFACTURE. All processes by which beer or intoxicating liquor is produced, whether by distillation, rectifying, fortifying, blending, fermentation, brewing, or in any other manner. MANUFACTURER. Any person engaged in the business of manufacturing beer or intoxicating liquor.
  • MIXED BEVERAGES. Bottled and prepared cordials, cocktails, and highballs, produced by mixing any type of whiskey, neutral spirits, brandy, gin or other distilled spirits with, or over, carbonated or plain water, pure juices from flowers and plants, and other flavoring materials. The completed product shall contain not less than 0.5% of alcohol by volume and not more than 21% of alcohol by volume.
  • NIGHTCLUB. A place habitually operated for profit, where food is served for consumption on the premises, and 1 or more forms of amusement are provided or permitted for a consideration that may be in the form of a cover charge or may be included in the price of the food and beverages, or both, purchased by patrons.
  • PERSON. Includes firms and corporations.
  • PHARMACY. An establishment as defined in R.C. § 4729.01, that is under the management or control of a licensed pharmacist in accordance with R.C. § 4729.27.
  • RESTAURANT. A place located in a permanent building provided with space and accommodations wherein, in consideration of the payment of money, hot meals are habitually prepared, sold, and served at noon and evening, as the principal business of the place. The term does not include pharmacies, confectionery stores, lunch stands, nightclubs, and filling stations.
  • SALE and SELL. The exchange, barter, gift, offer for sale, sale, distribution, and delivery of any kind, and the transfer of title or possession of beer and intoxicating liquor either by constructive or actual delivery by any means or devices whatever, including the sale of beer or intoxicating liquor by means of a controlled access alcohol and beverage cabinet pursuant to R.C. § 4301.21. Such terms do not include the mere solicitation of orders for beer or intoxicating liquor from the holders of permits issued by the Division of Liquor Control authorizing the sale of the beer or intoxicating liquor, but no solicitor shall solicit any orders until the solicitor has been registered with the Division pursuant to R.C. § 4303.25.
  • SALES AREA OR TERRITORY. An exclusive geographic area or territory that is assigned to a particular A or B permit holder and that either has 1 or more political subdivisions as its boundaries or consists of an area of land with readily identifiable geographic boundaries. SALES AREA OR TERRITORY does not include, however, any particular retail location in an exclusive geographic area or territory that had been assigned to another A or B permit holder before April 9, 2001.
  • SEALED CONTAINER. Any container having a capacity of not more than 128 fluid ounces, the opening of which is closed to prevent the entrance of air.
  • SPIRITUOUS LIQUOR. All intoxicating liquors containing more than 21% of alcohol by volume.
  • VEHICLE. All means of transportation by land, by water, or by air, and everything made use of in any way for such transportation.
  • WHOLESALE DISTRIBUTOR and DISTRIBUTOR. A person engaged in the business of selling to retail dealers for purposes of resale.
  • WINE. All liquids fit to use for beverage purposes containing not less than 0.5% of alcohol by volume and not more than 21% of alcohol by volume, which is made from the fermented juices of grapes, fruits, or other agricultural products. Except as provided in R.C. § 4301.01(B)(3), the term does not include cider. (R.C. § 4301.01)

§ 93.02 PERMIT REQUIRED FOR SALE OF ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGES.

No person in a park shall sell or offer for sale any intoxicating liquor or alcoholic beverage, without a permit from the Director. (Rules and Regs. § 6.10) Penalty, see § 10.99 Cross-reference: Regulations for permits for use of MetroParks, see Chapter 94

§ 93.03 CONSUMPTION, POSSESSION OR DISPLAY OF ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGES.

No person shall consume, possess or display the presence of any alcoholic beverage in a park, except within a Designated Outdoor Refreshment Area as defined in R.C. § 4301.82 within an area designated by MetroParks for alcohol consumption, within an area MetroParks holds a liquor permit, or within a reserved building or area which, pursuant to a permit issued by the CEO, has been temporarily reserved by a person or persons to the exclusion of the general public. For the purpose of this section, the term ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGES shall mean beer and/or intoxicating liquor as defined in R.C. § 4301.01. (Rules and Regs. § 6.13) Penalty, see § 10.99 Cross-reference: Regulations for permits for use of MetroParks, see Chapter 94

§ 93.04 BRINGING ALCOHOL ONTO PERMIT PREMISES.

No person in a park shall have in his or her possession an opened container of beer or intoxicating liquor within the designated premises of the holder of any permit from the Department of Liquor Control as defined in R.C. § 4301.62 except as lawfully purchased from the permit holder for consumption on the designated premises. (Rules and Regs. § 6.14) Penalty, see § 10.99

§ 93.05 PERMIT REQUIRED; ACTIVITIES PROHIBITED WITHOUT PERMIT.

(A) Permit required. (1) No person personally or by the person’s clerk, agent, or employee, shall manufacture, manufacture for sale, offer, keep, or possess for sale, furnish or sell, or solicit the purchase or sale of any beer or intoxicating liquor in this state, or transport, import, or cause to be transported or imported any beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol in or into this municipality for delivery, use or sale, unless the person has fully complied with R.C. Chapters 4301 and 4303 or is the holder of a permit issued by the Division of Liquor Control and in force at the time. (2) No manufacturer, supplier, wholesale distributor, broker, or retailer of beer or intoxicating liquor, or other person shall employ, retain, or otherwise utilize any person in this state to act as an employee, agent, solicitor, or salesperson, or act in any other representative capacity to sell, solicit, take orders, or receive offers to purchase or expressions of interest to purchase beer or intoxicating liquor from any person, at any location other than a liquor permit premises, except as specifically authorized by R.C. Chapter 4301 or R.C. Chapter 4303 or rules adopted thereunder. No function, event, or party shall take place at any location other than a liquor permit premises where any person acts in any manner to sell, solicit, take orders, or receive offers to purchase or expressions of intent to purchase beer or intoxicating liquor to or from any person, except as specifically authorized by R.C. Chapter 4301 or R.C. Chapter 4303 Code or rules adopted thereunder. (R.C. § 4303.25) (B) Activities prohibited without permit. (1) No person, personally or by the person’s clerk, agent, or employee, who is not the holder of an A permit issued by the Division of Liquor Control, in force at the time, and authorizing the manufacture of beer or intoxicating liquor, or who is not an agent or employee of the Department authorized to manufacture beer or intoxicating liquor, shall manufacture any beer or intoxicating liquor for sale, or shall manufacture spirituous liquor. (2) No person, personally or by the person’s clerk, agent, or employee, who is not the holder of an A, B, C, D, E, F, G, I, or S permit issued by the Department, in force at the time, and authorizing the sale of beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol, or who is not an agent or employee of the Department or the Tax Commissioner authorized to sell beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol, shall sell, keep, or possess beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol for sale to any persons other than those authorized by this chapter and R.C. Chapters 4301 and 4303 to purchase any beer or intoxicating liquor, or sell any alcohol at retail. This division does not apply to or affect the sale or possession for sale of any low-alcohol beverage. (3) No person, personally or by the person’s clerk, agent, or employee, who is the holder of a permit issued by the Department, shall sell, keep, or possess for sale any intoxicating liquor not purchased from the Department or from the holder of a permit issued by the Department authorizing the sale of intoxicating liquor, unless the same has been purchased with the special consent of the Department. The Department shall revoke the permit of any person convicted of a violation of this division. (R.C. § 4301.58) (C) State law penalty. Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. (R.C. § 4301.99(C))

§ 93.06 UNDERAGE PERSON SHALL NOT PURCHASE INTOXICATING LIQUOR OR BEER.

(A) Except as otherwise provided in this chapter or in R.C. Chapter 4301, no person under the age of 21 years shall purchase beer or intoxicating liquor. (R.C. § 4301.63) (B) Whoever violates this section shall be fined not less than $25 nor more than $100. The court imposing a fine for a violation of this section may order that the fine be paid by the performance of public work at a reasonable hour rate established by the court. The court shall designate the time within which the public work shall be completed. (R.C. § 4301.99(E))

§ 93.07 PROHIBITIONS; MINORS UNDER 18 YEARS; LOW-ALCOHOL BEVERAGES.

(A) Definition. As used in this section, UNDERAGE PERSON means a person under 18 years of age. (B) Purchase by underage person. No underage person shall purchase any low-alcohol beverage. (C) Underage person; order, pay, share cost. No underage person shall order, pay for, share the cost of, or attempt to purchase any low-alcohol beverage. (D) False information as to name, age, identification of underage person. No person shall knowingly furnish any false information as to the name, age, or other identification of any underage person for the purpose of obtaining or with the intent to obtain any low-alcohol beverage for an underage person, by purchase or as a gift. (E) Knowingly provide false information. No underage person shall knowingly show or give false information concerning his or her name, age, or other identification for the purpose of purchasing or otherwise obtaining any low-alcohol beverage in any place in this municipality. (F) Physician, religious purposes. No person shall sell or furnish any low-alcohol beverage to, or buy any low-alcohol beverage for, an underage person, unless given by a physician in the regular line of his or her practice or given for established religious purposes, or unless the underage person is accompanied by a parent, spouse who is not an underage person, or legal guardian. (G) (1) Knowingly allow underage person to remain on premises. No person who is the owner or occupant of any public or private place shall knowingly allow any underage person to remain in or on the place while possessing or consuming any low-alcohol beverage, unless the low-alcohol beverage is given to the person possessing or consuming it by that person’s parent, spouse who is not an underage person, or legal guardian, and the parent, spouse who is not an underage person, or legal guardian is present when the person possesses or consumes the low-alcohol beverage. (2) Exemption from liability. An owner of a public or private place is not liable for acts or omissions in violation of division (G)(1) that are committed by a lessee of that place, unless the owner authorizes or acquiesces in the lessee’s acts or omissions. (H) Permit; non suspension, revocation No permit issued by the Division of Liquor Control shall be suspended, revoked, or cancelled because of a violation of either division (F) or (G). (I) Exception. No underage person shall knowingly possess or consume any low-alcohol beverage in any public or private place, unless he or she is accompanied by a parent, spouse who is not an underage person, or legal guardian, or unless the low-alcohol beverage is given by a physician in the regular line of his or her practice or given for established religious purposes. (J) Parent, spouse; violation. No parent, spouse who is not an underage person, or legal guardian of an underage person shall knowingly permit the underage person to violate this section. (R.C. § 4301.631) (K) State law penalty. (1) Whoever violates any provision of this section for which no other penalty is provided is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. (R.C. § 4301.99(B)) (2) Whoever violates division (B) of this section shall be fined not less than $25 nor more than $100. The court imposing a fine for a violation of division (B) of this section may order that the fine be paid by the performance of public work at a reasonable hour rate established by the court. The court shall designate the time within which the public work shall be completed. (R.C. § 4301.99(E))

§ 93.08 MISREPRESENTATION TO OBTAIN ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGE FOR A MINOR PROHIBITED.

(A) Generally. Except as otherwise provided in this chapter or in R.C. Chapter 4301, no person shall knowingly furnish any false information as to the name, age, or other identification of any person under 21 years of age, for the purpose of obtaining, or with the intent to obtain, beer or intoxicating liquor for a person under 21 years of age, by purchase, or as a gift. (R.C. § 4301.633) (B) State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. (R.C. § 4301.99(C))

§ 93.09 MISREPRESENTATION BY A MINOR UNDER 21 YEARS.

(A) Generally. Except as otherwise provided in this chapter or in R.C. Chapter 4301, no person under the age of 21 years shall knowingly show or give false information concerning his or her name, age, or other identification for the purpose of purchasing or otherwise obtaining beer or intoxicating liquor in any place in this municipality where beer or intoxicating liquor is sold under a permit issued by the Division of Liquor Control, or sold by the Division of Liquor Control. (R.C. § 4301.634) (B) State law penalty. (1) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. If, in committing a first violation of division (A), the offender presented to the permit holder or his or her employee or agent a false, fictitious, or altered identification card, a false or fictitious driver’s license purportedly issued by any state, or a driver’s license issued by any state that has been altered, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree and shall be fined not less than $250 and not more than $1,000, and may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than 6 months. (2) On a second violation in which, for the second time, the offender presented to the permit holder or his or her employee or agent a false, fictitious, or altered identification card, a false or fictitious driver’s license purportedly issued by any state, or a driver’s license issued by any state that has been altered, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree and shall be fined not less than $500 nor more than $1,000, and may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than 6 months. The court also may impose a class seven suspension of the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit or nonresident operation privilege from the range specified in R.C. § 4510.02(A)(7). (3) On a third or subsequent violation in which, for the third or subsequent time, the offender presented to the permit holder or his or her employee or agent a false, fictitious, or altered identification card, a false or fictitious driver’s license purportedly issued by any state, or a driver’s license issued by any state that has been altered, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree and shall be fined not less than $500 nor more than $1,000, and may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than 6 months. The court also shall impose a class six suspension of the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit or nonresident operating privilege from the range specified in R.C. § 4510.02(A)(6), and the court may order that the suspension or denial remain in effect until the offender attains the age of 21 years. The court also may order the offender to perform a determinate number of hours of community service, with the court determining the actual number of hours and the nature of the community service the offender shall perform. (R.C. § 4301.99(F))

§ 93.10 SALE TO UNDERAGE PERSONS PROHIBITED.

(A) Generally. Except as otherwise provided in this chapter or in R.C. Chapter 4301, no person shall sell beer or intoxicating liquor to an underage person, shall buy beer or intoxicating liquor for an underage person, or shall furnish it to an underage person unless given by a physician in the regular line of the physician’s practice or given for established religious purposes or unless the underage person is supervised by a parent, spouse who is not an underage person, or legal guardian. In proceedings before the Liquor Control Commission, no permit holder, or no employee or agent of a permit holder, charged with a violation of this division shall be charged, for the same offense, with a violation of R.C. § 4301.22(A)(1) or a substantially similar municipal ordinance. (B) Owner or occupant of public or private place. No person who is the owner or occupant of any public or private place shall knowingly allow any underage person to remain in or on the place while possessing or consuming beer or intoxicating liquor, unless the intoxicating liquor or beer is given to the person possessing or consuming it by that person’s parent, spouse who is not an underage person, or legal guardian and the parent, spouse who is not an underage person, or legal guardian is present at the time of the person’s possession or consumption of the beer or intoxicating liquor. An owner of a public or private place is not liable for acts or omissions in violation of this division that are committed by a lessee of that place, unless the owner authorizes or acquiesces in the lessee’s acts or omissions. (C) Hotel, inn, cabin, campground, restaurant. No person shall engage or use accommodations at a hotel, inn, cabin, campground, or restaurant when the person knows or has reason to know either of the following: (1) That beer or intoxicating liquor will be consumed by an underage person on the premises of the accommodations that the person engages or uses, unless the person engaging or using the accommodations is the spouse of the underage person and who is not an underage person, or is the parent or legal guardian of all of the underage persons, who consume beer or intoxicating liquor on the premises and that person is on the premises at all times when beer or intoxicating liquor is being consumed by an underage person. (2) That a drug of abuse will be consumed on the premises of the accommodations by any person, except a person who obtained the drug of abuse pursuant to a prescription issued by a licensed health professionals authorized to prescribe drugs and has the drug of abuse in the original container in which it was dispensed to the person. (D) (1) Not required to permit engagement of accommodations. No person is required to permit the engagement of accommodations at any hotel, inn, cabin, or campground by an underage person or for an underage person, if the person engaging the accommodations knows or has reason to know that the underage person is intoxicated, or that the underage person possesses any beer or intoxicating liquor and is not supervised by a parent, spouse who is not an underage person, or legal guardian who is or will be present at all times when the beer or intoxicating liquor is being consumed by the underage person. (2) Underage person; engagement of accommodations with false information. No underage person shall knowingly engage or attempt to engage accommodations at any hotel, inn, cabin, or campground by presenting identification that falsely indicates that the underage person is 21 years of age or older for the purpose of violating this section. (E) (1) Underage person knowingly obtaining intoxicating liquor. No underage person shall knowingly order, pay for, share the cost of, attempt to purchase, possess, or consume any beer or intoxicating liquor in any public or private place. No underage person shall knowingly be under the influence of any beer or intoxicating liquor in any public place. The prohibitions set forth in this division against an underage person knowingly possessing, consuming, or being under the influence of any beer or intoxicating liquor shall not apply if the underage person is supervised by a parent, spouse who is not an underage person, or legal guardian, or the beer or intoxicating liquor is given by a physician in the regular line of the physician’s practice or given for established religious purposes. (2) Diversion program. (a) If a person is charged with violating division (E)(1) of this section in a complaint filed under R.C. § 2151.27, the court may order the child into a diversion program specified by the court and hold the complaint in abeyance pending successful completion of the diversion program. A child is ineligible to enter into a diversion program under this division if the child previously has been diverted pursuant to this division. If the child completes the diversion program to the satisfaction of the court, the court shall dismiss the complaint and order the child’s record in the case sealed under R.C. §§ 2151.356 through 2151.358. If the child fails to satisfactorily complete the diversion program, the court shall proceed with the complaint. (b) If a person is charged in a criminal complaint with violating division (E)(1) of this section, R.C. § 2935.36 shall apply to the offense, except that a person is ineligible for diversion under that section if the person previously has been diverted pursuant to divisions (E)(2)(a) or (E)(2)(b) of this section. If the person completes the diversion program to the satisfaction of the court, the court shall dismiss the complaint and order the record in the case sealed under R.C. § 2953.52. If the person fails to satisfactorily complete the diversion program, the court shall proceed with the complaint. (F) Parent, spouse; violation. No parent, spouse who is not an underage person, or legal guardian of a minor shall knowingly permit the minor to violate this section or R.C. §§ 4301.63, 4301.633, or 4301.634, or any substantially similar municipal ordinance. (G) Provisions to be in writing. The operator of any hotel, inn, cabin, or campground shall make the provisions of this section available in writing to any person engaging or using accommodations at the hotel, inn, cabin, or campground. (H) Definitions. For the purpose of this section, the following definitions shall apply unless the context clearly indicates or requires a different meaning. DRUG OF ABUSE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. § 3719.011. HOTEL. Has the same meaning as in R.C. § 3731.01. LICENSED HEALTH PROFESSIONAL AUTHORIZED TO PRESCRIBE DRUGS and PRESCRIPTION. Have the same meanings as in R.C. § 4729.01. MINOR. A person under the age of 18 years. UNDERAGE PERSON. A person under the age of 21 years. (R.C. § 4301.69) (I) Affect of R.C. §§ 4301.633 through 4301.637. The provisions of R.C. §§ 4301.633 through 4301.637, or substantially similar municipal ordinances, shall not be deemed to modify or affect divisions (A) through (H) of this section or R.C. § 4301.69. (R.C. § 4301.638) (J) State law penalty. (1) Except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. If an offender who violates division (E)(1) of this section was under the age of 18 years at the time of the offense and the offense occurred while the offender was the operator of or a passenger in a motor vehicle, the court, in addition to any other penalties it imposes upon the offender, shall suspend the offender’s temporary instruction permit or probationary driver’s license for a period of 6 months. If the offender is 15 years and 6 months of age or older and has not been issued a temporary instruction permit or probationary driver’s license, the offender shall not be eligible to be issued such a license or permit for a period of 6 months. If the offender has not attained the age of 15 years and 6 months, the offender shall not be eligible to be issued a temporary instruction permit until the offender attains the age of 16 years. (R.C. § 4301.99(C)) (2) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor, shall be fined not less than $500 nor more than $1000, and in addition to the fine, may be imprisoned for a definite term of not more than 6 months. (R.C. § 4301.99(I))

§ 93.11 CONSUMPTION IN MOTOR VEHICLE PROHIBITED.

(A) Generally. No person shall consume any beer or intoxicating liquor in a motor vehicle. This section does not apply to persons described in R.C. § 4301.62(D) or a substantially similar municipal ordinance. (R.C. § 4301.64) (B) State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If an offender who violates this section was under the age of 18 years at the time of the offense, the court, in addition to any other penalties it imposes upon the offender, shall suspend the offender’s temporary instruction permit, probationary driver’s license or driver’s license for a period of not less than 6 months and not more than one year. If the offender is 15 years and 6 months of age or older and has not been issued a temporary instruction permit or probationary driver’s license, the offender shall not be eligible to be issued such a license or permit for a period of 6 months. If the offender has not attained the age of 15 years and 6 months, the offender shall not be eligible to be issued a temporary instruction permit until the offender attains the age of 16 years. (R.C. § 4301.99(B))

CHAPTER 94: PERMITS

Section
94.01 In general; supplemental guidelines
94.02 Permit requirement
94.03 Application for permits
94.04 Processing of application for permits
94.05 Certain routine permits
94.06 Procedures for review; waivers
94.07 Fines

§ 94.01 IN GENERAL; SUPPLEMENTAL GUIDELINES.

To assure good order and the reasonable use of the area and facilities for which a permit is granted, the Executive Director or his or her designee may grant a permit on an exclusive basis for a particular place and time. Subject to the foregoing, and except as hereinafter provided, all MetroParks facilities may be used by members of the general public, without permit, for recreational purposes not inconsistent with the MetroParks Rules and Regulations, the nature of the facility and the safety of the public and of MetroParks property. The Executive Director may, from time to time, establish supplemental guidelines based on the intended use and classification of each facility in the MetroParks system (see § 94.02(D)) and for obtaining permits pursuant to this chapter. Such guidelines shall be based on a due regard for the purpose for which the facility is established, the safety of those using the facility, of park employees and of the public, the safety and maintenance of MetroParks property, the need for and the availability of supervisory personnel, and the maximum number of people who can safely use the facility at one time. (Approved 3-13-2009)

§ 94.02 PERMIT REQUIREMENT.

(A) General. No person shall, without a permit: (1) Conduct, sponsor or promote any meeting, speech, picnic or other public activity involving more than 200 individuals; (2) Circulate or distribute any leaflets, handbills, notices, pamphlets, books, documents or papers of any kind in any special event facility, limited use area or other area not designated for public assembly; (3) Conduct any exhibit, music or dramatic performance, wedding, fair, circus, concert, festival, parade, play, radio or television broadcast, other than a news transmission; (4) Exhibit or display any motion picture, television program, light or laser light display, or similar event; or film a media broadcast (other than a news transmission), motion picture, or still commercially distributed photography; (5) Operate a vehicle (other than a personal mobility device for handicap accessibility), except upon park roadways or parking lots, or upon a publicly dedicated street, alley, watercourse or other thoroughfare which may abut or traverse a park; (6) Operate or play a radio, TV, musical instrument or other amplifying or sound equipment, except that an individual may operate a radio, recorder, compact disc player or other device possessed and used by an individual for his or her own enjoyment so long as it is operated in such a manner as not to interfere with the use and enjoyment of the park by any other person; (7) Station or erect any building, tent, play equipment, mechanical ride, canopy, stand, bandstand, stage, tower, scaffold, sound stage, platform, rostrum or other structure (except beach umbrellas and similar items to provide personal shade); (8) Station or use any electrical or electronic device or equipment that would require outdoor auxiliary power; (9) Sell or offer for sale any article, thing, privilege or service (unless such sale or offer is pursuant to a contract with MetroParks), or otherwise use a park for commercial purposes; (10) Post, distribute or place any sign, advertisement, circular, notice or statement, or display any banner, emblem or design, other than a permanent sign (painted or otherwise not readily removable) on a vehicle; or display, post or distribute any other writing containing commercial advertising matter within the MetroParks system; (11) Bring, land or cause to ascend or descend or alight within MetroParks property, any airplane, helicopter, flying machine, hot air balloon, parachute or other apparatus for aviation; (12) Conduct any sporting event (i.e., a pre-arranged activity involving organized teams or clubs, spectators or the like); (13) Bring onto MetroParks property a non-domestic animal or release or abandon any animal, domestic or wild; (14) Possess, ignite or discharge any fireworks or have in his or her possession or detonate any explosives or explosive devices; (15) Sell or offer for sale any intoxicating liquor or alcoholic beverage (see § 93.02); or consume, possess or display the presence of any alcoholic beverage (see § 93.03); (16) Take surveys or collect signatures in a place other than an area designated as a public forum (which, for these purposes, shall include the parking and public areas adjacent to the Second Street Public Market, but not the market building itself); (17) Ride any horse except on designated horse trails; (18) Conduct a religious or political event (i.e., a pre-arranged activity, ceremony, speech, parade, rally or the like); (19) Remove any property, or part thereof, which is owned, leased, managed or otherwise controlled by MetroParks, from a park (see § 131.13(A) of these Rules); (20) Camp or establish or maintain any camp or other temporary lodging or overnight sleeping place within a park in other than a designated camping area. (B) Permits for activities involving more than 500 individuals. No activity involving more than 500 individuals shall be held within 2,500 feet nor within 2 hours of any other activity involving more than 500 individuals. (C) Events sponsored by MetroParks. No permit shall be required for an event or activity sponsored or co-sponsored by MetroParks. The Executive Director may nevertheless require co-sponsors to comply with those portions of the permit requirements that the Executive Director deems applicable. (D) All park property is classified under the following system: (1) Public forums: (a) Special event facilities, such as Island MetroPark band shell and RiverScape MetroPark pavilion. (b) Temporary festival areas. (c) All land areas not designated as “limited use” or “not designated for public assembly.” (2) Limited use areas: (a) Second Street Public Market. (b) Farm facilities, fields, buildings, structures, improvements, riding center and other areas associated with the farms at Carriage Hill MetroPark and Possum Creek MetroPark. (c) All visitor centers, education buildings and other public use buildings. (d) Gardens at Cox Arboretum MetroPark, Wegerzyn Gardens MetroPark, RiverScape MetroPark, Deeds Point MetroPark and Aullwood Garden MetroPark. (e) Children’s play areas, including the Wegerzyn MetroPark Children’s Garden, RiverScape MetroPark interactive fountain and adventure play areas. (f) Shelters and reserveable picnic areas. (g) All trails, including recreation, hiking, biking and horseback riding trails. (h) Areas within 50 feet of waters’ edge or on water. (i) Maintenance, operational and administrative facilities. (3) Areas of facilities not designated for public assembly: (a) Areas under conservation stewardship, including but not limited to prairies, woods, meadows, and wetlands. (b) Areas within 50 feet of public road right-of-way (with the exception of RiverScape, where the limitation is within 10 feet of public road right-of-way). (E) The purpose of these designations is to assign activities for which permits are issued to appropriate public forums or, if applicable, limited use areas, in order to assure that park facilities are used for the purposes for which they are designed and for the other purposes described in division (A) of this section. The Executive Director may from time to time modify these designations as to particular park properties and may issue maps and/or guidelines establishing the areas with specificity. (Approved 3-13-2009)

§ 94.03 APPLICATION FOR PERMITS.

Any person seeking the issuance of a permit shall apply for a permit by filing a written application for permit on a form prescribed by the Executive Director. The application shall be made at least 90 days prior to the event if the event’s projected attendance is 500 people or more and 60 days prior to the event if the event’s projected attendance is less than 500 people unless a lesser amount of time is specifically permitted by the Executive Director. Applications involving any of the activities listed in § 94.02(A) shall be filed at MetroParks administrative offices, 409 E. Monument Ave., Third Floor, Dayton, OH 45402, or through such on-line application process as may be provided by MetroParks. (A) Indemnification and reimbursement agreement. No application for permit shall be granted unless the applicant shall have executed an agreement with MetroParks, on a form to be prescribed by the Executive Director, in which the applicant shall promise and covenant to bear all costs of setting up, policing, producing, cleaning up and restoring the park upon conclusion of the event or activity; to reimburse MetroParks for any such costs incurred by MetroParks; and to indemnify MetroParks and hold MetroParks harmless from any liability to any person resulting from any damage or injury occurring in connection with the permitted event proximately caused by the action of the permittee, the sponsoring organization, its officers, employees or agents or any person under their control insofar as permitted by law. (B) Security deposit. No application for permit shall be granted unless the applicant has paid, within the time prescribed by the Executive Director, the security deposit in an amount in accordance with the schedule of fees set by the Executive Director and approved by the Board. The amount of the security deposit set in the schedule of fees shall be equal to the estimated cost of policing, cleaning up, and restoring the park upon the conclusion of the use or activity. Within 72 hours after the conclusion of a permit activity, MetroParks shall inspect the premises and equipment used by the permittee. (1) If it is determined that there has been no damage to MetroParks property or equipment beyond reasonable wear and tear and that any cost reimbursements or other amounts owed to MetroParks have been paid, the security deposit shall be refunded in full within 30 days of the conclusion of the permitted event. (2) If it is determined by such inspection, that the permitted event proximately caused damage to MetroParks property in excess of normal wear and tear and which requires repairs in excess of routine maintenance or it is determined that the permittee will be charged with a violation of these Rules and Regulations, MetroParks shall retain the security deposit or any portion thereof necessary to pay for the cost of repair and any fines assessed against the permittee pursuant to R.C. § 1545.99 (§ 10.99 of these Rules). The Executive Director or his or her designee shall given written notice of the assessment of damages or fine and retention of the security deposit to the permittee by personal delivery or by deposit in the United States mail, with proper postage prepaid to the name and address set forth in the application for permit. Any assessment of damages or fine in excess of the security deposit and any assessment of damages in excess of the security deposit, shall be paid to MetroParks within 10 days after notice of such assessment of damages or fine is sent. Retention of all or a portion of a security deposit shall be subject to the appeal procedures contained in § 94.05(A), (C) Fees for use of park facilities. No application for permit shall be granted unless the applicant has paid, within the time prescribed by the Executive Director, a user fee and any other required fee in an amount in accordance with the schedule of fees (if any) set by the Executive Director and approved by the Board. No application for permit shall be granted unless all required fees are paid as specified in § 94.04(B). (D) Insurance. Applicant shall procure and maintain at all times during its use of MetroParks property, insurance in such amounts and with such coverages as shall reasonably be required by MetroParks and shall name MetroParks (and, when applicable, the City of Dayton and/or the Miami Conservancy District) as an additional insured(s) thereunder. The amounts and type of insurance required shall be determined by the Executive Director, based upon the nature of the activity and the risk involved. Applicant shall provide MetroParks with a certificate from an insurer evidencing such coverage prior to applicant’s use of MetroParks property, and within the time prescribed by the Executive Director. The certificate shall also provide that the insurer shall give the MetroParks reasonable advance notice of insurer’s intent to cancel the insurance coverage provided. (E) Permits not transferable. No permit or conditionally approved permit application may be transferred. (Approved 3-13-2009)

§ 94.04 PROCESSING OF APPLICATION FOR PERMITS.

(A) Order. Applications for permits shall be processed in order of receipt, and the use of a particular park or part thereof shall be allocated in order of receipt of fully executed applications accompanied by the application fee. (B) Conditional approval. (1) Applications for permits for activities or events which require insurance, approval or permits from other governmental entities, or compliance with other terms or conditions, will be reviewed and, if the application otherwise conforms to all other requirements, a conditional approval will be issued. If, within the time prescribed by the Executive Director, any required fee or security deposit is not paid, or an insurance certificate evidencing the requisite insurance is not filed, or the approval or permit of other governmental entities has not been received, or the other terms and conditions have not been met, the conditional approval will automatically expire, the application for permit will be deemed denied and no written notice of denial will be required. For events or activities described in this chapter, § 94.02(A)(1), (3), (4), (5), (7), (8), (9), (11), (12), (14), (15), or (18), above, all terms and conditions for issuance of the permit, including securing insurance and payment of all fees and security deposit, must be completed at least 30 days prior to the event unless a different time period is prescribed by the Executive Director. (2) No permit shall be issued unless all applicable fees and security deposit are paid within the times prescribed by the Executive Director. Failure to pay fees or security deposit within that time shall cause the application to be deemed denied, without further notice to the applicant. (C) Written denials. If no written denial or conditional approval is issued within 21 days of the date on which a permit application is fully completed, executed and filed, the application shall be deemed to have been granted a conditional approval pursuant to division (B) of this section. However, MetroParks may extend the period of review for an additional 14 days by issuance of a written notice of extension. If, upon the expiration of the extended review period, no written denial has been issued, the application for permit shall be deemed to have been granted a conditional approval pursuant to division (B) of this section. The granting of conditional approval does not relieve the applicant from the obligation to comply with any requirements regarding fees, insurance, security deposits and the like, and to that end the applicant still must obtain the permit and comply with its requirements. (D) Notice of extended review or denial or issuance of permit. Written notice of denial or notice of extension shall be served on the applicant by personal delivery, or by deposit in United States certified mail, with proper postage prepaid, to the name and address set forth on the application for permit. (E) Contents of notice; grounds for denial. (1) Notice of denial of an application for permit shall clearly set forth the grounds upon which the permit was denied and, where feasible, shall contain a proposal by MetroParks for measures by which the applicant may timely cure any defects in the application for permit or otherwise procure a permit. Where an application or permit has been denied because a fully executed prior application for the same time and place has been received, and a permit has been or will be granted to the prior applicant authorizing uses or activities which do not reasonably permit multiple occupancy of the particular area, MetroParks shall propose an alternative place, if available for the same time, or an alternative time, if available for the same place. (2) To the extent permitted by law, MetroParks may deny an application for permit if the applicant or the person on whose behalf the application for permit was made has on prior occasions made material misrepresentations regarding the nature or scope of an event or activity previously permitted or has violated the terms of prior permits issued to or on behalf of the applicant. MetroParks may also deny an application for permit on any of the following grounds: (a) The application for permit (including any required attachments and submissions) is not fully completed and executed; (b) The applicant has not tendered the required user fee, indemnification agreement, insurance certificate, or security deposit within the times prescribed by the Executive Director; (c) The application for permit contains a material falsehood or misrepresentation; (d) The applicant is legally incompetent to contract or to sue and be sued; (e) The applicant or the person on whose behalf the application for permit was made has on prior occasions damaged MetroParks property and has not paid in full for such damage, or has other outstanding and unpaid debts to MetroParks; (f) A fully executed prior application for permit for the same time and place has been received, and a permit has been or will be granted to a prior applicant authorizing uses or activities which do not reasonably permit multiple occupancy of the particular park or part hereof; (g) The use or activity intended by the applicant would conflict with previously planned programs organized and conducted by MetroParks and previously scheduled for the same time and place; (h) The proposed use or activity is prohibited by or inconsistent with the classifications and uses of the park or part thereof designated pursuant to § 94.02(D); (i) The use or activity intended by the applicant would present an unreasonable danger to the health or safety of the applicant, or other users of the park, of MetroParks employees or of the public; (j) The use or activity intended by the applicant is prohibited by law, by this Code and ordinances of MetroParks, or by the regulations of the Executive Director; or (k) Due to excessive light, noise, odor, traffic or other impacts not confined to the MetroParks facility, the use or activity intended by the applicant would cause unreasonable disturbance or disruption to neighbors of the MetroParks facility. (F) Amendment or revision of applications. Any amendment or revision of an application or permit shall, for purposes of determining the priority of the application for permit, relate back to the original filing thereof; but the time in which MetroParks shall grant or deny the application for permit and serve notice of such granting or denial shall be computed from the date of the amendment or revision. (Approved 3-13-2009)

§ 94.05 CERTAIN ROUTINE PERMITS.

(A) Types of routine permits. MetroParks recognizes that certain activities for which permits are required relate to the reservation or use of facilities for the purposes for which they were designed. These include reserving reserveable shelters for picnics and similar uses, picnics for more than 100 but fewer than 250 persons and overnight camping at designated camping areas. Permits for the regular, routine purposes as outlined in this division (A) shall be handled in the manner set forth in division (B) of this section. (B) Procedures for routine permits. For routine permits that are either described in division (A) of this section or are otherwise authorized by the Executive Director to be handled as routine permits, the following procedures shall apply: (1) Any person seeking the issuance of a routine permit shall apply for the permit by filing a written application for permit at least 7 days prior to the event on a form prescribed by the Executive Director. Applications shall be filed at MetroParks administrative offices, 409 E. Monument Ave., Third Floor, Dayton, OH 45402, or through such on-line application process as may be provided by MetroParks. (2) Although applicants for a routine permit shall not be required to provide an indemnification agreement (as described in § 94.03(B)) or insurance (as described in § 94.03(E)), and generally (with some exceptions) are not subject to the payment of a user fee (as described in § 94.03(D)), the applicant nevertheless shall be obligated to reimburse MetroParks for any costs incurred by MetroParks, and to assume responsibility for personal injury or property damage, resulting from the negligence or misconduct of the permittee, the sponsoring organization, its officers, employees or agents or any person under their control as permitted by law. (3) The security deposit provisions of § 94.03(C) shall apply to routine permits relating to reserveable shelters and areas, camping sites and meeting rooms. (4) Routine permits may be granted by the Executive Director or his or her designee. Any permit that requires a security deposit shall be conditioned upon receipt of the security deposit and shall not be effective unless the security deposit is received. Denial of a permit may be made on any of the grounds set forth in § 94.04(E). Denial shall be made within 3 business days after receipt of the application and shall otherwise be made in writing and in accordance with the procedures set forth in §§ 94.04(D) and 94.04(E). If time permits (prior to the scheduled event), the appeal procedures set forth in § 94.06 shall apply to routine permits. (Approved 3-13-2009)

§ 94.06 PROCEDURES FOR REVIEW; WAIVERS.

(A) Review by Director. (1) Any applicant who is denied a permit or denied a request for a waiver of user fee, security deposit, or certificate of insurance, or a permittee who has had all or a portion of its security deposit retained because it was assessed damages or a fine pursuant to this chapter may, within 7 days of the service of notice of such determination, file a written appeal from such determination with the Executive Director; (2) The Executive Director shall have 7 days from the date on which the appeal was received in which to serve upon the applicant a notice that he or she has affirmed, modified or reversed the denial of the permit or the request for a waiver or the retention of security deposit; (3) Such notice shall be deemed served upon the applicant or permittee when it is personally delivered or when it is sent by United States certified mail, with proper postage prepaid, to the name and address set forth on the application for permit; (4) If such notice is not served upon the applicant or permittee within 7 days of the date upon which the appeal was filed, then the denial of the permit or the request for a waiver or retention of security deposit shall be deemed reversed. (B) Form of appeals. Any appeals filed pursuant to this chapter shall state succinctly the grounds upon which it is asserted that the determination should be modified or reversed and shall be accompanied by copies of the application for permit, the written notice of the determination of MetroParks, and any other papers material to the determination. (C) Waiver of requirements. Any requirements for a user fee, security deposits or certificate of insurance shall be waived by the Executive Director, if the activity is protected by the First Amendment of the Untied States Constitution and the requirement would be so financially burdensome that it would preclude the applicant from using MetroParks property for the proposed activity. The Executive Director also shall have the right, in his discretion, to allow a permit to be processed as a routine permit under § 94.05(B), regardless of whether the permit application falls into 1 of the categories described in § 94.05(A). Fees for equipment and services shall not be waived pursuant to this division, nor shall any waiver apply with respect to the obligation of a permittee to reimburse MetroParks for costs incurred as described in § 94.03(B). Application for a waiver of a user fee, security deposit, or certificate of insurance shall be made on a form prescribed by the Executive Director and must include an affidavit by applicant and sufficient financial information about the applicant to enable the Executive Director to determine whether the requirements(s) would be so financially burdensome that is would preclude the applicant from using MetroParks property for the proposed activity. If the Executive Director determines that the applicant does not have sufficient funds to satisfy the user fee requirement prior to the proposed event, but that the applicant intends to raise sufficient funds at the event, the Executive Director shall require the applicant to pay such user fee out of the proceeds of the proposed event. If no written denial is issued within 14 days of the date on which the application for such waiver is fully completed, executed and filed with the Executive Director, the waiver request shall be deemed approved, contingent upon the applicant complying with all other permit requirements. Denials of request for such waivers shall be subject to the appeal procedures contained in division (A) of this section. (Approved 3-13-2009)

§ 94.07 FINES.

The violation by a permittee of the terms of his or her permit or the rules and regulations of MetroParks shall subject the permittee to fines pursuant to R.C. § 1545.99 (see § 10.99 of these Rules). Each day that a violation continues shall be deemed a separate offense. Such fines may be assessed against any security deposit held by MetroParks on behalf of the permittee, pursuant to § 94.03(C)(2), above. Any assessment of fines in excess of any security deposit shall be subject to the procedures contained in § 94.03(C)(2). (Approved 3-13-2009)

TITLE XI: BUSINESS REGULATIONS

[Reserved]

TITLE XIII: GENERAL OFFENSES

CHAPTER 130. GENERAL PROVISIONS

Section

130.01 Application of Title XIII
130.02 Definitions
130.03 Classification of offenses
130.04 Common law offenses abrogated
130.05 Rules of construction
130.06 Limitation of criminal prosecutions
130.07 Requirements for criminal liability; voluntary intoxication
130.08 Culpable mental states
130.09 Organizational criminal liability
130.10 Personal accountability for organizational conduct
130.11 Attempt
130.12 Complicity
130.13 Presumption of innocence; proof of offense; affirmative defense
130.14 Battered woman syndrome
130.15 Delinquency adjudications deemed convictions
130.16 Criminal law jurisdiction
130.17 Disposition of unclaimed or forfeited property held by Police Department
130.18 Imposing sentence for misdemeanor
130.19 Multiple sentences
130.20 Apprehension, detention, or arrest of persons on bond
130.21 Self defense: limitations on duty to retreat prior to using force
130.99 Penalty

Statutory reference:
Mayors Court generally, see R.C. Chapter 1905
 Municipal Court generally, see R.C. Chapter 1901
Trials, Magistrate Courts, see R.C. Chapter 2938

§§ 130.01  APPLICATION OF TITLE XIII.

(A)  Title XIII of this code of ordinances embodies and prescribes penalties for offenses against the municipality not classifiable in previous titles and chapters. The word Amisdemeanors@, as used in this title, is not exhaustive and does not imply that offenses found elsewhere in this code of ordinances are not also misdemeanors and punishable as such.

(B)  Each act or omission for which a fine, imprisonment, or both is provided under this Title or elsewhere in this code, or each act or omission which is declared a violation of this code, is unlawful and is hereby made a misdemeanor. Upon conviction, the penalty or penalties so provided shall be imposed by the court.

§§ 130.02  DEFINITIONS.

For the purpose of this title, the following definitions shall apply unless the context clearly indicates or requires a different meaning.

CONTRABAND. Any property that is illegal for a person to acquire or possess under a statute, ordinance, or rule, or that a trier of fact lawfully determines to be illegal to possess by reason of the property’s involvement in an offense. CONTRABAND includes, but is not limited to, all of the following:

(1)   Any controlled substance, as defined in R.C. §3719.01, or any device or paraphernalia related thereto;

(2)   Any unlawful gambling device or paraphernalia; and

(3)   Any dangerous ordnance or obscene material.

DANGEROUS OFFENDER. A person who has committed an offense, whose history, character and condition reveal a substantial risk that he or she will be a danger to others, and whose conduct has been characterized by a pattern of repetitive, compulsive or aggressive behavior with heedless indifference to the consequences.

DEADLY FORCE. Any force that carries a substantial risk that it will proximately result in the death of any person.

FORCE. Any violence, compulsion, or constraint physically exerted by any means upon or against a person or thing.

LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICER. Any of the following:

(1)   A sheriff, deputy sheriff, constable, police officer of a township or joint township police district, marshal, deputy marshal, municipal police officer, member of a police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under R.C. §3735.31(D) or state highway patrol trooper.

(2)   An officer, agent, or employee of the state or any of its agencies, instrumentalities, or political subdivisions, upon whom, by statute, a duty to conserve the peace or to enforce all or certain laws is imposed and the authority to arrest violators is conferred, within the limits of such statutory duty and authority.

(3)   The Mayor, in a capacity as chief conservator of the peace within the municipality.

(4)   A member of an auxiliary police force organized by the county, township, or municipal law enforcement authorities, within the scope of the member’s appointment or commission.

(5)   A person lawfully called pursuant to R.C. §311.07 to aid a sheriff in keeping the peace, for the purposes and during the time when the person is called.

(6)   A person appointed by a Mayor pursuant to R.C. §737.01 as a special patrolling officer during a riot or emergency, for the purposes and during the time when the person is appointed.

(7)   A member of the organized militia of this state or the armed forces of the United States, lawfully called to duty to aid civil authorities in keeping the peace or protect against domestic violence.

(8)   A prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, secret service officer, or municipal prosecutor.

(9)   A veterans’ home police officer appointed under R.C. §5907.02.

(10)  A member of a police force employed by a regional transit authority under R.C. §306.35(Y).

(11)  A special police officer employed by a port authority under R.C. §4582.04 or 4582.28.

(12)  The House of Representatives Sergeant at Arms if the House of Representatives Sergeant at Arms has arrest authority pursuant to R.C. §101.311(E)(1) and an Assistant House of Representatives Sergeant at Arms.

(13)  The Senate Sergeant at Arms and an Assistant Senate Sergeant at Arms;

(14)  A special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in 14 C.F.R. §119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the Transportation Security Administration of the United States Department of Transportation as provided in 49 C.F.R. parts 1542 and 1544, as amended.

NOT GUILTY BY REASON OF INSANITY. A person is NOT GUILTY BY REASON OF INSANITY relative to a charge of an offense only if the person proves, in the manner  specified in R.C. §2901.05, that at the time of the commission of the offense, he or she did not  know, as a result of a severe mental disease or defect, the wrongfulness of his or her acts.

OFFENSE OF VIOLENCE.

(1)   A violation of R.C. §2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.18, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.32, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2917.321, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.04, 2921.34, or 2923.161, of division (A)(1) of R.C. §2903.34, of division (A)(1), (A)(2) or (A)(3) of R.C. §2911.12, or of division (B)(1), (B)(2), (B)(3) or (B)(4) of R.C. §2919.22, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former R.C. §2907.12;

(2)   A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or of the United States, substantially equivalent to any section, division or offense listed in division (1) of this definition;

(3)   An offense, other than a traffic offense, under an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or of the United States, committed purposely or knowingly, and involving physical harm to persons or a risk of serious physical harm to persons;

(4)   A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in committing, any offense under division (1), (2), or (3) of this definition;

(5)   A violation of division (C) of R.C. §959.131.

PERSON.

(1)   (a)   Subject to division (2) of this definition, as used in any section contained in Title XIII of this code that sets forth a criminal offense, the term includes all of the following:

  1. An individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership and association.
  1. An unborn human who is viable.

(b)   As used in any section contained in Title XIII of this code that does not set forth a criminal offense, the term includes an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, partnership and association.

(c)   As used in division (1)(a)2. of this definition, Aunborn human@ means an individual organism of the species Homo sapiens from fertilization until live birth. AViable@ means the stage of development of a human fetus at which there is a realistic probability of maintaining and nourishing of a life outside the womb with or without temporary artificial life-sustaining support.

(2)   Notwithstanding division (1)(a) of this definition, in no case shall the portion of the definition of the term Aperson@ that is set forth in division (1)(a)2. of this definition be applied or construed in any section contained in Title XIII of this code that sets forth a criminal offense in any of the following manners:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (2)(a) of this definition, in a manner so that the offense prohibits or is construed as prohibiting any pregnant woman or her physician from performing an abortion with the consent of the pregnant woman, with the consent of the pregnant woman implied by law in a medical emergency, or with the approval of one otherwise authorized by law to consent to medical treatment on behalf of the pregnant woman. An abortion that violates the conditions described in the immediately preceding sentence may be punished as a violation of R.C. §2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.05, 2903.06, 2903.08, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.14, 2903.21 or 2903.22, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, as applicable. An abortion that does not violate the conditions described in the second immediately preceding sentence but that does violate R.C. §2919.12, 2919.13(B), 2919.15, 2919.151, 2919.17 or 2919.18, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, may be punished as a violation of such section, as applicable. Consent is sufficient under this division if it is of the type otherwise adequate to permit medical treatment to the pregnant woman, even if it does not comply with R.C. §2919.12.

(b)   In a manner so that the offense is applied or is construed as applying to a woman based on an act or omission of the woman that occurs while she is or was pregnant and that results in any of the following:

  1. Her delivery of a stillborn baby;
  1. Her causing, in any other manner, the death in utero of a viable, unborn human that she is carrying;
  1. Her causing the death of her child who is born alive but who dies from one or more injuries that are sustained while the child is a viable, unborn human;
  1. Her causing her child who is born alive to sustain one or more injuries while the child is a viable, unborn human;
  1. Her causing, threatening to cause, or attempting to cause, in any other manner, an injury, illness, or other psychological illness or condition, regardless of its duration or gravity, to a viable, unborn human that she is carrying.

PHYSICAL HARM TO PERSONS. Any injury, illness, or other physiological impairment, regardless of its gravity or duration.

PHYSICAL HARM TO PROPERTY. Any tangible or intangible damage to property that, in any degree, results in loss to its value or interferes with its use or enjoyment. The term does not include wear and tear occasioned by normal use.

PRIVILEGE. An immunity, license, or right conferred by law, or bestowed by express or implied grant, or arising out of status, position, office, or relationship, or growing out of necessity.

PROPERTY.

(1)   Any property, real or personal, tangible or intangible, and any interest or license in that property. The term includes but is not limited to cable television service, other telecommunications service, telecommunications devices, information service, computers, data, computer software, financial instruments associated with computers, other documents associated with computers, or copies of the documents, whether in machine or human-readable form, trade secrets, trademarks, copyrights, patents, and property protected by a trademark, copyright or patent. AFinancial instruments associated with computers@ include but are not limited to checks, drafts, warrants, money orders, notes of indebtedness, certificates of deposit, letters of credit, bills of credit or debit cards, financial transaction authorization mechanisms, marketable securities, or any computer system representations of any of them.

(2)   As used in this definition, Atrade secret@ has the same meaning as in R.C. §1333.61, and Atelecommunications service@ and Ainformation service@ have the same meanings as in R.C. §2913.01.

(3)   As used in this definition and in the definition of Acontraband@ in this section, Acable television service@, Acomputer@, Acomputer network@, Acomputer software@, Acomputer system@, Adata@, and Atelecommunications device@ have the same meanings as in R.C. §2913.01.

REPEAT OFFENDER. A person who has a history of persistent criminal activity and whose character and condition reveal a substantial risk that he or she will commit another offense. It is prima facie evidence that a person is a repeat offender if any of the following applies:

(1)   Having been convicted of one or more offenses of violence, as defined in R.C. §2901.01, and having been imprisoned pursuant to sentence for one or more of those offenses, he or she commits a subsequent offense of violence;

(2)   Having been convicted of one or more sexually oriented offenses, as defined in R.C. §2950.01, and having been imprisoned pursuant to sentence for one or more of those offenses, he or she commits a subsequent sexually oriented offense;

(3)   Having been convicted of one or more theft offenses, as defined in R.C. §2913.01, and having been imprisoned pursuant to sentence for one or more of those offenses, he or she commits a subsequent theft offense;

(4)   Having been convicted of one or more felony drug abuse offenses, as defined in R.C. §2925.01, and having been imprisoned pursuant to sentence for one or more of those offenses, he or she commits a subsequent felony drug abuse offense;

(5)   Having been convicted of two or more felonies, and having been imprisoned pursuant to sentence for any such offense, he or she commits a subsequent offense;

(6)   Having been convicted of three or more offenses of any type or degree other than traffic offenses, alcoholic intoxication offenses, or minor misdemeanors, and having been imprisoned pursuant to sentence for any such offense, he or she commits a subsequent offense.

RISK. A significant possibility, as contrasted with a remote possibility, that a certain result may occur or that certain circumstances may exist.

SCHOOL, SCHOOL BUILDING, and SCHOOL PREMISES. Have the same meanings as in R.C. §2925.01.

SCHOOL ACTIVITY. Any activity held under the auspices of a board of education of a city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school district; a governing authority of a community school established under R.C. Chapter 3314; a governing board of an educational service center; or the governing body of a nonpublic school for which the State Board of Education prescribes minimum standards under R.C. §3301.07.

SCHOOL BUILDING. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2925.01.

SCHOOL BUS. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4511.01.

SCHOOL PREMISES. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2925.01.

SCHOOL SAFETY ZONE. Consists of a school, school building, school premises, school activity, and school bus.

SERIOUS PHYSICAL HARM TO PERSONS. Any of the following:

(1)   Any mental illness or condition of such gravity as would normally require hospitalization or prolonged psychiatric treatment;

(2)   Any physical harm that carries a substantial risk of death;

(3)   Any physical harm that involves some permanent incapacity, whether partial or total, or that involves some temporary, substantial incapacity;

(4)   Any physical harm that involves some permanent disfigurement, or that involves some temporary, serious disfigurement;

(5)   Any physical harm that involves acute pain of such duration as to result in substantial suffering, or that involves any degree of prolonged or intractable pain.

SERIOUS PHYSICAL HARM TO PROPERTY. Any physical harm to property that does either of the following:

(1)   Results in substantial loss to the value of the property, or requires a substantial amount of time, effort, or money to repair or replace;

(2)   Temporarily prevents the use or enjoyment of the property, or substantially interferes with its use or enjoyment for an extended period of time.

SUBSTANTIAL RISK. A strong possibility, as contrasted with a remote or significant possibility, that a certain result may occur or that certain circumstances may exist.

(R.C. §§2901.01, 2935.36(E))  (Prior Code, §130.01)

§§ 130.03  CLASSIFICATION OF OFFENSES.

As used in this Title:

(A)  Offenses include misdemeanors of the first, second, third, and fourth degree, minor misdemeanors, and offenses not specifically classified.

(B)  Regardless of the penalty that may be imposed, any offense specifically classified as a misdemeanor is a misdemeanor.

(C)  Any offense not specifically classified is a misdemeanor if imprisonment for not more than one year may be imposed as a penalty.

(D)  Any offense not specifically classified is a minor misdemeanor if the only penalty that may be imposed is one of the following:

(1)   For an offense committed prior to January 1, 2004, a fine not exceeding $100;

(2)   For an offense committed on or after January 1, 2004, a fine not exceeding $150, community service under R.C. §2929.27(D), or a financial sanction other than a fine under R.C. §2929.28.

(R.C. §2901.02)

§§ 130.04  COMMON LAW OFFENSES ABROGATED.

(A)  No conduct constitutes a criminal offense against the municipality unless it is defined as an offense in this code.

(B)  An offense is defined when one or more sections of this code state a positive prohibition or enjoin a specific duty, and provide a penalty for violation of such prohibition or failure to meet such duty.

(C)  This section does not affect the power of a court to punish for contempt or to employ any sanction authorized by law to enforce an order, civil judgment or decree.

(R.C. §2901.03)

§§ 130.05  RULES OF CONSTRUCTION.

(A)  Except as otherwise provided in division (C) or (D) of this section, sections of this code defining offenses or penalties shall be strictly construed against the municipality and liberally construed in favor of the accused.

(B)  Rules of criminal procedure and sections of this code providing for criminal procedure shall be construed so as to effect the fair, impartial, speedy, and sure administration of justice.

(C)  Any provision of a section of this code that refers to a previous conviction of or plea of guilty to a violation of a section of this code, the Ohio Revised Code or a division of a section of this code or the Ohio Revised Code shall be construed to also refer to a previous conviction of or plea of guilty to a substantially equivalent offense under an existing or former law of this municipality, state, another state, or the United States or under an existing or former municipal ordinance.

(D)  Any provision of this code that refers to a section, or to a division of a section, of this code that defines or specifies a criminal offense shall be construed to also refer to an existing or former law of this state, another state, or the United States, to an existing or former municipal ordinance, or to an existing or former division of any such existing or former law or ordinance that defines or specifies, or that defined or specified, a substantially equivalent offense.

(R.C. §2901.04)

§§ 130.06  LIMITATION OF CRIMINAL PROSECUTIONS.

(A)  (1)   Except as provided in division (A)(2), (A)(3), (A)(4), or (A)(5) of this section or as otherwise provided in this section, a prosecution shall be barred unless it is commenced within the following periods after an offense is committed:

(a)   For a felony, six years;

(b)   For a misdemeanor other than a minor misdemeanor, two years;

(c)   For a minor misdemeanor, six months.

(2)   There is no period of limitation for the prosecution of a violation of R.C. §2903.01 or R.C. §2903.02 or for the prosecution of a conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or complicity in committing a violation of R.C. §2903.01 or R.C. §2903.02.

(3)   Except as otherwise provided in divisions (B) through (J) of this section, a prosecution of any of the following offenses shall be barred unless it is commenced within 20 years after the offense is committed:

(a)   A violation of R.C. §2903.03, 2903.04, 2905.01, 2905.32, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.21, 2909.02, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, or 2917.02, a violation of R.C. §2903.11 or 2903.12 if the victim is a peace officer, a violation of R.C. §2903.13 that is a felony, or a violation of former R.C. §2907.12.

(b)   A conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or complicity in committing a violation set forth in division (A)(3)(a) of this section.

(4)   Except as otherwise provided in divisions (D) to (L) of this section, a prosecution of a violation of R.C. §2907.02 or 2907.03 or a conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or complicity in committing a violation of either section shall be barred unless it is commenced within 25 years after the offense is committed.

(5)   (a)   Except as otherwise provided in divisions (A)(5)(b) and (E) to (I) of this section, a prosecution of a violation of R.C. §2907.13 shall be barred unless it is commenced within five years after the offense is committed.

(b)   Prosecution that would otherwise be barred under division (A)(5)(a) of this section may be commenced within five years after the date of the discovery of the offense by either an aggrieved person or the aggrieved person’s legal representative who is not a party to the offense.

(c)   As used in division (A)(5)(b) of this section, Aaggrieved person@ includes any of the following individuals with regard to a violation of R.C. §2907.13:

  1. A patient who was the victim of the violation;
  1. The spouse or surviving spouse of a patient who was the victim of the violation;
  1. Any child born as a result of the violation.

(B)  (1)   Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) of this section, if the period of limitation provided in division (A)(1) or (A)(3) of this section has expired, prosecution shall be commenced for an offense of which an element is fraud or breach of fiduciary duty within one year after discovery of the offense either by an aggrieved person or by the aggrieved person’s legal representative who is not a party to the offense.

(2)   If the period of limitation provided in division (A)(1) or (A)(3) of this section has expired, prosecution for a violation of R.C. §2913.49 shall be commenced within five years after discovery of the offense either by an aggrieved person or the aggrieved person’s legal representative who is not a party to the offense.

(C)  (1)   If the period of limitation provided in division (A)(1) or (A)(3) of this section has expired, prosecution shall be commenced for the following offenses during the following specified periods of time:

(a)   For an offense involving misconduct in office by a public servant at any time while the accused remains a public servant, or within two years thereafter;

(b)   For an offense by a person who is not a public servant but whose offense is directly related to the misconduct in office of a public servant, at any time while that public servant remains a public servant, or within two years thereafter.

(2)   As used in this division:

OFFENSE IS DIRECTLY RELATED TO THE MISCONDUCT IN OFFICE OF A PUBLIC SERVANT. The phrase includes but is not limited to a violation of R.C. §101.71, 101.91, 121.61 or 2921.13, 102.03(F) or (H), 2921.02(A), 2921.43(A) or (B), or 3517.13(F) or (G), that is directly related to an offense involving misconduct in office of a public servant, or a violation of any municipal ordinance substantially equivalent to those Ohio Revised Code sections listed in this division (C)(2).

PUBLIC SERVANT. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2921.01.

(D)  (1)   If a DNA record made in connection with the criminal investigation of the commission of a violation of R.C. §2907.02 or 2907.03 is determined to match another DNA record that is of an identifiable person and if the time of the determination is later than 25 years after the offense is committed, prosecution of that person for a violation of the section may be commenced within five years after the determination is complete.

(2)   If a DNA record made in connection with the criminal investigation of the commission of a violation of R.C. §2907.02 or 2907.03 is determined to match another DNA record that is of an identifiable person and if the time of the determination is within 25 years after the offense is committed, prosecution of that person for a violation of the section may be commenced within the longer of 25 years after the offense is committed or five years after the determination is complete.

(3)   As used in this division, DNA RECORD has the same meaning as in R.C. §109.573.

(E)  An offense is committed when every element of the offense occurs. In the case of an offense of which an element is a continuing course of conduct, the period of limitation does not begin to run until such course of conduct or the accused’s accountability for it terminates, whichever occurs first.

(F)   A prosecution is commenced on the date an indictment is returned or an information filed, or on the date a lawful arrest without a warrant is made, or on the date a warrant, summons, citation, or other process is issued, whichever occurs first. A prosecution is not commenced by the return of an indictment or the filing of an information unless reasonable diligence is exercised to issue and execute process on the same. A prosecution is not commenced upon issuance of a warrant, summons, citation, or other process unless reasonable diligence is exercised to execute the same.

(G)  The period of limitation shall not run during any time when the corpus delicti remains undiscovered.

(H)  The period of limitation shall not run during any time when the accused purposely avoids prosecution. Proof that the accused departed this municipality or conceals the accused’s identity or whereabouts is prima facie evidence of the accused’s purpose to avoid prosecution.

(I)   The period of limitation shall not run during any time a prosecution against the accused based on the same conduct is pending in this state, even though the indictment, information, or process that commenced the prosecution is quashed or the proceedings on the indictment, information, or process are set aside or reversed on appeal.

(J)   The period of limitation for a violation of this Title XIII or Title XXIX of the Ohio Revised Code that involves a physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of a child under 18 years of age or of a child with a developmental disability or physical impairment under 21 years of age shall not begin to run until either of the following occurs:

(1)   The victim of the offense reaches the age of majority.

(2)   A public children services agency, or a municipal or county peace officer that is not the parent or guardian of the child, in the county in which the child resides or in which the abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred has been notified that abuse or neglect is known, suspected, or believed to have occurred.

(K)  As used in this section, PEACE OFFICER has the same meaning as in R.C. §2935.01.

(L)  (1)   The amendments to divisions (A) and (D) of this section that took effect on July 16, 2015, apply to a violation of R.C. §2907.02 or 2907.03 committed on and after July 16, 2015, and apply to a violation of either of those sections committed prior to July 16, 2015, if prosecution for that violation was not barred under this section as it existed on July 16, 2015.

(2)   The amendment to division (A)(2) of this section that took effect on April 4, 2023, applies to a conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or complicity in committing a violation of R.C. §2903.01 or R.C. §2903.02 if the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is committed on or after April 4, 2023, and applies to a conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or complicity in committing a violation of either of those sections if the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity was committed prior to April 4, 2023, and prosecution for that conspiracy, attempt, or complicity was not barred under this section as it existed on the day prior to April 4, 2023.

(R.C. §2901.13)

Statutory reference:

Limitation for income tax violations, see R.C. § 718.12

§§ 130.07  REQUIREMENTS FOR CRIMINAL LIABILITY; VOLUNTARY INTOXICATION.

(A)  Except as provided in division (B) of this section, a person is not guilty of an offense unless both of the following apply:

(1)   The person’s liability is based on conduct that includes either a voluntary act, or an omission to perform an act or duty that the person is capable of performing;

(2)   The person has the requisite degree of culpability for each element as to which a culpable mental state is specified by the language defining the offense.

(B)  When the language defining an offense does not specify any degree of culpability, and plainly indicates a purpose to impose strict criminal liability for the conduct described in the section, then culpability is not required for a person to be guilty of the offense. The fact that one division of a section plainly indicates a purpose to impose strict liability for an offense defined in that division does not by itself plainly indicate a purpose to impose strict criminal liability for an offense defined in other divisions of the section that do not specify a degree of culpability.

(C)  (1)   When language defining an element of an offense that is related to knowledge or intent or to which mens rea could fairly be applied neither specifies culpability nor plainly indicates a purpose to impose strict liability, the element of the offense is established only if a person acts recklessly.

(2)   Division (C)(1) of this section does not apply to offenses defined in R.C. Title XLV.

(3)   Division (C)(1) of this section does not relieve the prosecution of the burden of proving the culpable mental state required by any definition incorporated into the offense.

(D)  Voluntary intoxication may not be taken into consideration in determining the existence of a mental state that is an element of a criminal offense. Voluntary intoxication does not relieve a person of a duty to act if failure to act constitutes a criminal offense. Evidence that a person was voluntarily intoxicated may be admissible to show whether or not the person was physically capable of performing the act with which the person is charged.

(E)  As used in this section:

CULPABILITY. Means purpose, knowledge, recklessness, or negligence, as defined in R.C. §2901.22.

INTOXICATION. Includes but is not limited to intoxication resulting from the ingestion of alcohol, a drug, or alcohol and a drug.

INVOLUNTARY ACTS. Means reflexes, convulsions, body movements during unconsciousness or sleep, and body movements that are not otherwise a product of the actor’s volition are involuntary acts.

POSSESSION. Means a voluntary act if the possessor knowingly procured or received the thing possessed, or was aware of the possessor’s control of the thing possessed for a sufficient time to have ended possession.

(R.C. §2901.21)

§§ 130.08  CULPABLE MENTAL STATES.

(A)  A person acts purposely when it is the person’s specific intention to cause a certain result, or, when the gist of the offense is a prohibition against conduct of a certain nature, regardless of what the offender intends to accomplish thereby, it is the offender’s specific intention to engage in conduct of that nature.

(B)  A person acts knowingly, regardless of purpose, when the person is aware that the person’s conduct will probably cause a certain result or will probably be of a certain nature. A person has knowledge of circumstances when the person is aware that such circumstances probably exist. When knowledge of the existence of a particular fact is an element of an offense, such knowledge is established if a person subjectively believes that there is a high probability of its existence and fails to make inquiry or acts with a conscious purpose to avoid learning the fact.

(C)  A person acts recklessly when, with heedless indifference to the consequences, the person disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the person’s conduct is likely to cause a certain result or is likely to be of a certain nature. A person is reckless with respect to circumstances when, with heedless indifference to the consequences, the person disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk that such circumstances are likely to exist.

(D)  A person acts negligently when, because of a substantial lapse from due care, the person fails to perceive or avoid a risk that the person’s conduct may cause a certain result or may be of a certain nature. A person is negligent with respect to circumstances when, because of a substantial lapse from due care, the person fails to perceive or avoid a risk that such circumstances may exist.

(E)  When the section defining an offense provides that negligence suffices to establish an element thereof, then recklessness, knowledge, or purpose is also sufficient culpability for such element. When recklessness suffices to establish an element of an offense, then knowledge or purpose is also sufficient culpability for such element. When knowledge suffices to establish an element of an offense, then purpose is also sufficient culpability for such element.

(R.C. §2901.22)

§§ 130.09  ORGANIZATIONAL CRIMINAL LIABILITY.

(A)  An organization may be convicted of an offense under any of the following circumstances:

(1)   The offense is a minor misdemeanor committed by an officer, agent, or employee of the organization acting in its behalf and within the scope of the officer’s, agent’s, or employee’s office or employment, except that if the section defining the offense designates the officers, agents, or employees for whose conduct the organization is accountable or the circumstances under which it is accountable, those provisions shall apply.

(2)   A purpose to impose organizational liability plainly appears in the section defining the offense, and the offense is committed by an officer, agent, or employee of the organization acting in its behalf and within the scope of the officer’s, agent’s, or employee’s office or employment, except that if the section defining the offense designates the officers, agents, or employees for whose conduct the organization is accountable or the circumstances under which it is accountable, those provisions shall apply.

(3)   The offense consists of an omission to discharge a specific duty imposed by law on the organization.

(4)   If, acting with the kind of culpability otherwise required for the commission of the offense, its commission was authorized, requested, commanded, tolerated, or performed by the board of directors, trustees, partners, or by a high managerial officer, agent, or employee acting in behalf of the organization and within the scope of such a board’s or person’s office or employment.

(B)  If strict liability is imposed for the commission of an offense, a purpose to impose organizational liability shall be presumed, unless the contrary plainly appears.

(C)  In a prosecution of an organization for an offense other than one for which strict liability is imposed, it is a defense that the high managerial officer, agent, or employee having supervisory responsibility over the subject matter of the offense exercised due diligence to prevent its commission. This defense is not available if it plainly appears inconsistent with the purpose of the section defining the offense.

(D)  As used in this section, ORGANIZATION means a corporation for profit or not for profit, partnership, limited partnership, joint venture, unincorporated nonprofit association, estate, trust, or other commercial or legal entity. The term does not include an entity organized as or by a governmental agency for the execution of a governmental program.

(R.C. §2901.23)

§§ 130.10  PERSONAL ACCOUNTABILITY FOR ORGANIZATIONAL CONDUCT.

(A)  An officer, agent, or employee of an organization, as defined in R.C. §2901.23, may be prosecuted for an offense committed by such organization, if he or she acts with the kind of culpability required for the commission of the offense, and any of the following apply:

(1)   In the name of the organization or in its behalf, he or she engages in conduct constituting the offense, or causes another to engage in such conduct, or tolerates such conduct when it is of a type for which he or she has direct responsibility;

(2)   He or she has primary responsibility to discharge a duty imposed on the organization by law, and such duty is not discharged.

(B)  When a person is convicted of an offense by reason of this section, he or she is subject to the same penalty as if he or she had acted in his or her own behalf.

(R.C. §2901.24)

§§ 130.11  ATTEMPT.

(A)  Generally. No person, purposely or knowingly, and when purpose or knowledge is sufficient culpability for the commission of an offense, shall engage in conduct that, if successful, would constitute or result in the offense.

(B)  Factually, legally impossible; no defense. It is no defense to a charge under this section that, in retrospect, commission of the offense that was the object of the attempt was either factually or legally impossible under the attendant circumstances, if that offense could have been committed had the attendant circumstances been as the actor believed them to be.

(C)  Conviction. No person who is convicted of committing a specific offense, of complicity in the commission of an offense, or of conspiracy to commit an offense, shall be convicted of an attempt to commit the same offense in violation of this section.

(D)  Abandonment; affirmative defense. It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this section that the actor abandoned his or her effort to commit the offense or otherwise prevented its commission, under circumstances manifesting a complete and voluntary renunciation of his or her criminal purpose.

(E)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of an attempt to commit an offense. An attempt to commit aggravated murder, murder, or an offense for which the maximum penalty is imprisonment for life is a felony of the first degree, to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. An attempt to commit a drug abuse offense for which the penalty is determined by the amount or number of unit doses of the controlled substance involved in the drug abuse offense is an offense of the same degree as the drug abuse offense attempted would be if that drug abuse offense had been committed and had involved an amount or number of unit doses of the controlled substance that is within the next lower range of controlled substance amounts than was involved in the attempt. An attempt to commit any other offense is an offense of the next lesser degree than the offense attempted. In the case of an attempt to commit an offense other than a violation of R.C. Chapter 3734 that is not specifically classified, an attempt is a misdemeanor of the first degree if the offense attempted is a felony, and a misdemeanor of the fourth degree if the offense attempted is a misdemeanor. In the case of an attempt to commit a violation of any provision of R.C. Chapter 3734, other than R.C. §3734.18, that relates to hazardous wastes, an attempt is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. An attempt to commit a minor misdemeanor, or to engage in conspiracy, is not an offense under this section.

(F)   Definitions. As used in this section:

DRUG ABUSE OFFENSE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2925.01.

MOTOR VEHICLE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4501.01.

(R.C. §2923.02)  (Prior Code, §130.02)

Statutory reference:

Conspiracy, see R.C. § 2923.01

Solid and hazardous wastes, see R.C. Chapter 3734

§§ 130.12  COMPLICITY.

(A)  Generally. No person, acting with the kind of culpability required for the commission of an offense, shall do any of the following:

(1)   Solicit or procure another to commit the offense;

(2)   Aid or abet another in committing the offense;

(3)   Conspire with another to commit the offense in violation of R.C. §2923.01;

(4)   Cause an innocent or irresponsible person to commit the offense.

(B)  Convicted of complicity under this section. It is no defense to a charge under this section that no person with whom the accused was in complicity has been convicted as a principal offender.

(C)  Conviction of complicity under this section. No person shall be convicted of complicity under this section unless an offense is actually committed, but a person may be convicted of complicity in an attempt to commit an offense in violation of R.C. §2923.02 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

(D)  Jury change. If an alleged accomplice of the defendant testifies against the defendant in a case in which the defendant is charged with complicity in the commission of or an attempt to commit an offense, an attempt to commit an offense, or an offense, the court shall charge the jury in accordance with R.C. §2923.03(D).

(E)  Termination of complicity; affirmative defense. It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this section that, prior to the commission of or attempt to commit the offense, the actor terminated his or her complicity, under circumstances manifesting a complete and voluntary renunciation of his or her criminal purpose.

(F)   State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of complicity in the commission of an offense, and shall be prosecuted and punished as if he or she were a principal offender. A charge of complicity may be stated in terms of this section, or in terms of the principal offense.

(R.C. §2923.03)  (Prior Code, §130.03)

Statutory reference:

Conspiracy, see R.C. § 2923.01

§§ 130.13  PRESUMPTION OF INNOCENCE; PROOF OF OFFENSE; AFFIRMATIVE DEFENSE.

(A)  Every person accused of an offense is presumed innocent until proven guilty beyond a reasonable doubt, and the burden of proof for all elements of the offense is upon the prosecution. The burden of going forward with the evidence of an affirmative defense, and the burden of proof by a preponderance of the evidence, for an affirmative defense other than self-defense, defense of another, or defense of the accused’s residence presented as described in division (B)(1) of this section, is upon the accused.

(B)  (1)   A person is allowed to act in self-defense, defense of another, or defense of that person’s residence. If, at the trial of a person who is accused of an offense that involved the person’s use of force against another, there is evidence presented that tends to support that the accused person used the force in self-defense, defense of another, or defense of that person’s residence, the prosecution must prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the accused person did not use the force in self-defense, defense of another, or defense of that person’s residence, as the case may be.

(2)   Subject to division (B)(3) of this section, a person is presumed to have acted in self-defense or defense of another when using defensive force that is intended or likely to cause death or great bodily harm to another if the person against whom the defensive force is used is in the process of unlawfully and without privilege to do so entering, or has unlawfully and without privilege to do so entered, the residence or vehicle occupied by the person using the defensive force.

(3)   The presumption set forth in division (B)(2) of this section does not apply if either of the following is true:

(a)   The person against whom the defensive force is used has a right to be in, or is a lawful resident of, the residence or vehicle.

(b)   The person who uses the defensive force uses it while in a residence or vehicle and the person is unlawfully, and without privilege to be, in that residence or vehicle.

(4)   The presumption set forth in division (B)(2) of this section is a rebuttable presumption and may be rebutted by a preponderance of the evidence, provided that the prosecution’s burden of proof remains proof beyond a reasonable doubt as described in divisions (A) and (B)(1) of this section.

(C)  As part of its charge to the jury in a criminal case, the court shall read the definitions of Areasonable doubt@ and Aproof beyond a reasonable doubt@, contained in division (E) of this section.

(D)  As used in this section:

AFFIRMATIVE DEFENSE. An affirmative defense is either of the following:

(a)   A defense expressly designated as affirmative;

(b)   A defense involving an excuse or justification peculiarly within the knowledge of the accused, on which the accused can fairly be required to adduce supporting evidence.

DWELLING. Means a building or conveyance of any kind that has a roof over it and that is designed to be occupied by people lodging in the building or conveyance at night, regardless of whether the building or conveyance is temporary or permanent or is mobile or immobile. As used in this division, a building or conveyance includes but is not limited to an attached porch, and a building or conveyance with a roof over it includes but is not limited to a tent.

RESIDENCE. Means a dwelling in which a person resides either temporarily or permanently or is visiting as a guest.

VEHICLE. Means a conveyance of any kind, whether or not motorized, that is designed to transport people or property.

(E)  AReasonable doubt@ is present when the jurors, after they have carefully considered and compared all the evidence, cannot say they are firmly convinced of the truth of the charge. It is a doubt based on reasonable and common sense. Reasonable doubt is not mere possible doubt, because everything relating to human affairs or depending on moral evidence is open to some possible or imaginary doubt. AProof beyond a reasonable doubt@ is proof of such character that an ordinary person would be willing to rely and act upon it in the most important of the person’s own affairs.

(R.C. §2901.05)

§§ 130.14  BATTERED WOMAN SYNDROME.

(A)  The municipality hereby declares that it recognizes both of the following, in relation to the Abattered woman syndrome@: that the syndrome currently is a matter of commonly accepted scientific knowledge, and that the subject matter and details of the syndrome are not within the general understanding or experience of a person who is a member of the general populace and are not within the field of common knowledge.

(B)  If a person is charged with an offense involving the use of force against another and the person, as a defense to the offense charged, raises the affirmative defense of self defense, the person may introduce expert testimony of the Abattered woman syndrome@ and expert testimony that the person suffered from that syndrome as evidence to establish the requisite belief of an imminent danger of death or great bodily harm that is necessary, as an element of the affirmative defense, to justify the person’s use of force in question. The introduction of any expert testimony under this division shall be in accordance with the Ohio Rules of Evidence.

(R.C. §2901.06)

§§ 130.15  DELINQUENCY ADJUDICATIONS DEEMED CONVICTIONS.

(A)  If a person is alleged to have committed an offense and if the person previously has been adjudicated a delinquent child or juvenile traffic offender for a violation of a law or ordinance, except as provided in division (B) of this section, the adjudication as a delinquent child or as a juvenile traffic offender is a conviction for a violation of the law for purposes of determining the offense with which the person should be charged and, if the person is convicted of or pleads guilty to an offense, the sentence to be imposed upon the person relative to the conviction or guilty plea.

(B)  A previous adjudication of a person as a delinquent child or juvenile traffic offender for a violation of a law or ordinance is not a conviction for a violation of the law or ordinance for purposes of determining any of the following:

(1)   Whether the person is a repeat violent offender, as defined in R.C. §2929.01, or whether the person should be sentenced as a repeat violent offender under R.C. §2929.14(B)(2) and R.C. §2941.149;

(2)   Whether the person is a violent career criminal as defined in R.C. §2923.132, whether the person has committed unlawful use of a weapon by a violent career criminal in violation of R.C. §2923.132 or should be sentenced for that offense under that section, or whether the person should be sentenced under R.C. §2929.14(K) as a violent career criminal who had a firearm on or about the person’s person or under the person’s control while committing a violent felony offense and displayed or brandished the firearm, indicated that the offender possessed a firearm, or used the firearm to facilitate the offense.

(R.C. §2901.08)

§§ 130.16  CRIMINAL LAW JURISDICTION.

(A)  A person is subject to criminal prosecution and punishment in this municipality if any of the following occur:

(1)   The person commits an offense under the laws of this municipality, any element of which takes place in this municipality;

(2)   While in this municipality, the person attempts to commit, or is guilty of complicity in the commission of, an offense in another jurisdiction, which offense is an offense under both the laws of this municipality and the other jurisdiction, or, while in this municipality, the person conspires to commit an offense in another jurisdiction, which offense is an offense under both the laws of this municipality and the other jurisdiction, and a substantial overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy is undertaken in this municipality by the person or another person involved in the conspiracy, subsequent to the person’s entrance into the conspiracy. In any case in which a person attempts to commit, is guilty of complicity in the commission of, or conspires to commit an offense in another jurisdiction as described in this division, the person is subject to criminal prosecution and punishment in this municipality for the attempt, complicity, or conspiracy, and for any resulting offense that is committed or completed in the other jurisdiction;

(3)   While out of this municipality, the person conspires or attempts to commit, or is guilty of complicity in the commission of, an offense in this municipality;

(4)   While out of this municipality, the person omits to perform a legal duty imposed by the laws of this municipality, which omission affects a legitimate interest of the municipality in protecting, governing or regulating any person, property, thing, transaction, or activity in this municipality;

(5)   While out of this municipality, the person unlawfully takes or retains property and subsequently brings any of the unlawfully taken or retained property into this municipality;

(6)   While out of this municipality, the person unlawfully takes or entices another person and subsequently brings the other person into this municipality;

(7)   The person, by means of a computer, computer system, computer network, telecommunication, telecommunications device, telecommunications service, or information service, causes or knowingly permits any writing, data, image or other telecommunication to be disseminated or transmitted into this municipality in violation of the law of this state or municipality.

(B)  In homicide, the element referred to in division (A)(1) of this section includes the act that causes death, the physical contact that causes death, the death itself, or any other element that is set forth in the offense in question. If any part of the body of a homicide victim is found in this municipality, the death is presumed to have occurred within this municipality.

(C)  (1)   This municipality includes the land and water within its boundaries and the air space above that land and water, with respect to which this municipality has either exclusive or concurrent legislative jurisdiction. Where the boundary between this municipality and another jurisdiction is disputed, the disputed territory is conclusively presumed to be within this municipality for purposes of this section.

(2)   The courts of common pleas of Adams, Athens, Belmont, Brown, Clermont, Columbiana, Gallia, Hamilton, Jefferson, Lawrence, Meigs, Monroe, Scioto, and Washington counties have jurisdiction beyond the north or northwest shore of the Ohio River extending to the opposite shore line, between the extended boundary lines of any adjacent counties or adjacent state. Each of those courts of common pleas has concurrent jurisdiction on the Ohio River with any adjacent court of common pleas that borders on that river and with any court of Kentucky or of West Virginia that borders on the Ohio River and that has jurisdiction on the Ohio River under the law of Kentucky or the law of West Virginia, whichever is applicable, or under federal law.

(D)  When an offense is committed under the laws of this municipality, and it appears beyond a reasonable doubt that the offense or any element of the offense took place either in this municipality or in another jurisdiction or jurisdictions, but it cannot reasonably be determined in which it took place, the offense or element is conclusively presumed to have taken place in this municipality for purposes of this section.

(E)  When a person is subject to criminal prosecution and punishment in this municipality for an offense committed or completed outside this municipality, the person is subject to all specifications for that offense that would be applicable if the offense had been committed within this municipality.

(F)   Any act, conduct, or element that is a basis of a person being subject under this section to criminal prosecution and punishment in this municipality need not be committed personally by the person as long as it is committed by another person who is in complicity or conspiracy with the person.

(G)  This section shall be liberally construed, consistent with constitutional limitations, to allow this municipality the broadest possible jurisdiction over offenses and persons committing offenses in, or affecting, this municipality.

(H)  For purposes of division (A)(2) of this section, an overt act is substantial when it is of a character that manifests a purpose on the part of the actor that the object of the conspiracy should be completed.

(I)   As used in this section, COMPUTER, COMPUTER SYSTEM, COMPUTER NETWORK, INFORMATION SERVICE, TELECOMMUNICATION, TELECOMMUNICATIONS DEVICE, TELECOMMUNICATIONS SERVICE, DATA and WRITING have the same meanings as in R.C. §2913.01.

(R.C. §2901.11)

Statutory reference:

State criminal law jurisdiction, see R.C. § 2901.11

§§ 130.17  DISPOSITION OF UNCLAIMED OR FORFEITED PROPERTY HELD BY POLICE DEPARTMENT.

(A)  Safekeeping of property in custody.

(1)   (a)   Any property that has been lost, abandoned, stolen, seized pursuant to a search warrant, or otherwise lawfully seized or forfeited and that is in the custody of the Police Department shall be kept safely by the Police Department, pending the time it no longer is needed as evidence or for another lawful purpose, and shall be disposed of pursuant to this section or R.C. §§ 2981.12 and 2981.13.

(b)   This section does not apply to the custody and disposal of any of the following:

  1. Vehicles subject to forfeiture under R.C. Title 45, except as provided in division (B)(1)(f) of this section;
  1. Abandoned junk motor vehicles or other property of negligible value;
  1. Property held by a department of rehabilitation and correction institution that is unclaimed, that does not have an identified owner, that the owner agrees to dispose of, or that is identified by the department as having little value;
  1. Animals taken, and devices used in unlawfully taking animals, under R.C. §1531.20;
  1. Controlled substances sold by a peace officer in the performance of the officer’s official duties under R.C. §3719.141;
  1. Property recovered by a township law enforcement agency under R.C. §§ 505.105 to 505.109;

(2)   (a)   The Police Department shall adopt and comply with a written internal control policy that does all of the following:

  1. Provides for keeping detailed records as to the amount of property acquired by the Police Department and the date property was acquired;
  1. Provides for keeping detailed records of the disposition of the property, which shall include but not be limited to both of the following:
  1. The manner in which it was disposed, the date of disposition, detailed financial records concerning any property sold, and the name of any person who received the property. The record shall not identify or enable identification of the individual officer who seized any item of property.
  1. An itemized list of the specific expenditures made with amounts that are gained from the sale of the property and that are retained by the agency, including the specific amount expended on each expenditure, except that the policy shall not provide for or permit the identification of any specific expenditure that is made in an ongoing investigation.
  1. Complies with R.C. §2981.13 if the Police Department has a Law Enforcement Trust Fund or similar fund created under that section.

(b)   The records kept under the internal control policy shall be open to public inspection during the Police Department’s regular business hours. The policy adopted under this section is a public record open for inspection under R.C. §149.43.

(3)   The Police Department, with custody of property to be disposed of under this section or R.C. §§ 2981.12 or 2981.13, shall make a reasonable effort to locate persons entitled to possession of the property, to notify them of when and where it may be claimed, and to return the property to them at the earliest possible time. In the absence of evidence identifying persons entitled to possession, it is sufficient notice to advertise in a newspaper of general circulation in the county and to briefly describe the nature of the property in custody and inviting persons to view and establish their right to it.

(4)   As used in this section:

CITIZENS REWARD PROGRAM. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §9.92.

LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCY. Includes correctional institutions.

TOWNSHIP LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCY. Means an organized police department of a township, a township police district, a joint police district, or the office of a township constable.

(R.C. §2981.11)

(B)  Disposition of unclaimed or forfeited property.

(1)   Unclaimed or forfeited property in the custody of the Police Department, other than property described in division (A)(1)(b) of this section, shall be disposed of by order of any court of record that has territorial jurisdiction over the municipality, as follows:

(a)   Drugs shall be disposed of pursuant to R.C. §3719.11 or placed in the custody of the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States for disposal or use for medical or scientific purposes under applicable federal law.

(b)   Firearms and dangerous ordnance suitable for police work may be given to a law enforcement agency for that purpose. Firearms suitable for sporting use or as museum pieces or collectors’ items may be sold at public auction pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section. The Police Department may sell other firearms and dangerous ordnance to a federally licensed firearms dealer in a manner that the court considers proper. The Police Department shall destroy any firearms or dangerous ordnance not given to a law enforcement agency or sold or shall send them to the Bureau of Criminal Identification and Investigation for destruction by the Bureau.

(c)   Obscene materials shall be destroyed.

(d)   Beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol seized from a person who does not hold a permit issued under R.C. Chapters 4301 and 4303 or otherwise forfeited to the state for an offense under R.C. §4301.45 or R.C. §4301.53 shall be sold by the Division of Liquor Control if the Division determines that it is fit for sale or shall be placed in the custody of the Investigations Unit in the Ohio Department of Public Safety and be used for training relating to law enforcement activities. The Ohio Department of Public Safety, with the assistance of the Division of Liquor Control, shall adopt rules in accordance with R.C. Chapter 119 to provide for the distribution to state or local law enforcement agencies upon their request. If any tax imposed under R.C. Title 43 has not been paid in relation to the beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol, any moneys acquired from the sale shall first be used to pay the tax. All other money collected under this division (B)(1)(d) shall be paid into the State Treasury. Any beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol that the Division determines to be unfit for sale shall be destroyed.

(e)   Money received by an inmate of a correctional institution from an unauthorized source or in an unauthorized manner shall be returned to the sender, if known, or deposited in the Inmates’ Industrial and Entertainment Fund of the institution if the sender is not known.

(f) 1.      Any mobile instrumentality forfeited under R.C. Chapter 2981 may be given to the law enforcement agency that initially seized the mobile instrumentality for use in performing its duties, if the agency wants the mobile instrumentality. The agency shall take the mobile instrumentality subject to any security interest or lien on the mobile instrumentality.

(6)   Any property forfeited under R.C. Chapter 2981 not be used to pay any fine imposed upon a person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to an underlying criminal offense or a different offense arising out of the same facts and circumstances.

(7)   Any moneys acquired from the sale of personal effects, tools, or other property seized because the personal effects, tools, or other property were used in the commission of a violation of R.C. §2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 or derived from the proceeds of the commission of a violation of R.C. §2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 and disposed of pursuant to this division (B) shall be placed in the Victims of Human Trafficking Fund created by R.C. §5101.87.

(R.C. §2981.12)

(C)  Disposition of contraband, proceeds, or instrumentalities. Except as otherwise provided in R.C. §2981.13, property ordered forfeited as contraband, proceeds, or an instrumentality pursuant to R.C. Chapter 2981 shall be disposed of, used, or sold pursuant to division (B) of this section or R.C. §2981.12. If the property is to be sold under division (B) of this section or R.C. §2981.12, the prosecutor shall cause notice of the proposed sale to be given in accordance with law.

(R.C. §2981.13(A))

Statutory reference:

Forfeiture of property generally, see R.C. Chapter 2981

§§ 130.18  IMPOSING SENTENCE FOR MISDEMEANOR.

(A)  (1)   Unless a mandatory jail term is required to be imposed by R.C. §1547.99(G), 4510.14(B), or 4511.19(G), or any other provision of the Ohio Revised Code, or any municipal ordinance, a court that imposes a sentence under this chapter upon an offender for a misdemeanor or minor misdemeanor has discretion to determine the most effective way to achieve the purposes and principles of sentencing set forth in §130.99(C).

(2)   Unless a specific sanction is required to be imposed or is precluded from being imposed by the section setting forth an offense or the penalty for an offense or by any provision of §130.99 or 133.99 of this code or R.C. §§ 2929.23 through 2929.28, a court that imposes a sentence upon an offender for a misdemeanor may impose on the offender any sanction or combination of sanctions under §130.99(C) through (G). The court shall not impose a sentence that imposes an unnecessary burden on local government resources.

(B)  (1)   In determining the appropriate sentence for a misdemeanor, the court shall consider all of the following factors:

(a)   The nature and circumstances of the offense or offenses;

(b)   Whether the circumstances regarding the offender and the offense or offenses indicate that the offender has a history of persistent criminal activity and that the offender’s character and condition reveal a substantial risk that the offender will commit another offense;

(c)   Whether the circumstances regarding the offender and the offense or offenses indicate that the offender’s history, character, and condition reveal a substantial risk that the offender will be a danger to others and that the offender’s conduct has been characterized by a pattern of repetitive, compulsive, or aggressive behavior with heedless indifference to the consequences;

(d)   Whether the victim’s youth, age, disability, or other factor made the victim particularly vulnerable to the offense or made the impact of the offense more serious;

(e)   Whether the offender is likely to commit future crimes in general, in addition to the circumstances described in divisions (B)(1)(b) and (B)(1)(c) of this section;

(f)   Whether the offender has an emotional, mental, or physical condition that is traceable to the offender’s service in the armed forces of the United States and that was a contributing factor in the offender’s commission of the offense or offenses;

(g)   The offender’s military service record.

(2)   In determining the appropriate sentence for a misdemeanor, in addition to complying with division (B)(1) of this section, the court may consider any other factors that are relevant to achieving the purposes and principles of sentencing set forth in §130.99(C).

(C)  Before imposing a jail term as a sentence for a misdemeanor, a court shall consider the appropriateness of imposing a community control sanction or a combination of community control sanctions under §130.99(E), (F), (G), and (H). A court may impose the longest jail term authorized under §130.99(D) only upon offenders who commit the worst forms of the offense or upon offenders whose conduct and response to prior sanctions for prior offenses demonstrate that the imposition of the longest jail term is necessary to deter the offender from committing a future criminal offense.

(D)  (1)   A sentencing court shall consider any relevant oral and written statement made by the victim, the victim’s representative, the victim’s attorney, if applicable, the defendant, the defense attorney, and the prosecuting authority regarding sentencing for a misdemeanor. This division does not create any rights to notice other than those rights authorized by R.C. Chapter 2930.

(2)   At the time of sentencing for a misdemeanor or as soon as possible after sentencing, the court shall notify the victim of the offense of the victim’s right to file an application for an award of reparations pursuant to R.C. §§ 2743.51 through 2743.72.

(R.C. §2929.22)

§§ 130.19  MULTIPLE SENTENCES.

(A)  Except as provided in division (B) of this section, R.C. §2929.14(C), or R.C. §2971.03(D) or (E), a prison term, jail term, or sentence of imprisonment shall be served concurrently with any other prison term, jail term, or sentence of imprisonment imposed by a court of this municipality, this state, another state, or the United States. Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, a jail term or sentence of imprisonment for misdemeanor shall be served concurrently with a prison term or sentence of imprisonment for felony served in a state or federal correctional institution.

(B)  (1)   A jail term or sentence of imprisonment for a misdemeanor shall be served consecutively to any other prison term, jail term, or sentence of imprisonment when the trial court specifies that it is to be served consecutively or when it is imposed for a misdemeanor violation of R.C. §2907.322, 2921.34 or 2923.131. When consecutive sentences are imposed for misdemeanors under this division, the term to be served is the aggregate of the consecutive terms imposed, except that the aggregate term to be served shall not exceed 18 months.

(2)   A jail term or sentence of imprisonment imposed for a misdemeanor violation of R.C. §4510.11, 4510.14, 4510.16, 4510.21, or 4511.19, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, shall be served consecutively to a prison term that is imposed for a felony violation of R.C. §2903.06, 2903.07, 2903.08 or 4511.19 or a felony violation of R.C. §2903.04 involving the operation of a motor vehicle by the offender and that is served in a state correctional institution when the trial court specifies that it is to be served consecutively. When consecutive jail terms or sentences of imprisonment and prison terms are imposed for one or more misdemeanors and one or more felonies under this division, the term to be served is the aggregate of the consecutive terms imposed, and the offender shall serve all terms imposed for a felony before serving any term imposed for a misdemeanor.

(R.C. §2929.41)

§§ 130.20  APPREHENSION, DETENTION, OR ARREST OF PERSONS ON BOND.

(A)  No person, other than a law enforcement officer, shall apprehend, detain, or arrest a principal on bond, wherever issued, unless that person meets all of the following criteria:

(1)   The person is any of the following:

(a)   Qualified, licensed, and appointed as a surety bail bond agent under R.C. §§ 3905.83 through 3905.95;

(b)   Licensed as a surety bail bond agent by the state where the bond was written;

(c)   Licensed as a private investigator under R.C. Chapter 4749;

(d)   Licensed as a private investigator by the state where the bond was written;

(e)   An off-duty peace officer, as defined in R.C. §2921.51.

(2)   The person, prior to apprehending, detaining, or arresting the principal, has entered into a written contract with the surety or with a licensed surety bail bond agent appointed by the surety, which contract sets forth the name of the principal who is to be apprehended, detained, or arrested. For purposes of this division (A)(2), SURETY has the same meaning as in R.C. §3905.83.

(3)   The person, prior to apprehending, detaining, or arresting the principal, has notified the local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the area in which such activities will be performed and has provided any form or identification or other information requested by the law enforcement agency.

(B)  No person shall represent the person’s self to be a bail enforcement agent or bounty hunter, or claim any similar title, in this municipality.

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of illegal bail bond agent practices.

(1)   A violation of division (A) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree or, if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two or more violations of division (A) of this section, or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   A violation of division (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree or, if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two or more violations of division (B) of this section, or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2927.27)

§§ 130.21  SELF DEFENSE: LIMITATIONS ON DUTY TO RETREAT PRIOR TO USING FORCE.

(A)  As used in this section, RESIDENCE has the same meaning as in R.C. §2901.05.

(B)  For purposes of any section of this code that sets forth a criminal offense, a person has no duty to retreat before using force in self-defense, defense of another, or defense of that person’s residence if that person is in a place in which the person lawfully has a right to be.

(C)  A trier of fact shall not consider the possibility of retreat as a factor in determining whether or not a person who used force in self-defense, defense of another, or defense of that person’s residence reasonably believed that the force was necessary to prevent injury, loss, or risk to life or safety.

(R.C. §2901.09)

§§ 130.99  PENALTY.

(A)  General offenses code. Pursuant to R.C. §1545.99, any person who violates any provision of this general offenses code where no specific penalty is otherwise provided shall be fined not more than $150 for a first offense; for each subsequent offense, such person shall be fined not more than $1,000.

(Prior Code, §130.99)  (Rules and Regs. §22)

(B)  Generally. Except where otherwise specifically classified within the body of the section of a chapter of this title, a violation of such section shall be deemed a misdemeanor punishable upon conviction by a fine of not more than $500, imprisonment of not more than six months, or both.

(R.C. §715.67)

(C)  Considerations in misdemeanor sentencing.

(1)   A court that sentences an offender for a misdemeanor or minor misdemeanor violation of any provision of the Ohio Revised Code, or of any municipal ordinance that is substantially equivalent to a misdemeanor or minor misdemeanor violation of a provision of the Ohio Revised Code, shall be guided by the overriding purposes of misdemeanor sentencing. The overriding purposes of misdemeanor sentencing are to protect the public from future crime by the offender and others and to punish the offender. To achieve those purposes, the sentencing court shall consider the impact of the offense upon the victim and the need for changing the offender’s behavior, rehabilitating the defender, and making restitution to the victim of the offense, the public, or the victim and the public.

(2)   A sentence imposed for a misdemeanor or minor misdemeanor violation of an Ohio Revised Code provision or for a violation of a municipal ordinance that is subject to division (C)(1) of this section shall be reasonably calculated to achieve the two overriding purposes of misdemeanor sentencing set forth in division (C)(1) of this section, commensurate with and not demeaning to the seriousness of the offender’s conduct and its impact upon the victim, and consistent with sentences imposed for similar offenses committed by similar offenders.

(3)   A court that imposes a sentence upon an offender for a misdemeanor or minor misdemeanor violation of an Ohio Revised Code provision or for a violation of a municipal ordinance that is subject to division (C)(1) of this section shall not base the sentence upon the race, ethnic background, gender, or religion of the offender.

(4)   Divisions (C)(1) and (C)(2) of this section shall not apply to any offense that is disposed of by a traffic violations bureau of any court pursuant to Traffic Rule 13 and shall not apply to any violation of any provision of the Ohio Revised Code that is a minor misdemeanor and that is disposed of without a court appearance. Divisions (C)(1) through (C)(3) of this section do not affect any penalties established by the municipality for a violation of its ordinances that are not substantially equivalent to a misdemeanor or minor misdemeanor violation of a provision of the Ohio Revised Code.

(R.C. §2929.21)

(D)  Misdemeanor jail terms.

(1)   Except as provided in §130.18 or 133.99 of this code or R.C. §2929.22 or 2929.23 or division (D)(5) of this section and unless another term is required or authorized pursuant to law, if the sentencing court imposing a sentence upon an offender for a misdemeanor elects or is required to impose a jail term on the offender pursuant to this chapter, the court shall impose a definite jail term that shall be one of the following:

(a)   For a misdemeanor of the first degree, not more than 180 days;

(b)   For a misdemeanor of the second degree, not more than 90 days;

(c)   For a misdemeanor of the third degree, not more than 60 days;

(d)   For a misdemeanor of the fourth degree, not more than 30 days.

(2)   (a)   A court that sentences an offender to a jail term under division (D) of this section may permit the offender to serve the sentence in intermittent confinement or may authorize a limited release of the offender as provided in division (F)(2) of this section. The court retains jurisdiction over every offender sentenced to jail to modify the jail sentence imposed at any time, but the court shall not reduce any mandatory jail term.

(b) 1.      If a prosecutor, as defined in R.C. §2935.01, has filed a notice with the court that the prosecutor wants to be notified about a particular case and if the court is considering modifying the jail sentence of the offender in that case, the court shall notify the prosecutor that the court is considering modifying the jail sentence of the offender in that case. The prosecutor may request a hearing regarding the court’s consideration of modifying the jail sentence of the offender in that case, and, if the prosecutor requests a hearing, the court shall notify the eligible offender of the hearing.

      1. If the prosecutor requests a hearing regarding the court’s consideration of modifying the jail sentence of the offender in that case, the court shall hold the hearing before considering whether or not to release the offender from the offender’s jail sentence.

(3)   If a court sentences an offender to a jail term under division (D) of this section and the court assigns the offender to a county jail that has established a county jail industry program pursuant to R.C. §5147.30, the court shall specify, as part of the sentence, whether the offender may be considered for participation in the program. During the offender’s term in the county jail, the court retains jurisdiction to modify its specification regarding the offender’s participation in the county jail industry program.

(4)   If a person sentenced to a jail term pursuant to division (D) of this section, the court may impose as part of the sentence pursuant to R.C. §2929.28 a reimbursement sanction, and, if the local detention facility in which the term is to be served is covered by a policy adopted pursuant to R.C. §307.93, 341.14, 341.19, 341.21, 341.23, 753.02, 753.04, 753.16, 2301.56, or 2947.19 and R.C. §2929.37, both of the following apply:

(a)   The court shall specify both of the following as part of the sentence:

      1. If the person is presented with an itemized bill pursuant to R.C. §2929.37 for payment of the costs of confinement, the person is required to pay the bill in accordance with that section.
      1. If the person does not dispute the bill described in division (D)(4)(a)1. of this section and does not pay the bill by the times specified in R.C. §2929.37, the clerk of the court may issue a certificate of judgment against the person as described in that section.

(b)   The sentence automatically includes any certificate of judgment issued as described in division (D)(4)(a)2. of this section.

(5)   (a)   If an offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a misdemeanor violation of R.C. §2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.241, or 2907.25, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, and to a specification of the type described in R.C. §2941.1421 and if the court imposes a jail term on the offender for the misdemeanor violation, the court may impose upon the offender an additional definite jail term as follows:

      1. Subject to division (D)(5)(a)2. of this section, an additional definite jail term of not more than 60 days;
      1. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one or more misdemeanor or felony violations of R.C. §2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.241, or 2907.25, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, and also was convicted of or pleaded guilty to a specification of the type described in R.C. §2941.1421 regarding one or more of those violations, an additional definite jail term of not more than 120 days.

(b)   In lieu of imposing an additional definite jail term under division (D)(5)(a) of this section, the court may directly impose on the offender a sanction that requires the offender to wear a real-time processing, continual tracking electronic monitoring device during the period of time specified by the court. The period of time specified by the court shall equal the duration of an additional jail term that the court could have imposed upon the offender under division (D)(5)(a) of this section. A sanction imposed under this division shall commence on the date specified by the court, provided that the sanction shall not commence until after the offender has served the jail term imposed for the misdemeanor violation of R.C. §2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.241, or 2907.25, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, and any residential sanction imposed for the violation under division (F) of this section or R.C. §2929.26. A sanction imposed under this division shall be considered to be a community control sanction for purposes of division (E) of this section or R.C. §2929.25, and all provisions of this code and the Ohio Revised Code that pertain to community control sanctions shall apply to a sanction imposed under this division, except to the extent that they would by their nature be clearly inapplicable. The offender shall pay all costs associated with a sanction imposed under this division, including the cost of the use of the monitoring device.

(6)   If an offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a misdemeanor violation of R.C. §2903.13 and also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a specification of the type described in R.C. §2941.1423 that charges that the victim of the violation was a woman whom the offender knew was pregnant at the time of the violation, the court shall impose on the offender a mandatory jail term that is a definite term of at least 30 days.

(7)   If a court sentences an offender to a jail term under this division (D), the sentencing court retains jurisdiction over the offender and the jail term. Upon motion of either party or upon the court’s own motion, the court, in the court’s sole discretion and as the circumstances warrant, may substitute one or more community control sanctions under division (F) or (G) of this section for any jail days that are not mandatory jail days.

(R.C. §2929.24)

(E)  Misdemeanor community control sanctions.

(1)   (a)   Except as provided in §§ 130.18 and 133.99 of this code or R.C. §§ 2929.22 and 2929.23 or when a jail term is required by law, in sentencing an offender for a misdemeanor, other than a minor misdemeanor, the sentencing court may do either of the following:

      1. Directly impose a sentence that consists of one or more community control sanctions authorized by divisions (F), (G), or (H) of this section. The court may impose any other conditions of release under a community control sanction that the court considers appropriate. If the court imposes a jail term upon the offender, the court may impose any community control sanction or combination of community control sanctions in addition to the jail term.
      1. Impose a jail term under division (D) of this section from the range of jail terms authorized under that division for the offense, suspend all or a portion of the jail term imposed, and place the offender under a community control sanction or combination of community control sanctions authorized under divisions (F), (G), or (H) of this section.

(b)   The duration of all community control sanctions imposed upon an offender and in effect for an offender at any time shall not exceed five years.

(c)   At sentencing, if a court directly imposes a community control sanction or combination of community control sanctions pursuant to division (E)(1)(a)1. of this section, the court shall state the duration of the community control sanctions imposed and shall notify the offender that if any of the conditions of the community control sanctions are violated the court may do any of the following:

      1. Impose a longer time under the same community control sanction if the total time under all of the offender’s community control sanctions does not exceed the five-year limit specified in division (E)(1)(b) of this section;
      1. Impose a more restrictive community control sanction under division (F), (G), or (H) of this section, but the court is not required to impose any particular sanction or sanctions;
      1. Impose a definite jail term from the range of jail terms authorized for the offense under division (D) of this section.

(2)   If a court sentences an offender to any community control sanction or combination of community control sanctions pursuant to division (E)(1)(a)1. of this section, the sentencing court retains jurisdiction over the offender and the period of community control for the duration of the period of community control. Upon the motion of either party or on the court’s own motion, the court, in the court’s sole discretion and as the circumstances warrant, may modify the community control sanctions or conditions of release previously imposed, substitute a community control sanction or condition of release for another community control sanction or condition of release previously imposed, or impose an additional community control sanction or condition of release.

(3)   (a)   If a court sentences an offender to any community control sanction or combination of community control sanctions authorized under division (F), (G), or (F) of this section, the court shall place the offender under the general control and supervision of the court or of a department of probation in the jurisdiction that serves the court for purposes of reporting to the court a violation of any of the conditions of the sanctions imposed. If the offender resides in another jurisdiction and a department of probation has been established to serve the municipal court or county court in that jurisdiction, the sentencing court may request the municipal court or the county court to receive the offender into the general control and supervision of that department of probation for purposes of reporting to the sentencing court a violation of any of the conditions of the sanctions imposed. The sentencing court retains jurisdiction over any offender whom it sentences for the duration of the sanction or sanctions imposed.

(b)   The sentencing court shall require as a condition of any community control sanction that the offender abide by the law and not leave the state without the permission of the court or the offender’s probation officer. In the interests of doing justice, rehabilitating the offender, and ensuring the offender’s good behavior, the court may impose additional requirements on the offender. The offender’s compliance with the additional requirements also shall be a condition of the community control sanction imposed upon the offender.

(4)   (a)   If the court imposing sentence upon an offender sentences the offender to any community control sanction or combination of community control sanctions authorized under division (D), (E), or (F) of this section, and the offender violates any of the conditions of the sanctions, the public or private person or entity that supervises or administers the program or activity that comprises the sanction shall report the violation directly to the sentencing court or to the department of probation or probation officer with general control and supervision over the offender. If the public or private person or entity reports the violation to the department of probation or probation officer, the department or officer shall report the violation to the sentencing court.

(b)   Except as provided in division (E)(4)(c) of this section, if an offender violates any condition of a community control sanction, the sentencing court may impose upon the violator one or more of the following penalties:

      1. A longer time under the same community control sanction if the total time under all of the community control sanctions imposed on the violator does not exceed the five-year limit specified in division (E)(1)(b) of this section;
      1. A more restrictive community control sanction;
      1. A combination of community control sanctions, including a jail term.

(c)   If an offender was acting pursuant to R.C. §2925.11(B)(2)(b), or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, or a related provision under R.C. §2925.12, R.C. §2925.14, or R.C. §2925.141, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, and in so doing violated the conditions of a community control sanction based on a minor drug possession offense, as defined in R.C. §2925.11, or violated R.C. §2925.12, R.C. §2925.14(C)(1), or R.C. §2925.141, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, the sentencing court shall not impose any of the penalties described in division (E)(4)(b) of this section based on the violation.

(d)   If the court imposes a jail term upon a violator pursuant to division (E)(4)(b) of this section, the total time spent in jail for the misdemeanor offense and the violation of a condition of the community control sanction shall not exceed the maximum jail term available for the offense for which the sanction that was violated was imposed. The court may reduce the longer period of time that the violator is required to spend under the longer sanction or the more restrictive sanction imposed under division (E)(4)(b) of this section by all or part of the time the violator successfully spent under the sanction that was initially imposed.

(5)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, if an offender, for a significant period of time, fulfills the conditions of a community control sanction imposed pursuant to division (F), (G), or (H) of this section in an exemplary manner, the court may reduce the period of time under the community control sanction or impose a less restrictive community control sanction. Fulfilling the conditions of a community control sanction does not relieve the offender of a duty to make restitution under division (H) of this section.

(R.C. §2929.25)

(F)   Community residential sanction.

(1)   Except when a mandatory jail term is required by law, the court imposing a sentence for a misdemeanor, other than a minor misdemeanor, may impose upon the offender any community residential sanction or combination of community residential sanctions under this division (F). Community residential sanctions include but are not limited to the following:

(a)   A term of up to 180 days in a halfway house or a term in a halfway house not to exceed the longest jail term available for the offense, whichever is shorter, if the political subdivision that would have responsibility for paying the costs of confining the offender in a jail has entered into a contract with the halfway house for use of the facility for misdemeanor offenders;

(b)   If the offender is an eligible offender, as defined in R.C. §307.932, a term in a community alternative sentencing center or district community alternative sentencing center established and operated in accordance with that section, in the circumstances specified in that section, with one of the conditions of the sanction being that the offender successfully complete the portion of the sentence to be served in the center.

(2)   A sentence to a community residential sanction under division (F)(1)(b) of this section shall be in accordance with R.C. §307.932. In all other cases, the court that sentences an offender to a community residential sanction under this division (F) may do either or both of the following:

(a)   Permit the offender to serve the offender’s sentence in intermittent confinement, overnight, on weekends or at any other time or times that will allow the offender to continue at the offender’s occupation or care for the offender’s family;

(b)   Authorize the offender to be released so that the offender may seek or maintain employment, receive education or training, receive treatment, perform community service, or otherwise fulfill an obligation imposed by law or by the court. A release pursuant to this division shall be only for the duration of time that is needed to fulfill the purpose of the release and for travel that reasonably is necessary to fulfill the purposes of release.

(3)   The court may order that a reasonable portion of the income earned by the offender upon a release pursuant to division (F)(2) of this section be applied to any financial sanction imposed under division (H) of this section.

(4)   No court shall sentence any person to a prison term for a misdemeanor or minor misdemeanor or to a jail term for a minor misdemeanor.

(5)   If a court sentences a person who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor to a community residential sanction as described in division (F)(1) of this section, at the time of reception and at other times the person in charge of the operation of the halfway house, community alternative sentencing center, district community alternative sentencing center, or other place at which the offender will serve the residential sanction determines to be appropriate, the person in charge of the operation of the halfway house, community alternative sentencing center, district community alternative sentencing center, or other place may cause the convicted offender to be examined and tested for tuberculosis, HIV infection, hepatitis, including but not limited to hepatitis A, B, and C, and other contagious diseases. The person in charge of the operation of the halfway house, community alternative sentencing center, district community alternative sentencing center, or other place at which the offender will serve the residential sanction may cause a convicted offender in the halfway house, community alternative sentencing center, district community alternative sentencing center, or other place who refuses to be tested or treated for tuberculosis, HIV infection, hepatitis, including but not limited to hepatitis A, B, and C, or another contagious disease to be tested and treated involuntarily.

(6)   The municipality may enter into a contract with a halfway house for use of the halfway house to house misdemeanor offenders under a sanction imposed under division (F)(1)(a) of this section.

(R.C. §2929.26)

(G)  Nonresidential sanction where jail term is not mandatory.

(1)   Except when a mandatory jail term is required by law, the court imposing a sentence for a misdemeanor, other than a minor misdemeanor, may impose upon the offender any nonresidential sanction or combination of nonresidential sanctions authorized under this division. Nonresidential sanctions include but are not limited to the following:

(a)   A term of day reporting;

(b)   A term of house arrest with electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring, a term of electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring without house arrest, or a term of house arrest without electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring;

(c)   A term of community service of up to 500 hours for misdemeanor of the first degree or 200 hours for a misdemeanor of the second, third, or fourth degree;

(d)   A term in a drug treatment program with a level of security for the offender as determined necessary by the court;

(e)   A term of intensive probation supervision;

(f)   A term of basic probation supervision;

(g)   A term of monitored time;

(h)   A term of drug and alcohol use monitoring, including random drug testing;

(I)   A curfew term;

(j)    A requirement that the offender obtain employment;

(k)   A requirement that the offender obtain education or training;

(l)    Provided the court obtains the prior approval of the victim, a requirement that the offender participate in victim-offender mediation;

(m)   If authorized by law, suspension of the offender’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle, immobilization or forfeiture of the offender’s motor vehicle, a requirement that the offender obtain a valid motor vehicle operator’s license, or any other related sanction;

(n)   A requirement that the offender obtain counseling if the offense is a violation of R.C. §2919.25 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or a violation of R.C. §2903.13 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance involving a person who was a family or household member at the time of the violation, if the offender committed the offense in the vicinity of one or more children who are not victims of the offense, and if the offender or the victim of the offense is a parent, guardian, custodian, or person in loco parentis of one or more of those children. This division does not limit the court in requiring that the offender obtain counseling for any offense or in any circumstance not specified in this division.

(2)   If the court imposes a term of community service pursuant to division (G)(1)(c) of this section, the offender may request that the court modify the sentence to authorize the offender to make a reasonable contribution, as determined by the court, to the general fund of the county, municipality, or other local entity that provides funding to the court. The court may grant the request if the offender demonstrates a change in circumstances from the date the court imposes the sentence or that the modification would otherwise be in the interests of justice. If the court grants the request, the offender shall make a reasonable contribution to the court, and the clerk of the court shall deposit that contribution into the general fund of the county, municipality, or other local entity that provides funding to the court. If more than one entity provides funding to the court, the clerk shall deposit a percentage of the reasonable contribution equal to the percentage of funding the entity provides to the court in that entity’s general fund.

(3)   In addition to the sanctions authorized under division (G)(1) of this section, the court imposing a sentence for a misdemeanor, other than a minor misdemeanor, upon an offender who is not required to serve a mandatory jail term may impose any other sanction that is intended to discourage the offender or other persons from committing a similar offense if the sanction is reasonably related to the overriding purposes and principles of misdemeanor sentencing.

(4)   The court imposing a sentence for a minor misdemeanor may impose a term of community service in lieu of all or part of a fine. The term of community service imposed for a minor misdemeanor shall not exceed 30 hours. After imposing a term of community service, the court may modify the sentence to authorize a reasonable contribution, as determined by the court, to the appropriate general fund as provided in division (G)(2) of this section.

(R.C. §2929.27)

(H)  Financial sanctions.

(1)   In addition to imposing court costs pursuant to R.C. §2947.23, the court imposing a sentence upon an offender for a misdemeanor, including a minor misdemeanor, may sentence the offender to any financial sanction or combination of financial sanctions authorized under this division (G) and, if the offender is being sentenced for a criminal offense as defined in R.C. §2930.01, shall sentence the offender to make restitution pursuant to this division (H) and R.C. §2929.281. If the court, in its discretion or as required by this division (H), imposes one or more financial sanctions, the financial sanctions that may be imposed pursuant to this division (H) include, but are not limited to, the following:

(a)   Restitution.

      1. Unless the misdemeanor offense could be disposed of by the traffic violations bureau serving the court under Traffic Rule 13, restitution by the offender to the victim of the offender’s crime or the victim’s estate, in an amount based on the victim’s economic loss. The court may not impose restitution as a sanction pursuant to this division if the offense could be disposed of by the traffic violations bureau serving the court under Traffic Rule 13. If the court requires restitution, the court shall order that the restitution be made to the victim in open court or to the adult probation department that serves the jurisdiction or the clerk of the court on behalf of the victim.
      1. The court shall determine the amount of restitution to be paid by the offender. The victim, victim’s representative, victim’s attorney, if applicable, the prosecutor or the prosecutor’s designee, and the offender may provide information relevant to the determination of the amount of restitution. The amount the court orders as restitution shall not exceed the amount of the economic loss suffered by the victim as a direct and proximate result of the commission of the offense. If the court imposes restitution for the cost of accounting or auditing done to determine the extent of economic loss, the court may order restitution for any amount of the victim’s costs of accounting or auditing provided that the amount of restitution is reasonable and does not exceed the value of property or services stolen or damaged as a result of the offense. If the court decides to or is required to impose restitution, the court shall hold an evidentiary hearing on restitution if the offender, victim, victim’s representative, victim’s attorney, if applicable, or victim’s estate disputes the amount of restitution. The court shall determine the amount of full restitution by a preponderance of the evidence.
      1. All restitution payments shall be credited against any recovery of economic loss in a civil action brought by the victim or the victim’s estate against the offender. No person may introduce evidence of an award of restitution under this division (H) in a civil action for purposes of imposing liability against an insurer under R.C. §3937.18.
      1. The court may order that the offender pay a surcharge, of not more than 5% of the amount of the restitution otherwise ordered, to the entity responsible for collecting and processing restitution payments.
      1. The victim, victim’s attorney, if applicable, or the attorney for the victim’s estate may request that the prosecutor in the case file a motion, or the offender may file a motion, for modification of the payment terms of any restitution ordered. If the court grants the motion, it may modify the payment terms as it determines appropriate but shall not reduce the amount of restitution ordered, except as provided in R.C. §2929.281(A).

(b)   Fines. A fine of the type described in divisions (H)(1)(b)1. and (H)(1)(b)2. of this section payable to the appropriate entity as required by law:

      1. A fine in the following amount:
      1. For a misdemeanor of the first degree, not more than $1,000;
      1. For a misdemeanor of the second degree, not more than $750;
      1. For a misdemeanor of the third degree, not more than $500;
      1. For a misdemeanor of the fourth degree, not more than $250;
      1. For a minor misdemeanor, not more than $150.
      1. A state fine or cost as defined in R.C. §2949.111.

(c)   Reimbursement.

      1. Reimbursement by the offender of any or all of the costs of sanctions incurred by the government, including but not limited to the following:
      1. All or part of the costs of implementing any community control sanction, including a supervision fee under R.C. §2951.021 and the costs of global positioning system device monitoring;
      1. All or part of the costs of confinement in a jail or other residential facility, including but not limited to a per diem fee for room and board, the costs of medical and dental treatment, and the costs of repairing property damaged by the offender while confined;
      1. All or part of the cost of purchasing and using an immobilizing or disabling device, including a certified ignition interlock device, or a remote alcohol monitoring device that a court orders an offender to use under R.C. §4510.13.
      1. The amount of reimbursement under division (H)(1)(c)1. of this section shall not exceed the total amount of reimbursement the offender is able to pay and shall not exceed the actual cost of the sanctions. The court may collect any amount of reimbursement the offender is required to pay under that division. If the court does not order reimbursement under that division, confinement costs may be assessed pursuant to a repayment policy adopted under R.C. §2929.37. In addition, the offender may be required to pay the fees specified in R.C. §2929.38 in accordance with that section.

(2)   (a)   If the court determines a hearing is necessary, the court may hold a hearing to determine whether the offender is able to pay the financial sanction imposed pursuant to this division (H) or court costs or is likely in the future to be able to pay the sanction or costs.

(b)   If the court determines that the offender is indigent and unable to pay the financial sanction or court costs, the court shall consider imposing and may impose a term of community service under division (G)(1) of this section in lieu of imposing a financial sanction or court costs. If the court does not determine that the offender is indigent, the court may impose a term of community service under division (G)(1) of this section in lieu of or in addition to imposing a financial sanction under this division (H) and in addition to imposing court costs. The court may order community service for a minor misdemeanor pursuant to division (G)(4) of this section in lieu of or in addition to imposing a financial sanction under this section and in addition to imposing court costs. If a person fails to pay a financial sanction or court costs, the court may order community service in lieu of the financial sanction or court costs.

(3)   (a)   The offender shall pay reimbursements imposed upon the offender pursuant to division (H)(1)(c) of this section to pay the costs incurred by a county pursuant to any sanction imposed under division (F), (G), or (H) of this section or in operating a facility used to confine offenders pursuant to a sanction imposed under division (F) of this section to the county treasurer. The county treasurer shall deposit the reimbursements in the county’s General Fund. The county shall use the amounts deposited in the fund to pay the costs incurred by the county pursuant to any sanction imposed under division (F), (G), or (H) of this section or in operating a facility used to confine offenders pursuant to a sanction imposed under division (F) of this section.

(b)   The offender shall pay reimbursements imposed upon the offender pursuant to division (H)(1)(c) of this section to pay the costs incurred by a municipal corporation pursuant to any sanction imposed under division (F), (G), or (H) of this section or in operating a facility used to confine offenders pursuant to a sanction imposed under division (F) of this section to the treasurer of the municipal corporation. The treasurer shall deposit the reimbursements in the municipal corporation’s General Fund. The municipal corporation shall use the amounts deposited in the fund to pay the costs incurred by the municipal corporation pursuant to any sanction imposed under division (F), (G), or (H) of this section or in operating a facility used to confine offenders pursuant to a sanction imposed under division (F) of this section.

(c)   The offender shall pay reimbursements imposed pursuant to division (H)(1)(c) of this section for the costs incurred by a private provider pursuant to a sanction imposed under division (F), (H), or (H) of this section to the provider.

(4)   In addition to any other fine that is or may be imposed under this division (H), the court imposing sentence upon an offender for misdemeanor domestic violence or menacing by stalking may impose a fine of not less than $70 nor more than $500, which shall be transmitted to the Treasurer of Ohio to be credited to the address confidentiality program fund created by R.C. §111.48.

(5)   (a)   Except as otherwise provided in this division (H)(5), a financial sanction imposed under division (G)(1) of this section is a judgment in favor of the state or the political subdivision that operates the court that imposed the financial sanction, and the offender subject to the financial sanction is the judgment debtor. A financial sanction of reimbursement imposed pursuant to division (H)(1)(c)1.a. of this section upon an offender is a judgment in favor of the entity administering the community control sanction, and the offender subject to the financial sanction is the judgment debtor. A financial sanction of reimbursement imposed pursuant to division (H)(1)(c)1.b. of this section upon an offender confined in a jail or other residential facility is a judgment in favor of the entity operating the jail or other residential facility, and the offender subject to the financial sanction is the judgment debtor. A financial sanction of restitution imposed pursuant to division (H)(1)(a) of this section is an order in favor of the victim of the offender’s criminal act that can be collected through a certificate of judgment as described in division (H)(5)(b)1. of this section, through execution as described in division (H)(5)(b)2. of this section or through an order as described in division (H)(5)(b)3. of this section and the offender shall be considered for purposes of the collection as a judgment debtor.

(b)   Once a financial sanction is imposed as a judgment or order under this division, the victim, private provider, state, or political subdivision may do any of the following:

      1. Obtain from the clerk of the court in which the judgment was entered, at no charge, a certificate of judgment that shall be in the same manner and form as a certificate of judgment issued in a civil action;
      1. Obtain execution of the judgment or order through any available procedure, including any of the procedures identified in R.C. §2929.18(D)(1) and (D)(2) or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.
      1. Obtain an order for the assignment of wages of the judgment debtor under R.C. §1321.33 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

(6)   The civil remedies authorized under division (H)(5) of this section for the collection of the financial sanction supplement, but do not preclude, enforcement of the criminal sentence.

(7)   Each court imposing a financial sanction upon an offender under this division (H) may designate the clerk of the court or another person to collect the financial sanction. The clerk, or another person authorized by law or the court to collect the financial sanction may do the following:

(a)   Enter into contracts with one or more public agencies or private vendors for the collection of amounts due under the sanction. Before entering into a contract for the collection of amounts due from an offender pursuant to any financial sanction imposed pursuant to this division (H), a court shall comply with R.C. §§ 307.86 through 307.92.

(b)   Permit payment of all or any portion of the sanction in installments, by financial transaction device if the court is a county court or a municipal court operated by a county, or by any other reasonable method, in any time, and on any terms that the court considers just, except that the maximum time permitted for payment shall not exceed five years. If the court is a county court or a municipal court operated by a county, the acceptance of payments by any financial transaction device shall be governed by the policy adopted by the board of county commissioners of the county pursuant to R.C. §301.28. If the court is a municipal court not operated by a county, the clerk may pay any fee associated with processing an electronic transfer out of public money or may charge the fee to the offender.

(c)   To defray administrative costs, charge a reasonable fee to an offender who elects a payment plan rather than a lump sum payment of any financial sanction.

(8)   No financial sanction imposed under this division (H) shall preclude a victim from bringing a civil action against the offender.

(9)   If the court imposes restitution, fines, fees, or incarceration costs on a business or corporation, it is the duty of the person authorized to make disbursements from assets of the business or corporation to pay the restitution, fines, fees, or incarceration costs from those assets.

(10)  If an offender is sentenced to pay restitution, a fine, fee, or incarceration costs, the clerk of the sentencing court, on request, shall make the offender’s payment history available to the victim, victim’s representative, victim’s attorney, if applicable, the prosecutor, the probation department, and the court without cost.

(R.C. §2929.28)

(I)   Organizational penalties.

(1)   Regardless of the other penalties provided in this section, an organization convicted of an offense pursuant to §130.09 shall be fined by the court as follows:

(a)   For a misdemeanor of the first degree, not more than $5,000;

(b)   For a misdemeanor of the second degree, not more than $4,000;

(c)   For a misdemeanor of the third degree, not more than $3,000;

(d)   For a misdemeanor of the fourth degree, not more than $2,000;

(e)   For a minor misdemeanor, not more than $1,000;

(f)   For a misdemeanor not specifically classified, not more than $2,000;

(g)   For a minor misdemeanor not specifically classified, not more than $1,000.

(2)   When an organization is convicted of an offense not specifically classified, and the section defining the offense or penalty plainly indicates a purpose to impose the penalty provided for violation upon organizations, then such penalty shall be imposed in lieu of the penalty provided in this section.

(3)   When an organization is convicted of an offense not specifically classified, and the penalty provided includes a higher fine than that provided in this section, then the penalty imposed shall be pursuant to the penalty provided for violation of the section defining the offense.

(4)   This section does not prevent the imposition of available civil sanctions against an organization convicted of an offense pursuant to §130.09, either in addition to or in lieu of a fine imposed pursuant to this section.

(R.C. §2929.31)

Statutory reference:

Citation issuance and limitations on arrest for minor misdemeanors, see R.C. § 2935.26
Crime Victims Reparations Fund, see R.C. § 2929.32
Habitual sex offender and sexual predator registration, see R.C. Chapter 2950
Reimbursement for costs of confinement, see R.C. §§ 2929.36 et seq.
Reports to health care licensing boards of criminal offenses, see R.C. § 2929.42
Restitution, see R.C. § 2929.281
State law penalty, see R.C. § 1545.99

CHAPTER 131: OFFENSES AGAINST PROPERTY AND ENVIRONMENT

Section
131.01 Criminal damaging or endangering; vehicular vandalism
131.02 Criminal mischief
131.03 Criminal trespass; aggravated trespass
131.04 Tampering with coin machines
131.05 Theft
131.06 Unauthorized use of a vehicle
131.07 Unauthorized use of property, including telecommunication property and computers; possession of municipal property
131.08 Passing bad checks
131.09 Misuse of credit cards
131.10 Receiving stolen property
131.11 Injuring vines, bushes, trees, or crops
131.12 Injury to property by hunters
131.13 Preservation of property and natural features
131.14 Waste materials and litter
131.15 (Reserved)
131.16 All-purpose vehicles, skateboards, roller skates, metal detectors
131.17 Snowmobiling, sledding, skiing and ice skating
131.18 Swimming, bathing, entering park waters
131.19 Model toys
131.20 Aerosol paint cans
131.21 Operating motorized or gasoline-powered vehicles on trails designated for walking or biking

§ 131.01 CRIMINAL DAMAGING OR ENDANGERING; VEHICULAR VANDALISM.

(A) (1) Criminal damaging or endangering. No person shall cause or create a substantial risk of physical harm to any property of another without the other person’s consent: (a) Knowingly, by any means; or (b) Recklessly, by means of fire, explosion, flood, poison gas, poison, radioactive material, caustic or corrosive material, or other inherently dangerous agency or substance. (2) State law penalty. Whoever violates this division (A) is guilty of criminal damaging or endangering, a misdemeanor of the second degree. If violation of this division (A) creates a risk of physical harm to any person, criminal damaging or endangering is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the property involved in a violation of this division (A) is an aircraft, an aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, spare part, or any other equipment or implement used or intended to be used in the operation of an aircraft and if the violation creates a risk of physical harm to any person, criminal damaging or endangering is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. If the property involved in a violation of this division (A) is an aircraft, an aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, spare part, or any other equipment or implement used or intended to be used in the operation of an aircraft and if the violation creates a substantial risk of physical harm to any person or if the property involved in a violation of this division (A) is an occupied aircraft, criminal damaging or endangering is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (R.C. § 2909.06) (B) (1) Vehicular vandalism. As used in this division (B): ALLEY, STREET, and VEHICLE. Have the same meanings as in R.C. § 4511.01. HIGHWAY. Means any highway as defined in R.C. § 4511.01 or any lane, road, street, alley, bridge, or overpass. VESSEL and WATERS IN THIS STATE. Have the same meanings as in R.C. § 1547.01. (2) Drop or throw object into path of vehicle, boat. No person shall knowingly, and by any means, drop or throw any object at, onto, or in the path of any of the following: (a) Any vehicle on a highway; (b) Any boat or vessel on any of the waters in this state. (3) State law penalty. Whoever violates this division (B) is guilty of vehicular vandalism. Except as otherwise provided in this division (B)(3), vehicular vandalism is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the violation of this division (B) creates a substantial risk of physical harm to any person or the violation of this division (B) causes serious physical harm to property, vehicular vandalism is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. If the violation of this division (B) causes physical harm to any person or serious physical harm to any person, vehicular vandalism is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (R.C. § 2909.09)

§ 131.02 CRIMINAL MISCHIEF.

(A) Criminal mischief. No person shall: (1) Without privilege to do so, knowingly move, deface, damage, destroy, or otherwise improperly tamper with the property of another; (2) With purpose to interfere with the use or enjoyment of property of another, employ a tear gas device, stink bomb, smoke generator, or other device releasing a substance that is harmful or offensive to persons exposed, or that tends to cause public alarm; (3) Without privilege to do so, knowingly move, deface, damage, destroy, or otherwise improperly tamper with a bench mark, triangulation station, boundary marker, or other survey station, monument, or marker; (4) Without privilege to do so, knowingly move, deface, damage, destroy, or otherwise improperly tamper with any safety device, the property of another, or the property of the offender when required or placed for the safety of others, so as to destroy or diminish its effectiveness or availability for its intended purpose; (5) With purpose to interfere with the use or enjoyment of the property of another, set a fire on the land of another or place personal property that has been set on fire on the land of another, which fire or personal property is outside and apart from any building, other structure, or personal property that is on that land; (6) Without privilege to do so, and with intent to impair the functioning of any computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, or computer program, knowingly do any of the following: (a) In any manner or by any means, including but not limited to, computer hacking, alter, damage, destroy, or modify a computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, or computer program or data contained in a computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, or computer program; (b) Introduce a computer contaminant into a computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, or computer program. (B) Definition. As used in this section, SAFETY DEVICE means any fire extinguisher, fire hose, or fire axe, or any fire escape, emergency exit, or emergency escape equipment, or any life line, life-saving ring, life preserver, or life boat or raft, or any alarm, light, flare, signal, sign, or notice intended to warn of danger or emergency, or intended for other safety purposes, or any guard railing or safety barricade, or any traffic sign or signal, or any railroad grade crossing sign, signal, or gate, or any first aid or survival equipment, or any other device, apparatus, or equipment intended for protecting or preserving the safety of persons or property. (C) State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of criminal mischief, and shall be punished as provided in division (C)(1) or (C)(2) of this section. (1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, criminal mischief committed in violation of division (A)(1), (A)(2), (A)(3), (A)(4), or (A)(5) of this section is a misdemeanor of the third degree. Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the violation of division (A)(1), (A)(2), (A)(3), (A)(4), or (A)(5) of this section creates a risk of physical harm to any person, criminal mischief committed in violation of division (A)(1), (A)(2), (A)(3), (A)(4), or (A)(5) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the property involved in the violation of division (A)(1), (A)(2), (A)(3), (A)(4), or (A)(5) of this section is an aircraft, an aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, spare part, fuel, lubricant, hydraulic fluid, any other equipment, implement, or material used or intended to be used in the operation of an aircraft, or any cargo carried or intended to be carried in an aircraft and if the violation creates any risk of physical harm to any person, or if the aircraft in question is an occupied aircraft, criminal mischief committed in violation of division (A)(1), (A)(2), (A)(3), (A)(4), or (A)(5) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, criminal mischief committed in violation of division (A)(6) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, computer program, or data involved in the violation of division (A)(6) of this section or the loss to the victim resulting from the violation is $1,000 or more, or if the computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, computer program, or data involved in the violation of division (A)(6) is used or intended to be used in the operation of an aircraft and the violation creates any risk of physical harm to any person, or if the aircraft in question is an occupied aircraft, criminal mischief committed in violation of division (A)(6) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (R.C. § 2909.07)

§ 131.03 CRIMINAL TRESPASS; AGGRAVATED TRESPASS.

(A) Generally. No person, without privilege to do so, shall do any of the following: (1) Knowingly enter or remain on the land or premises of another; (2) Knowingly enter or remain on the land or premises of another, the use of which is lawfully restricted to certain persons, purposes, modes, or hours, when the offender knows the offender is in violation of any such restriction or is reckless in that regard; (3) Recklessly enter or remain on the land or premises of another, as to which notice against unauthorized access or presence is given by actual communication to the offender, or in a manner prescribed by law, or by posting in a manner reasonably calculated to come to the attention of potential intruders, or by fencing or other enclosure manifestly designed to restrict access; (4) Being on the land or premises of another, negligently fail or refuse to leave upon being notified by signage posted in a conspicuous place or otherwise being notified to do so by the owner or occupant, or the agent or servant of either. (B) Public agency; no defense. It is no defense to a charge under this section that the land or premises involved was owned, controlled, or in custody of a public agency. (C) Authorization obtained by deception; no defense. It is no defense to a charge under this section that the offender was authorized to enter or remain on the land or premises involved, when the authorization was secured by deception. (D) State law penalty. (1) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of criminal trespass, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. (2) Notwithstanding R.C. § 2929.28, if the person, in committing the violation of this section, used an all-purpose vehicle, the court shall impose a fine of 2 times the usual amount imposed for the violation. (3) If an offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 2 or more violations of this section, R.C. § 2911.21 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, and the offender, in committing each violation, used an all-purpose vehicle, the court, in addition to or independent of all other penalties imposed for the violation, may impound the certificate of registration and license plate of that all-purpose vehicle for not less than 60 days. In such a case, R.C. § 4519.47 applies. (E) Fine paid to State Recreational Vehicle Fund. Notwithstanding any provision of the Ohio Revised Code, if the offender, in committing the violation of this section, used an all-purpose vehicle, the Clerk of the Court shall pay the fine imposed pursuant to this section to the State Recreational Vehicle Fund created by R.C. § 4519.11. (F) Definitions. As used in this section: (1) ALL-PURPOSE VEHICLE has the same meaning as in R.C. § 4519.01. (2) LAND or PREMISES includes any land, building, structure, or place belonging to, controlled by, or in custody of another, and any separate enclosure or room, or portion thereof. (R.C. § 2911.21) (G) (1) Aggravated trespass. No person shall enter or remain on the land or premises of another with purpose to commit on that land or those premises a misdemeanor, the elements of which involve causing physical harm to another person or causing another person to believe that the offender will cause physical harm to him or her. (2) State law penalty. Whoever violates this division (G) is guilty of aggravated trespass, a misdemeanor of the first degree. (R.C. § 2911.211)

§ 131.04 TAMPERING WITH COIN MACHINES.

(A) Generally. No person, with purpose to commit theft or to defraud, shall knowingly enter, force an entrance into, tamper with, or insert any part of an instrument into any coin machine. (B) State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of tampering with coin machines, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of this section or of any theft offense as defined in R.C. § 2913.01, tampering with coin machines is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (R.C. § 2911.32)

§ 131.05 THEFT.

(A) Generally. No person, with purpose to deprive the owner of property or services, shall knowingly obtain or exert control over either the property or services in any of the following ways: (1) Without the consent of the owner or person authorized to give consent; (2) Beyond the scope of the express or implied consent of the owner or person authorized to give consent; (3) By deception; (4) By threat; (5) By intimidation. (B) State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of theft. Except as otherwise provided in this division, a violation of this section is petty theft, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If any of the following criteria are met, then a violation of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law: (1) If the value of the property or services is $500 or more; (2) If the property stolen is any of the property listed in R.C. § 2913.71; (3) If the victim of the offense is an elderly person or disabled adult; (4) If the property stolen is a firearm or dangerous ordnance; (5) If the property stolen is a motor vehicle; (6) If the property stolen is any dangerous drug, or if the offender previously has been convicted of a felony drug abuse offense; (7) If the property stolen is a police dog or horse or an assistance dog and the offender knows or should know that the property stolen is a police dog or horse or an assistance dog; or (8) If the property stolen is anhydrous ammonia. (C) Additional penalty. In addition to the penalties described in division (B) of this section, if the offender committed the violation by causing a motor vehicle to leave the premises of an establishment at which gasoline is offered for retail sale without the offender making full payment for gasoline that was dispensed into the fuel tank of the motor vehicle or into another container, the court may do 1 of the following: (1) Unless division (C)(2) of this section applies, suspend for not more than 6 months the offenders driver’s license, probationary driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, or nonresident operating privilege; (2) If the offender’s driver’s license, probationary driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, or nonresident operating privilege has previously been suspended pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, or any other substantially equivalent state or local law, impose a class seven suspension of the offender’s license, permit, or privilege from the range specified in R.C. § 4510.02(A)(7), provided that the suspension shall be at least 6 months. (D) In addition to the penalties described in division (B) of this section, if the offender committed the violation by stealing rented property or rental services, the court may order that the offender make restitution pursuant to R.C. § 2929.18 or R.C. § 2929.28. Restitution may include, but is not limited to, the cost of repairing or replacing the stolen property, or the cost of repairing the stolen property and any loss of revenue resulting from deprivation of the property due to theft of rental services that is less than or equal to the actual value of the property at the time it was rented. Evidence of intent to commit theft of rented property or rental services shall be determined pursuant to the provisions of R.C. § 2913.72. (E) The sentencing court that suspends an offender’s license, permit, or nonresident operating privilege under division (C) of this section may grant the offender limited driving privileges during the period of the suspension in accordance with R.C. Chapter 4510. (R.C. § 2913.02) Statutory reference: Felony theft provisions, see R.C. § 2913.02(B)

§ 131.06 UNAUTHORIZED USE OF A VEHICLE.

(A) Generally. No person shall knowingly use or operate an aircraft, motor vehicle, motorcycle, motorboat, or other motor-propelled vehicle without the consent of the owner or person authorized to give consent. (B) Use without consent. No person shall knowingly use or operate an aircraft, motor vehicle, motorboat, or other motor-propelled vehicle without the consent of the owner or person authorized to give consent, and either remove it from this state, or keep possession of it for more than 48 hours. (C) Affirmative defenses. The following are affirmative defenses to a charge under this section: (1) At the time of the alleged offense, the actor, though mistaken, reasonably believed that he or she was authorized to use or operate the property. (2) At the time of the alleged offense, the actor reasonably believed that the owner or person empowered to give consent would authorize the actor to use or operate the property. (D) State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of unauthorized use of a vehicle. (1) Except as otherwise provided in this division (D)(1), a violation of division (A) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the victim of the offense is an elderly person or disabled adult and if the victim incurs a loss as a result of the violation, a violation of division (A) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (2) A violation of division (B) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (R.C. § 2913.03) Statutory reference: Theft offense involving a motor vehicle, offender to pay towing and storage fees, see R.C. § 2913.82

§ 131.07 UNAUTHORIZED USE OF PROPERTY, INCLUDING TELECOMMUNICATION PROPERTY AND COMPUTERS; POSSESSION OF MUNICIPAL PROPERTY.

(A) Use without consent. No person shall knowingly use or operate the property of another without the consent of the owner or person authorized to give consent. (B) Access without consent. No person, in any manner and by any means, including but not limited to computer hacking, shall knowingly gain access to, attempt to gain access to, or cause access to be gained to any computer, computer system, computer network, cable service, cable system, telecommunications device, telecommunications service, or information service without the consent of, or beyond the scope of the express or implied consent of, the owner of the computer, computer system, computer network, cable service, cable system, telecommunications device, tele-communications service, or information service or other person authorized to give consent. (C) Access to database. No person shall knowingly gain access to, attempt to gain access to, cause access to be granted to, or disseminate information gained from access to the law enforcement automated database system created pursuant to R.C. § 5503.10 without the consent of, or beyond the scope of the express or implied consent of, the chair of the Law Enforcement Automated Data System Steering Committee. (D) Affirmative defenses. The affirmative defenses contained in R.C. § 2913.03(C) are affirmative defenses to a charge under this section. (E) State law penalty. Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of unauthorized use of property. Except as otherwise provided in this division, unauthorized use of property is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. (1) If unauthorized use of property is committed for the purpose of devising or executing a scheme to defraud or to obtain property or services, unauthorized use of property is whichever of the following is applicable: (a) Except as otherwise provided below, unauthorized use of property is a misdemeanor of the first degree. (b) If the value of the property or services or the loss to the victim is $500 or more, it is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (2) If the victim of the offense is an elderly person or disabled adult, unauthorized use of property is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (F) Unauthorized use; guilty. Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of unauthorized use of computer, cable, or telecommunication property, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (G) Unauthorized use of database. Whoever violates division (C) of this section is guilty of unauthorized use of the law enforcement automated database system, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (H) Definitions. As used in this section: CABLE OPERATOR means any person or group of persons that does either of the following: (a) Provides cable service over a cable system and directly through 1 or more affiliates owns a significant interest in that cable system; (b) Otherwise controls or is responsible for, through any arrangement, the management and operation of a cable system. CABLE SERVICE means any of the following: (a) The 1-way transmission to subscribers of video programming or of information that a cable operator makes available to all subscribers generally; (b) Subscriber interaction, if any, that is required for the selection or use of video programming or of information that a cable operator makes available to all subscribers generally, both as described in division (a) of this definition; (c) Any cable television service. CABLE SYSTEM means any facility, consisting of a set of closed transmission paths and associated signal generation, reception, and control equipment that is designed to provide cable service that includes video programming and that is provided to multiple subscribers within a community. CABLE SYSTEM does not include any of the following: (a) Any facility that serves only to retransmit the television signals of 1 or more television broadcast stations; (b) Any facility that serves subscribers without using any public right-of-way; (c) Any facility of a common carrier that, under 47 U.S.C. § 522(7)(c), is excluded from the term CABLE SYSTEM as defined in 47 U.S.C. § 522(7); (d) Any open video system that complies with 47 U.S.C. § 573; (e) Any facility of any electric utility used solely for operating its electric utility system. (R.C. § 2913.04) (I) Possession of district property. (1) No person shall, without being authorized, have in his or her control or possession any equipment, tools, implements or other property belonging to Five Rivers MetroParks. (R.C. § 5589.12) (2) Whoever violates this division (I) is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. (R.C. § 5589.99(B))

§ 131.08 PASSING BAD CHECKS.

(A) Definitions. As used in this section: CHECK. Includes any form of debit from a demand deposit account, including but not limited to any of the following: (a) A check, bill of exchange, draft, order of withdrawal, or similar negotiable or non- negotiable instrument; (b) An electronic check, electronic transaction, debit card transaction, check card transaction, substitute check, web check, or any form of automated clearing house transaction. ISSUE A CHECK. Means causing any form of debit from a demand deposit account. (B) Generally. No person, with purpose to defraud, shall issue or transfer or cause to be issued or transferred a check or other negotiable instrument, knowing that it will be dishonored or knowing that a person has ordered or will order stop payment on the check or other negotiable instrument. (C) Presumption of knowledge that instrument will be dishonored. For purposes of this section, a person who issues or transfers a check or other negotiable instrument is presumed to know that it will be dishonored if either of the following occurs: (1) The drawer has no account with the drawee at the time of issue or the stated date, whichever is later. (2) The check or other negotiable instrument was properly refused payment for insufficient funds upon presentment within 30 days after issue or the stated date, whichever is later, and the liability of the drawer, endorser, or any party who may be liable thereon is not discharged by payment or satisfaction within 10 days after receiving notice of dishonor. (D) Failure to comply with R.C. § 1349.16. For purposes of this section, a person who issues or transfers a check, bill of exchange, or other draft is presumed to have the purpose to defraud if the drawer fails to comply with R.C. § 1349.16 by doing any of the following when opening a checking account intended for personal, family, or household purposes at a financial institution: (1) Falsely stating that he or she has not been issued a valid driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card issued under R.C. § 4507.50; (2) Furnishing the license or card, or another identification document that contains false information; (3) Making a false statement with respect to the drawer’s current address or any additional relevant information reasonably required by the financial institution. (E) Court aggregation. In determining the value of the payment for purposes of division (F) of this section, the court may aggregate all checks and other negotiable instruments that the offender issued or transferred or caused to be issued or transferred in violation of division (B) of this section within a period of 180 consecutive days. (F) State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of passing bad checks. Except as otherwise provided in this division, passing bad checks is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the check or checks or other negotiable instrument or instruments are issued or transferred to a single vendor or single other person for the payment of $500 or more, or if the check or checks or other negotiable instrument or instruments are issued or transferred to multiple vendors or persons for the payment of $1,000 or more, passing bad checks is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (R.C. § 2913.11)

§ 131.09 MISUSE OF CREDIT CARDS.

(A) Generally. No person shall do any of the following: (1) Practice deception for the purpose of procuring the issuance of a credit card, when a credit card is issued in actual reliance thereon; (2) Knowingly buy or sell a credit card from or to a person other than the issuer. (B) No person, with purpose to defraud, shall do any of the following. (1) Obtain control over a credit card as security for a debt; (2) Obtain property or services by the use of a credit card, in 1 or more transactions, knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that the card has expired or been revoked, or was obtained, is retained, or is being used in violation of law; (3) Furnish property or services upon presentation of a credit card, knowing that the card is being used in violation of law; (4) Represent or cause to be represented to the issuer of a credit card that property or services have been furnished, knowing that the representation is false. (C) Person not to receive, possess, control credit card. No person, with purpose to violate this section, shall receive, possess, control, or dispose of a credit card. (D) State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of misuse of credit cards. (1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(3) of this section, a violation of division (A), (B)(1), or (C) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division or division (D)(3) of this section, a violation of division (B)(2), (3), or (4) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the cumulative retail value of the property and services involved in 1 or more violations of division (B)(2), (3), or (4) of this section which violations involve 1 or more credit card accounts and occur within a period of 90 consecutive days commencing on the date of the first violation, is $500 or more, misuse of credit cards is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (3) If the victim of the offense is an elderly person or disabled adult, and if the offense involves a violation of division (B)(1) or (B)(2) of this section, misuse of credit cards is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. (R.C. § 2913.21)

§ 131.10 RECEIVING STOLEN PROPERTY.

(A) Generally. No person shall receive, retain, or dispose of property of another knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that the property has been obtained through commission of a theft offense. (B) How property obtained; not a defense. It is not a defense to a charge of receiving stolen property in violation of this section that the property was obtained by means other than through the commission of a theft offense if the property was explicitly represented to the accused person as being obtained through the commission of a theft offense. (C) State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of receiving stolen property. Except as otherwise provided in this division, receiving stolen property is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If any of the following criteria are met, then a violation of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law: (1) The value of the property involved is $500 or more; (2) The property involved is any of the property listed in R.C. § 2913.71; (3) The property involved is a firearm or dangerous ordnance, as defined in R.C. § 2923.11; (4) The property involved is a motor vehicle as defined in R.C. § 4501.01; or (5) The property involved is any dangerous drug, as defined in R.C. § 4729.01. (R.C. § 2913.51)

§ 131.11 INJURING VINES, BUSHES, TREES, OR CROPS.

(A) Generally. No person, without privilege to do so, shall recklessly cut down, destroy, girdle, or otherwise injure a vine, bush, shrub, sapling, tree, or crop standing or growing on the land of another or upon public land. (B) Treble damages. In addition to the penalty provided in division (C) of this section, whoever violates this section is liable in treble damages for the injury caused. (R.C. § 901.51) (C) State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. (R.C. § 901.99(A))

§ 131.12 INJURY TO PROPERTY BY HUNTERS.

(A) Generally. No person in the act of hunting, pursuing, taking, or killing a wild animal shall act in a negligent, careless, or reckless manner so as to injure property. (R.C. § 1533.171(A)) (B) State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. (R.C. § 1533.99(C)) Statutory reference: Violation, license revocation, see R.C. § 1533.171(B) through (E)

§ 131.13 PRESERVATION OF PROPERTY AND NATURAL FEATURES.

(A)  No person in a park shall remove any property, or part thereof from land which is owned, leased, managed, or otherwise controlled by MetroParks without a permit from the Chief Executive Officer or a contract with MetroParks for those services. It is permissible to remove non-living, natural objects from a park in a quantity that an individual can easily hold in one hand. (B)  No person shall modify, injure, deface, destroy, or disturb property on land which is owned, leased, managed, or otherwise controlled by MetroParks including, but not limited to any building, sign, equipment, any animal, tree, shrub, or other vegetation, including flower, fruit or seed thereof, or soil,  rock or mineral without a permit from the Chief Executive Officer or a contract with MetroParks for those services. (C)  No person in a park shall affix temporary or permanent hardware to any natural feature without a permit.

§ 131.14 WASTE MATERIALS AND LITTER.

(A) No person, without the specific written consent of the Director, shall bring into, leave behind, or dump any material of any kind in a park except the refuse, ashes, garbage, and other material of a picnic, camp, or other permitted activity, provided that such material shall be deposited in receptacles or pits provided for such purposes. (B) No person shall, either within or outside of a park, place or permit to be placed in any river, brook, stream, ditch, or drain that flows into or through park lands, any hazardous, noxious or deleterious materials which may render park waters harmful or inimical to the public health, or to animal, vegetative, or aquatic life, or which may prevent, limit, or interfere with the use of such waters for domestic, industrial, or agricultural purposes, or which may lessen to an unreasonable degree the use and enjoyment of such waters for recreational or other park uses. (C) No operator or occupant of a motor vehicle shall, regardless of intent, throw, drop, discard or deposit litter from any motor vehicle in operation upon any park land, except into a roadside litter receptacle. (Rules and Regs. § 4) Penalty, see § 130.99

§ 131.15 (RESERVED)

Cross-reference: Regulations for permits for use of MetroParks, see Chapter 94

§ 131.16 ALL-PURPOSE VEHICLES, METAL DETECTORS.

No person in a park shall operate an all-purpose vehicle as defined in R.C. § 4519.01, utility vehicle, golf cart, hover craft, or metal detector. No person shall operate an electric transportation device, skateboard, roller skates, in-line skates, or similar wheeled, self-propelled device on other than bikeways. (Rules and Regs. § 18.1) (Amendment approved 3-13-2009) Penalty, see § 130.99

§ 131.17 SNOWMOBILING, SLEDDING, SKIING AND ICE SKATING.

No person in a park shall operate a snowmobile or engage in sledding, downhill skiing or ice skating except in areas and at times designated by the Chief Executive Officer. Cross country skiing is permitted on trials, paths, bikeways and mowed areas. (Rules and Regs. § 18.2) Penalty, see § 130.99

§ 131.18 SWIMMING, BATHING, ENTERING PARK WATERS.

No person shall swim in any park waters or water park features unless otherwise posted. (Rules and Regs. § 18.3) Penalty, see § 130.99

§ 131.19 MODEL TOYS.

No person in a park shall operate any engine powered, including electrical engine, model or toy airplane, boat, car, siren or any other noise making device except in areas and at times designated by the Chief Executive Officer. (Rules and Regs. § 18.4) Penalty, see § 130.99

§ 131.20 AEROSOL PAINT CANS.

No person in a park shall carry on or about his or her person a container capable of propelling paint by means of a gaseous charge. (Rules and Regs. § 18.5) Penalty, see § 130.99

§ 131.21 OPERATING GASOLINE-POWERED OR FULL-SIZED VEHICLES ON TRAILS DESIGNATED FOR WALKING OR BIKING.

No person shall operate either a gasoline-powered vehicle or any full-sized automobile, truck or other vehicle required to be licensed for road use, including but not limited to all-purpose vehicle, utility vehicle, golf cart, or motorcycle on any paved or natural surface trail designed for walking or cycling with the exception of uses as defined by the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). Motorized wheelchairs or other power-driven mobility devices in use as defined by the ADA are permitted (except as set forth below) but must maintain a maximum 15 mile-per-hour speed or, when in the vicinity of pedestrians, the speed of the pedestrian traffic. Due to safety concerns relating to the width of paved or natural surface trails designed for walking or biking, power-driven mobility devices otherwise authorized by the ADA shall not include full-sized automobiles, trucks or similar full-sized vehicles required to be licensed for road use. Tours conducted via single occupant, or other-powered, personal transportation devices are prohibited without a permit. (Rules and Regs. § 18.6) Penalty, see § 130.99

§ 131.22  ARSON; DETERMINING PROPERTY VALUE OR AMOUNT OF PHYSICAL HARM.

(A)  No person, by means of fire or explosion, shall knowingly do any of the following:

(1)   Cause, or create a substantial risk of, physical harm to any property of another without the other person’s consent;

(2)   Cause, or create a substantial risk of, physical harm to any property of the offender or another, with purpose to defraud;

(3)   Cause, or create a substantial risk of, physical harm to the statehouse or a courthouse, school building, or other building or structure that is owned or controlled by the state, any political subdivision, or any department, agency, or instrumentality of the state or a political subdivision, and that is used for public purposes;

(4)   Cause, or create a substantial risk of, physical harm, through the offer or the acceptance of an agreement for hire or other consideration, to any property of another without the other person’s consent or to any property of the offender or another with purpose to defraud;

(5)   Cause, or create a substantial risk of, physical harm to any park, preserve, wildlands, brush-covered land, cut-over land, forest, timberland, greenlands, woods, or similar real property that is owned or controlled by another person, the state, or a political subdivision without the consent of the other person, the state, or the political subdivision; and/or

(6)   With purpose to defraud, cause, or create a substantial risk of, physical harm to any park, preserve, wildlands, brush-covered land, cut-over land, forest, timberland, greenlands, woods, or similar real property that is owned or controlled by the offender, another person, the state, or a political subdivision.

(B)  No person, by means of fire or explosion, shall knowingly do any of the following:

(1)   Cause, or create a substantial risk of, physical harm to any structure of another that is not an occupied structure;

(2)   Cause, or create a substantial risk of, physical harm, through the offer or the acceptance of an agreement for hire or other consideration, to any structure of another that is not an occupied structure;

(3)   Cause, or create a substantial risk of, physical harm to any structure that is not an occupied structure and that is in or on any park, preserve, wildlands, brush-covered land, cut-over land, forest, timberland, greenlands, woods, or similar real property that is owned or controlled by another person, the state, or a political subdivision.

(C)  (1)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (B)(1) or (B)(2) of this section that the defendant acted with the consent of the other person.

(2)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (B)(3) of this section that the defendant acted with the consent of the other person, the state, or the political subdivision.

(D)  (1)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of arson.

(2)   A violation of division (A)(1) or (B)(1) of this section is one of the following:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, a misdemeanor of the first degree;

(b)   If the value of the property or the amount of the physical harm involved is $1,000 or more, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   A violation of division (A)(2), (A)(3), (A)(4), (A)(5), (A)(6), (B)(2) or (B)(3) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2909.03)

(E)  Determining property value or amount of physical harm.

(1)   The following criteria shall be used in determining the value of property or amount of physical harm involved in a violation of division (A)(1) or (B)(1) of this section:

(a)   If the property is an heirloom, memento, collector’s item, antique, museum piece, manuscript, document, record, or other thing that is either irreplaceable or is replaceable only on the expenditure of substantial time, effort, or money, the value of the property or the amount of physical harm involved is the amount that would compensate the owner for its loss.

(b)   If the property is not covered under division (B)(1)(a) of this section, and the physical harm is such that the property can be restored substantially to its former condition, the amount of physical harm involved is the reasonable cost of restoring the property.

(c)   If the property is not covered under division (B)(1)(a) of this section, and the physical harm is such that the property cannot be restored substantially to its former condition, the value of the property, in the case of personal property, is the cost of replacing the property with new property of like kind and quality, and in the case of real property or real property fixtures, is the difference in the fair market value of the property immediately before and immediately after the offense.

(2)   As used in this section, FAIR MARKET VALUE has the same meaning as in R.C. §2913.61.

(3)   Prima facie evidence of the value of property, as provided in R.C. §2913.61(D), may be used to establish the value of property pursuant to this section.

(R.C. §2909.11(B) – (D))

Statutory reference:

Aggravated arson, felony offense, see R.C. § 2909.02

Arson offender registration, see R.C. §§ 2909.13, 2909.14 and 2909.15

Convicted arsonist to make restitution to public agency, see R.C. § 2929.71

§ 131.23  DAMAGING OR ENDANGERING AIRCRAFT OR AIRPORT OPERATIONS.

(A)  As used in this section:

AIR GUN. Means a hand pistol or rifle that propels its projectile by means of releasing compressed air, carbon dioxide, or other gas.

AIRPORT OPERATIONAL SURFACE. Means any surface of land or water that is developed, posted, or marked so as to give an observer reasonable notice that the surface is designed and developed for the purpose of storing, parking, taxiing, or operating aircraft, or any surface of land or water that is actually being used for any of those purposes.

FIREARM. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2923.11.

SPRING-OPERATED GUN. Means a hand pistol or rifle that propels a projectile not less than four or more than five millimeters in diameter by means of a spring.

(B)  No person shall do either of the following:

(1)   Knowingly throw an object at, or drop an object upon, any moving aircraft.

(2)   Knowingly shoot with a bow and arrow, or knowingly discharge a firearm, air gun, or spring-operated gun, at or toward any aircraft.

(C)  No person shall knowingly or recklessly shoot with a bow and arrow, or shall knowingly or recklessly discharge a firearm, air gun, or spring-operated gun, upon or over any airport operational surface. This division does not apply to the following:

(1)   An officer, agent, or employee of this or any other state or of the United States, or a law enforcement officer, authorized to discharge firearms and acting within the scope of his or her duties.

(2)   A person who, with the consent of the owner or operator of the airport operational surface or the authorized agent of either, is lawfully engaged in any hunting or sporting activity or is otherwise lawfully discharging a firearm.

(D)  Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of endangering aircraft, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the violation creates any risk of physical harm to any person, or if the aircraft that is the subject of the violation is occupied, endangering aircraft is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(E)  Whoever violates division (C) of this section is guilty of endangering airport operations, a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the violation creates a risk of physical harm to any person or substantial risk of serious harm to any person, endangering airport operations is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. In addition to any other penalty or sanction imposed for the violation, the hunting license or permit of a person who violates division (C) of this section while hunting shall be suspended or revoked pursuant to R.C. §1533.68.

(R.C. §2909.08(A) – (E))

§ 131.24  MAKING OR USING SLUGS.

(A)  No person shall do any of the following:

(1)   Insert or deposit a slug in a coin machine, with purpose to defraud;

(2)   Make, possess, or dispose of a slug, with purpose of enabling another to defraud by inserting or depositing it in a coin machine.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of making or using slugs, a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(R.C. §2913.33)

§ 131.25  PRIMA FACIE EVIDENCE OF PURPOSE TO DEFRAUD.

In a prosecution of a person for a theft offense that alleges that the person, with purpose to defraud or knowing that he or she was facilitating a fraud, hired or rented an aircraft, motor vehicle, motorcycle, motorboat, sailboat, camper, trailer, horse, buggy, or other property or equipment, kept or operated any of the same that has been hired or rented, or engaged accommodations at a hotel, motel, inn, campground, or other hostelry, it is prima facie evidence of purpose to defraud if the person did any of the following:

(A)  Used deception to induce the rental agency to furnish the person with the aircraft, motor vehicle, motorcycle, motorboat, sailboat, camper, trailer, horse, buggy, or other property or equipment, or used deception to induce the hostelry to furnish the person with accommodations;

(B)  Hired or rented any aircraft, motor vehicle, motorcycle, motorboat, sailboat, camper, trailer, horse, buggy, or other property or equipment, or engaged accommodations, knowing that he or she is without sufficient means to pay the hire or rental;

(C)  Absconded without paying the hire or rental;

(D)  Knowingly failed to pay the hire or rental as required by the contract of hire or rental, without reasonable excuse for the failure;

(E)  Knowingly failed to return hired or rented property as required by the contract of hire or rental, without reasonable excuse for the failure.

(R.C. §2913.41)

§ 131.26  TAMPERING WITH RECORDS.

(A)  No person, knowing that he or she has no privilege to do so, and with purpose to defraud or knowing that he or she is facilitating a fraud, shall do any of the following:

(1)   Falsify, destroy, remove, conceal, alter, deface, or mutilate any writing, computer software, data, or record;

(2)   Utter any writing or record, knowing it to have been tampered with as provided in division (A)(1) of this section.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of tampering with records.

(1)   Except as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, if the offense does not involve data or computer software, tampering with records is whichever of the following is applicable:

(a)   If division (B)(1)(b) of this section does not apply, it is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(b)   If the writing or record is a will unrevoked at the time of the offense, it is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   Except as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, if the offense involves a violation of division (A) of this section involving data or computer software, tampering with records is whichever of the following is applicable:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this section, it is a misdemeanor of the first degree;

(b)   If the value of the data or computer software involved in the offense or the loss to the victim is $1,000 or more or if the offense is committed for the purpose of devising or executing a scheme to defraud or to obtain property or services and the value of the property or services or the loss to the victim is $7,500 or more, it is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   If the writing, data, computer software, or record is kept by or belongs to a local, state, or federal governmental entity, it is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2913.42)

§ 131.27  SECURING WRITINGS BY DECEPTION.

(A)  No person, by deception, shall cause another to execute any writing that disposes of or encumbers property, or by which a pecuniary obligation is incurred.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of securing writings by deception. Except as otherwise provided in this division, securing writings by deception is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the property or the obligation involved is $1,000 or more, securing writings by deception is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate to state law. If the victim of the offense is an elderly person, disabled adult, active duty service member, or spouse of an active duty service member, securing writings by deception is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2913.43)

§ 131.28  DEFRAUDING CREDITORS.

(A)  No person, with purpose to defraud one or more of his or her creditors, shall do any of the following:

(1)   Remove, conceal, destroy, encumber, convey, or otherwise deal with any of his or her property;

(2)   Misrepresent or refuse to disclose to a fiduciary appointed to administer or manage his or her affairs or estate, the existence, amount, or location of any of his or her property, or any other information regarding the property which he or she is legally required to furnish to the fiduciary.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of defrauding creditors. Except as otherwise provided in this division, defrauding creditors is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the property involved is $1,000 or more, defrauding creditors is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2913.45)

§ 131.29  VALUE OF STOLEN PROPERTY.

(A)  If more than one item of property or services is involved in a theft offense or in a violation of R.C. §1716.14(A) involving a victim who is an elderly person or disabled adult, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, the value of the property or services involved for the purpose of determining the value as required by R.C. §2913.61(A) is the aggregate value of all property or services involved in the offense.

(B)  (1)   When a series of offenses under R.C. §2913.02, or a series of violations of, attempts to commit a violation of, conspiracies to violate, or complicity in violations of R.C. §1716.14(A), R.C. §2913.02, 2913.03, or 2913.04, R.C. §2913.21(B)(1) or (B)(2), or R.C. §2913.31 or 2913.43 involving a victim who is an elderly person or disabled adult, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance to any of these offenses, is committed by the offender in the offender’s same employment, capacity, or relationship to another, all of those offenses shall be tried as a single offense. When a series of offenses under R.C. §2913.02, or a series of violations of, attempts to commit a violation of, conspiracies to violate, or complicity in violations of R.C. §2913.02 or 2913.43 involving a victim who is an active duty service member or spouse of an active duty service member, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance to any of these offenses, is committed by the offender in the offender’s same employment, capacity, or relationship to another, all of those offenses shall be tried as a single offense. The value of the property or services involved in the series of offenses for the purpose of determining the value as required by R.C. §2913.61(A) is the aggregate value of all property and services involved in all offenses in the series.

(2)   If an offender commits a series of offenses under R.C. §2913.02 that involves a common course of conduct to defraud multiple victims, all of the offenses may be tried as a single offense. If an offender is being tried for the commission of a series of violations of, attempts to commit a violation of, conspiracies to violate, or complicity in violations of R.C. §1716.14(A), R.C. §2913.02, 2913.03, or 2913.04, R.C. §2913.21(B)(1) or (B)(2), or R.C. §2913.31 or 2913.43, whether committed against one victim or more than one victim, involving a victim who is an elderly person or disabled adult, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance to any of these offenses, pursuant to a scheme or course of conduct, all of those offenses may be tried as a single offense. If an offender is being tried for the commission of a series of violations of, attempts to commit a violation of, conspiracies to violate, or complicity in violations of R.C. §2913.02 or 2913.43, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance to any of these offenses, whether committed against one victim or more than one victim, involving a victim who is an active duty service member or spouse of an active duty service member pursuant to a scheme or course of conduct, all of those offenses may be tried as a single offense. If the offenses are tried as a single offense, the value of the property or services involved for the purpose of determining the value as required by R.C. §2913.61(A) is the aggregate value of all property and services involved in all of the offenses in the course of conduct.

(3)   When a series of two or more offenses under R.C. §2913.40, 2913.48, or 2921.41 is committed by the offender in the offender’s same employment, capacity, or relationship to another, all of those offenses may be tried as a single offense. If the offenses are tried as a single offense, the value of the property or services involved for the purpose of determining the value as required by R.C. §2913.61(A) is the aggregate value of all property and services involved in all of the offenses in the series of two or more offenses.

(4)   In prosecuting a single offense under division (B)(1), (B)(2) or (B)(3) of this section, it is not necessary to separately allege and prove each offense in the series. Rather, it is sufficient to allege and prove that the offender, within a given span of time, committed one or more theft offenses or violations of R.C. §2913.40, 2913.48, or 2921.41 in the offender’s same employment, capacity, or relationship to another as described in division (B)(1) or (B)(3) of this section, or committed one or more theft offenses that involve a common course of conduct to defraud multiple victims or a scheme or course of conduct as described in division (B)(2) of this section. While it is not necessary to separately allege and prove each offense in the series in order to prosecute a single offense under division (B)(1), (B)(2), or (B)(3) of this section, it remains necessary in prosecuting them as a single offense to prove the aggregate value of the property or services in order to meet the requisite statutory offense level sought by the prosecution.

(C)  The following criteria shall be used in determining the value of property or services involved in a theft offense:

(1)   The value of an heirloom, memento, collector’s item, antique, museum piece, manuscript, document, record, or other thing that has intrinsic worth to its owner and that either is irreplaceable or is replaceable only on the expenditure of substantial time, effort, or money, is the amount which would compensate the owner for its loss.

(2)   The value of personal effects and household goods, and of materials, supplies, equipment, and fixtures used in the profession, business, trade, occupation, or avocation of its owner, which property is not covered under division (C)(1) of this section, and which retains substantial utility for its purpose regardless of its age or condition, is the cost of replacing such property with new property of like kind and quality.

(3)   The value of any real or personal property that is not covered under division (C)(1) or (C)(2) of this section, and the value of services, is the fair market value of the property or services. As used in this section, FAIR MARKET VALUE is the money consideration which a buyer would give and a seller would accept for property or services, assuming that the buyer is willing to buy and the seller is willing to sell, that both are fully informed as to all facts material to the transaction, and that neither is under any compulsion to act.

(D)  Without limitation on the evidence which may be used to establish the value of property or services involved in a theft offense:

(1)   When the property involved is personal property held for sale at wholesale or retail, the price at which the property was held for sale is prima facie evidence of its value.

(2)   When the property involved is a security or commodity traded on an exchange, the closing price or, if there is no closing price, the asked price, given in the latest marked quotation prior to the offense, is prima facie evidence of the value of the security or commodity.

(3)   When the property involved is livestock, poultry, or raw agricultural products for which a local market price is available, the latest local market price prior to the offense is prima facie evidence of the value of the livestock, poultry, or products.

(4)   When the property involved is a negotiable instrument, the face value is prima facie evidence of the value of the instrument.

(5)   When the property involved is a warehouse receipt, bill of lading, pawn ticket, claim check, or other instrument entitling the holder or bearer to receive property, the face value or, if there is no face value, the value of the property covered by the instrument less any payment necessary to receive the property, is prima facie evidence of the value of the instrument.

(6)   When the property involved is a ticket of admission, ticket for transportation, coupon, token, or other instrument entitling the holder or bearer to receive property or services, the face value or, if there is no face value, the value of the property or services which may be received by the instrument is prima facie evidence of the value of the instrument.

(7)   When the services involved are gas, electricity, water, telephone, transportation, shipping, or other services for which the rate is established by law, the duly established rate is prima facie evidence of the value of the services.

(8)   When the services involved are services for which the rate is not established by law, and the offender has been notified prior to the offense of the rate for the services, either in writing, or orally, or by posting in a manner reasonably calculated to come to the attention of potential offenders, the rate contained in the notice is prima facie evidence of the value of the services.

(R.C. §2913.61(B) – (E))

§ 131.30  DEGREE OF OFFENSE WHEN CERTAIN PROPERTY INVOLVED.

Regardless of the value of the property involved, and regardless of whether the offender previously has been convicted of a theft offense, a violation of §131.06 or §131.11 is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law if the property involved is any of the following:

(A)  A credit card;

(B)  A printed form for a check or other negotiable instrument, that on its face identifies the drawer or maker for whose use it is designed or identifies the account on which it is to be drawn, and that has not been executed by the drawer or maker or on which the amount is blank;

(C)  A motor vehicle identification license plate as prescribed by R.C. §4503.22, a temporary motor vehicle license registration as prescribed by R.C. §4503.182, or any comparable temporary motor vehicle license registration as prescribed by the applicable law of another state or the United States;

(D)  A blank form for a certificate of title or a manufacturer’s or importer’s certificate to a motor vehicle, as prescribed by R.C. §4505.07;

(E)  A blank form for any license listed in R.C. §4507.01.

(R.C. §2913.71)

§ 131.31  DETENTION AND ARREST OF SHOPLIFTERS AND THOSE COMMITTING MOTION PICTURE PIRACY; PROTECTION OF INSTITUTIONAL PROPERTY.

(A)  As used in this section:

ARCHIVAL INSTITUTION. Means any public or private building, structure, or shelter in which are stored historical documents, devices, records, manuscripts, or items of public interest, which historical materials are stored to preserve the materials or the information in the materials, to disseminate the information contained in the materials, or to make the materials available for public inspection or for inspection by certain persons who have a particular interest in, use for, or knowledge concerning the materials.

AUDIOVISUAL RECORDING FUNCTION. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2913.07.

FACILITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2913.07.

MUSEUM. Means any public or private nonprofit institution that is permanently organized for primarily educational or aesthetic purposes, owns or borrows objects or items of public interest, and cares for and exhibits to the public the objects or items.

PRETRIAL DIVERSION PROGRAM. Means a rehabilitative, educational program designed to reduce recidivism and promote personal responsibility that is at least four hours in length and that has been approved by any court in this state.

(B)  A merchant, or an employee or agent of a merchant, who has probable cause to believe that things offered for sale by a mercantile establishment have been unlawfully taken by a person, may, for the purposes set forth in division (D) below, detain the person in a reasonable manner for a reasonable length of time within the mercantile establishment or its immediate vicinity.

(C)  Any officer, employee, or agent of a library, museum, or archival institution may, for the purposes set forth in division (D) below or for the purpose of conducting a reasonable investigation of a belief that the person has acted in a manner described in divisions (C)(1) and (C)(2) below, detain a person in a reasonable manner for a reasonable length of time within, or in the immediate vicinity of, the library, museum, or archival institution, if the officer, employee, or agent has probable cause to believe that the person has:

(1)   Without privilege to do so, knowingly moved, defaced, damaged, destroyed, or otherwise improperly tampered with property owned by or in the custody of the library, museum, or archival institution; or

(2)   With purpose to deprive the library, museum, or archival institution of property owned by it or in its custody, knowingly obtained or exerted control over the property without the consent of the owner or person authorized to give consent, beyond the scope of the express or implied consent of the owner or person authorized to give consent, by deception, or by threat.

(D)  An officer, agent, or employee of a library, museum, or archival institution pursuant to division (C) above or a merchant or an employee or agent of a merchant pursuant to division (B) above may detain another person for any of the following purposes:

(1)   To recover the property that is the subject of the unlawful taking, criminal mischief, or theft;

(2)   To cause an arrest to be made by a peace officer;

(3)   To obtain a warrant of arrest;

(4)   To offer the person, if the person is suspected of the unlawful taking, criminal mischief, or theft and notwithstanding any other provision of this Code or the Ohio Revised Code, an opportunity to complete a pretrial diversion program and to inform the person of the other legal remedies available to the library, museum, archival institution, or merchant.

(E)  The owner or lessee of a facility in which a motion picture is being shown, or the owner’s or lessee’s employee or agent, who has probable cause to believe that a person is or has been operating an audiovisual recording function of a device in violation of R.C. §2917.07 may, for the purpose of causing an arrest to be made by a peace officer or of obtaining an arrest warrant, detain the person in a reasonable manner for a reasonable length of time within the facility or its immediate vicinity.

(F)   The officer, agent, or employee of the library, museum, or archival institution, the merchant or an employee or agent of a merchant, or the owner, lessee, employee, or agent of the facility acting under divisions (B), (C) or (E) above shall not search the person detained, search or seize any property belonging to the person detained without the person’s consent, or use undue restraint upon the person detained.

(G)  Any peace officer may arrest without a warrant any person that the officer has probable cause to believe has committed any act described in divisions (C)(1) or (C)(2) above, that the officer has probable cause to believe has committed an unlawful taking in a mercantile establishment, or that the officer has reasonable cause to believe has committed an act prohibited by R.C. §2913.07. An arrest under this division shall be made within a reasonable time after the commission of the act or unlawful taking.

(R.C. §2935.041)

Statutory reference:

Arrest without a warrant generally, see R.C. § 2935.03

Probable cause, see R.C. § 2933.22

§ 131.32  INSURANCE FRAUD; WORKERS COMPENSATION FRAUD; MEDICAID FRAUD.

(A)  Insurance fraud.

(1)   No person, with purpose to defraud or knowing that the person is facilitating a fraud, shall do either of the following:

(a)   Present to, or cause to be presented to, an insurer any written or oral statement that is part of, or in support of, an application for insurance, a claim for payment pursuant to a policy, or a claim for any other benefit pursuant to a policy, knowing that the statement, or any part of the statement, is false or deceptive;

(b)   Assist, aid, abet, solicit, procure, or conspire with another to prepare or make any written or oral statement that is intended to be presented to an insurer as part of, or in support of, an application for insurance, a claim for payment pursuant to a policy, or a claim for any other benefit pursuant to a policy, knowing that the statement, or any part of the statement, is false or deceptive.

(2)   Whoever violates this division (A) is guilty of insurance fraud. Except as otherwise provided in this division, insurance fraud is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the amount of the claim that is false or deceptive is $1,000 or more, insurance fraud is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   This division (A) shall not be construed to abrogate, waive, or modify R.C. §2317.02(A).

(4)   As used in this division (A):

DATA. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2913.01 and additionally includes any other representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions that are being or have been prepared in a formalized manner.

DECEPTIVE. Means that a statement, in whole or in part, would cause another to be deceived because it contains a misleading representation, withholds information, prevents the acquisition of information, or by any other conduct, act, or omission creates, confirms, or perpetuates a false impression, including but not limited to a false impression as to law, value, state of mind, or other objective or subjective fact.

INSURER. Means any person that is authorized to engage in the business of insurance in this state under R.C. Title 39, the Ohio Fair Plan Underwriting Association created under R.C. §3929.43, any health insuring corporation, and any legal entity that is self-insured and provides benefits to its employees or members.

POLICY. Means a policy, certificate, contract, or plan that is issued by an insurer.

STATEMENT. Includes but is not limited to any notice, letter, or memorandum; proof of loss; bill of lading; receipt for payment; invoice, account, or other financial statement; estimate of property damage; bill for services; diagnosis or prognosis; prescription; hospital, medical, or dental chart or other record; x-ray, photograph, videotape, or movie film; test result; other evidence of loss, injury, or expense; computer-generated document; and data in any form.

(R.C. §2913.47)

(B)  Workers compensation fraud.

(1)   No person, with purpose to defraud or knowing that the person is facilitating a fraud shall do any of the following:

(a)   Receive workers’ compensation benefits to which the person is not entitled;

(b)   Make or present or cause to be made or presented a false or misleading statement with the purpose to secure payment for goods or services rendered under R.C. Chapter 4121, 4123, 4127, or 4131 or to secure workers’ compensation benefits;

(c)   Alter, falsify, destroy, conceal, or remove any record or document that is necessary to fully establish the validity of any claim filed with, or necessary to establish the nature and validity of all goods and services for which reimbursement or payment was received or is requested from the Bureau of Workers’ Compensation, or a self-insuring employer under R.C. Chapter 4121, 4123, 4127, or 4131;

(d)   Enter into an agreement or conspiracy to defraud the Bureau of Workers’ Compensation or a self-insuring employer by making or presenting or causing to be made or presented a false claim for workers’ compensation benefits;

(e)   Make or present or cause to be made or presented a false statement concerning manual codes, classification or employees, payroll, paid compensation, or number of personnel, when information of that nature is necessary to determine the actual workers’ compensation premium or assessment owed to the Bureau by an employer;

(f)   Alter, forge, or create a workers’ compensation certificate or falsely show current or correct workers’ compensation coverage;

(g)   Fail to secure or maintain workers’ compensation coverage as required by R.C. Chapter 4123 with the intent to defraud the Bureau of Workers’ Compensation.

(2)   Whoever violates this division (B) is guilty of workers’ compensation fraud. Except as otherwise provided in this division, workers’ compensation fraud is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of premiums and assessments unpaid pursuant to actions described in divisions (B)(1)(e), (B)(1)(f), or (B)(1)(g) of this section, or goods, services, property, or money stolen is $1,000 or more, workers’ compensation fraud is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   Upon application of the governmental body that conducted the investigation and prosecution of a violation of this division (B), the court shall order the person who is convicted of the violation to pay the governmental body its costs of investigating and prosecuting the case. These costs are in addition to any other costs or penalty provided under federal, state or local law.

(4)   The remedies and penalties provided in this division (B) are not exclusive remedies and penalties and do not preclude the use of any other criminal or civil remedy or penalty for any act that is in violation of this division (B).

(5)   As used in this division (B):

CLAIM. Means any attempt to cause the Bureau of Workers’ Compensation, an independent third party with whom the administrator or an employer contracts under R.C. §4121.44, or a self-insuring employer to make payment or reimbursement for workers’ compensation benefits.

EMPLOYEE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4123.01.

EMPLOYER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4123.01.

EMPLOYMENT. Means participating in any trade, occupation, business, service, or profession for substantial gainful remuneration.

FALSE. Means wholly or partially untrue or deceptive.

GOODS. Includes but is not limited to medical supplies, appliances, rehabilitative equipment, and any other apparatus or furnishing provided or used in the care, treatment, or rehabilitation of a claimant for workers’ compensation benefits.

RECORDS. Means any medical, professional, financial, or business record relating to the treatment or care of any person, to goods or services provided to any person, or to rates paid for goods or services provided to any person, or any record that the administrator of workers’ compensation requires pursuant to rule.

REMUNERATION. Includes but is not limited to wages, commissions, rebates, and any other reward or consideration.

SELF-INSURING EMPLOYER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4123.01.

SERVICES. Includes but is not limited to any service provided by any health care provider to a claimant for workers’ compensation benefits and any and all services provided by the Bureau as part of workers’ compensation insurance coverage.

STATEMENT. Includes but is not limited to any oral, written, electronic, electronic impulse, or magnetic communication notice, letter, memorandum, receipt for payment, invoice, account, financial statement, or bill for services; a diagnosis, prognosis, prescription, hospital, medical, or dental chart or other record; and a computer generated document.

WORKERS COMPENSATION BENEFITS. Means any compensation or benefits payable under R.C. Chapter 4121, 4123, 4127, or 4131.

(R.C. §2913.48)

(C)  Medicaid fraud.

(1)   No person shall knowingly make or cause to be made a false or misleading statement or representation for use in obtaining reimbursement from the Medicaid program.

(2)   No person, with purpose to commit fraud or knowing that the person is facilitating a fraud, shall do either of the following:

(a)   Contrary to the terms of the person’s provider agreement, charge, solicit, accept or receive for goods or services that the person provides under the Medicaid program any property, money or other consideration in addition to the amount of reimbursement under the Medicaid program and the person’s provider agreement for the goods or services and any cost-sharing expenses authorized by R.C. §5162.20 or rules adopted by the Medicaid Director regarding the Medicaid program.

(b)   Solicit, offer or receive any remuneration, other than any cost-sharing expenses authorized by R.C. §5162.20 or rules adopted by the Medicaid Director regarding the Medicaid program, in cash or in kind, including but not limited to a kickback or rebate, in connection with the furnishing of goods or services for which whole or partial reimbursement is or may be made under the Medicaid program.

(3)   No person, having submitted a claim for or provided goods or services under the Medicaid program, shall do either of the following for a period of at least six years after a reimbursement pursuant to that claim, or a reimbursement for those goods or services, is received under the Medicaid program:

(a)   Knowingly alter, falsify, destroy, conceal or remove any records that are necessary to fully disclose the nature of all goods or services for which the claim was submitted, or for which reimbursement was received, by the person; or

(b)   Knowingly alter, falsify, destroy, conceal or remove any records that are necessary to disclose fully all income and expenditures upon which rates of reimbursements were based for the person.

(4)   Whoever violates this division (C) is guilty of Medicaid fraud. Except as otherwise provided in this division, Medicaid fraud is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the property, services or funds obtained in violation of this section is $1,000 or more, Medicaid fraud is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate State law.

(5)   Upon application of the governmental agency, office or other entity that conducted the investigation and prosecution in a case under this section, the court shall order any person who is convicted of a violation of this section for receiving any reimbursement for furnishing goods or services under the Medicaid program to which the person is not entitled to pay to the applicant its cost of investigating and prosecuting the case. The costs of investigation and prosecution that a defendant is ordered to pay pursuant to this division shall be in addition to any other penalties for the receipt of that reimbursement that are provided in this section, R.C. §2913.40 or 5164.35, or any other provision of law.

(6)   The provisions of this section are not intended to be exclusive remedies and do not preclude the use of any other criminal or civil remedy for any act that is in violation of this section.

(7)   As used in this division (C):

PROVIDER. Means any person who has signed a provider agreement with the Department of Medicaid to provide goods or services pursuant to the Medicaid program or any person who has signed an agreement with a party to such a provider agreement under which the person agrees to provide goods or services that are reimbursable under the Medicaid program.

PROVIDER AGREEMENT. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5164.01.

RECIPIENT. Means any individual who receives goods or services from a provider under the Medicaid program.

RECORDS. Means any medical, professional, financial or business records relating to the treatment or care of any recipient, to goods or services provided to any recipient, or to rates paid for goods or services provided to any recipient, and any records that are required by the rules of the Medicaid Director to be kept for the Medicaid program.

STATEMENT or REPRESENTATION. Means any oral, written, electronic, electronic impulse or magnetic communication that is used to identify an item of goods or a service for which reimbursement may be made under the Medicaid program or that states income and expense and is or may be used to determine a rate of reimbursement under the Medicaid program.

(R.C. §2913.40)

(D)  Medicaid eligibility fraud.

(1)   No person shall knowingly do any of the following in an application for enrollment in the Medicaid program or in a document that requires a disclosure of assets for the purpose of determining eligibility for the Medicaid program:

(a)   Make or cause to be made a false or misleading statement;

(b)   Conceal an interest in property;

(c) 1.      Except as provided in division (D)(1)(c)2. of this section, fail to disclose a transfer of property that occurred during the period beginning 36 months before submission of the application or document and ending on the date the application or document was submitted;

  1. Fail to disclose a transfer of property that occurred during the period beginning 60 months before submission of the application or document and ending on the date the application or document was submitted and that was made to an irrevocable trust a portion of which is not distributable to the applicant for or recipient of Medicaid or to a revocable trust.

(2)   (a)   Whoever violates this division (D) is guilty of Medicaid eligibility fraud. Except as otherwise provided in this division, a violation of this division (D) is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the Medicaid services paid as a result of the violation is $1,000 or more, a violation of this division (D) is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(b)   In addition to imposing a sentence under division (D)(2)(a) of this section, the court shall order that a person who is guilty of Medicaid eligibility fraud make restitution in the full amount of any Medicaid services paid on behalf of an applicant for or recipient of Medicaid for which the applicant or recipient was not eligible, plus interest at the rate applicable to judgments on unreimbursed amounts from the date on which the Medicaid services were paid to the date on which restitution is made.

(c)   The remedies and penalties provided in this division (D) are not exclusive and do not preclude the use of any other criminal or civil remedy for any act that is in violation of this division (D).

(3)   This division (D) does not apply to a person who fully disclosed in an application for Medicaid or in a document that requires a disclosure of assets for the purpose of determining eligibility for Medicaid all of the interests in property of the applicant for or recipient of Medicaid, all transfers of property by the applicant for or recipient of Medicaid, and the circumstances of all those transfers.

(4)   Any amounts of Medicaid services recovered as restitution under this division (D) and any interest on those amounts shall be credited to the General Revenue Fund, and any applicable federal share shall be returned to the appropriate agency or department of the United States.

(5)   As used in this division (D):

MEDICAID SERVICES. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5164.01.

PROPERTY. Means any real or personal property or other asset in which a person has any legal title or interest.

(R.C. §2913.401)

§ 131.33  EVIDENCE OF INTENT TO COMMIT THEFT OF RENTED PROPERTY OR RENTAL SERVICES; EVIDENCE OF LACK OF CAPACITY TO CONSENT.

(A)  Evidence of intent to commit theft of rented property or rental services.

(1)   As used in this division (A):

RENTER. Means a person who owns rented property.

RENTEE. Means a person who pays consideration to a renter for the use of rented property.

(2)   Each of the following shall be considered evidence of intent to commit theft of rented property or rental services:

(a)   At the time of entering into the rental contract, the rentee presented the renter with identification that was materially false, fictitious, or not current with respect to name, address, place of employment, or other relevant information.

(b)   After receiving a notice demanding the return of the rented property as provided in division (A)(3) of this section, the rentee neither returned the rented property nor made arrangements acceptable with the renter to return the rented property.

(3)   To establish that a rentee has an intent to commit theft of rented property or rental services under division (A)(2)(b) above, a renter may issue a notice to a rentee demanding the return of the rented property. The renter shall mail the notice by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the rentee at the address the rentee gave when the rental contract was executed, or to the rentee at the last address the rentee or the rentee’s agent furnished in writing to the renter.

(4)   A demand for the return of the rented property is not a prerequisite for the prosecution of a rentee for theft of rented property or rental services. The evidence specified in division (A)(2) above does not constitute the only evidence that may be considered as evidence of intent to commit theft of rented property or rental services.

(R.C. §2913.72)

(B)  Evidence of lack of capacity to consent.

(1)   In a prosecution for any alleged violation of §131.08 through 131.20, 131.23, 131.25 through 131.29, or 132.11, if the lack of consent of the victim is an element of the provision that allegedly was violated, evidence that, at the time of the alleged violation, the victim lacked the capacity to give consent is admissible to show that the victim did not give consent.

(2)   As used in this section, LACKS THE CAPACITY TO CONSENT means being impaired for any reason to the extent that the person lacks sufficient understanding or capacity to make and carry out reasonable decisions concerning the person or the person’s resources.

(R.C. §2913.73)

§ 131.34  FORGERY OF IDENTIFICATION CARDS.

(A)  No person shall knowingly do either of the following:

(1)   Forge an identification card.

(2)   Sell or otherwise distribute a card that purports to be an identification card, knowing it was forged.

(B)  As used in this section, IDENTIFICATION CARD means a card that includes personal information or characteristics of an individual, a purpose of which is to establish the identity of the bearer described on the card, whether the words Aidentity@, Aidentification@, Aidentification card@, or other similar words appear on the card.

(C)  (1)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of forging identification cards or selling or distributing forged identification cards. Except as otherwise provided in this division, forging identification cards or selling or distributing forged identification cards is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (A) of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, forging identification cards or selling or distributing forged identification cards is a misdemeanor of the first degree and, in addition, the court shall impose upon the offender a fine not less than $250.

(2)   If the victim of a violation of this section is an elderly person, R.C. §2913.31(C)(2)(b) applies and the offense shall be prosecuted under R.C. §2913.31.

(R.C. §2913.31(B), (C)(2))

Statutory reference:

Forgery, felony provisions, see R.C. § 2913.31(A) and (C)(1)

Forgery of originating address or other routing information in connection with the transmission of

  an electronic mail advertisement, felony provisions, see R.C. § 2307.64

§ 131.35  CRIMINAL SIMULATION.

(A)  No person, with purpose to defraud, or knowing that the person is facilitating a fraud, shall do any of the following:

(1)   Make or alter any object so that it appears to have value because of antiquity, rarity, curiosity, source, or authorship, which it does not in fact possess.

(2)   Practice deception in making, retouching, editing, or reproducing any photograph, movie film, video tape, phonograph record, or recording tape.

(3)   Falsely or fraudulently make, simulate, forge, alter, or counterfeit any wrapper, label, stamp, cork or cap prescribed by the Liquor Control Commission under R.C. Chapters 4301 and 4303, falsely or fraudulently cause to be made, simulated, forged, altered, or counterfeited any wrapper, label, stamp, cork or cap prescribed by the Liquor Control Commission under R.C. Chapters 4301 and 4303, or use more than once any wrapper, label, stamp, cork or cap prescribed by the Liquor Control Commission under R.C. Chapters 4301 and 4303.

(4)   Offer, or possess with the purpose to offer, any object that the person knows to have been simulated as provided in divisions (A)(1), (A)(2) or (A)(3) of this section.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of criminal simulation. Except as otherwise provided in this division, criminal simulation is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the loss to the victim is $1,000 or more, criminal simulation is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2913.32)

§ 131.36  TRADEMARK COUNTERFEITING.

(A)  No person shall knowingly do any of the following:

(1)   Attach, affix, or otherwise use a counterfeit mark in connection with the manufacture of goods or services, whether or not the goods or services are intended for sale or resale.

(2)   Possess, sell, or offer for sale tools, machines, instruments, materials, articles, or other items of personal property with the knowledge that they are designed for the production or reproduction of counterfeit marks.

(3)   Purchase or otherwise acquire goods, and keep or otherwise have the goods in the person’s possession, with the knowledge that a counterfeit mark is attached to, affixed to, or otherwise used in connection with the goods and with the intent to sell or otherwise dispose of the goods.

(4)   Sell, offer for sale, or otherwise dispose of goods with the knowledge that a counterfeit mark is attached to, affixed to, or otherwise used in connection with the goods.

(5)   Sell, offer for sale, or otherwise provide services with the knowledge that a counterfeit mark is used in connection with that sale, offer for sale, or other provision of the services.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of trademark counterfeiting.

(1)   A violation of division (A)(1) of this section is guilty of a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, a violation of division (A)(2) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the circumstances of the violation indicate that the tools, machines, instruments, materials, articles, or other items of personal property involved in the violation were intended for use in the commission of a felony, a violation of division (A)(2) is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, a violation of division (A)(3), (A)(4) or (A)(5) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the cumulative sales price of the goods or services to which or in connection with which the counterfeit mark is attached, affixed or otherwise used in the offense is $1,000 or more, a violation of division (A)(3), (A)(4) or (A)(5) is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(C)  A defendant may assert as an affirmative defense to a charge of a violation of this section defenses, affirmative defenses, and limitations on remedies that would be available in a civil, criminal or administrative action or proceeding under the Lanham Act, being 15 U.S.C. §§1051 through 1127, as amended, the Trademark Counterfeiting Act of 1984, being 18 U.S.C. §2320, as amended, R.C. Chapter 1329 or another section of the Ohio Revised Code, or common law.

(D)  (1)   Law enforcement officers may seize pursuant to Criminal Rule 41, R.C. Chapter 2933, or R.C. Chapter 2981 either of the following:

(a)   Goods to which or in connection with which a person attached, affixed, otherwise used, or intended to attach, affix or otherwise use a counterfeit mark in violation of this section.

(b)   Tools, machines, instruments, materials, articles, vehicles or other items of personal property that are possessed, sold, offered for sale, or used in a violation of this section or in an attempt to commit or complicity in the commission of a violation of this section.

(2)   Notwithstanding any contrary provision of R.C. Chapter 2981, if a person is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of this section, an attempt to violate this section, or complicity in a violation of this section, the court involved shall declare that the goods described in division (D)(1)(a) of this section and the personal property described in division (D)(1)(b) of this section are contraband and are forfeited. Prior to the court’s entry of judgment under Criminal Rule 32, the owner of a registered trademark or service mark that is the subject to the counterfeit mark may recommend a manner in which the forfeited goods and forfeited personal property should be disposed of. If that owner makes a timely recommendation of a manner of disposition, the court is not bound by the recommendation. If that owner makes a timely recommendation of a manner of disposition, the court may include in its entry of judgment an order that requires appropriate persons to dispose of the forfeited goods and forfeited personal property in the recommended manner. If the owner fails to make a timely recommendation of a manner of disposition or if that owner makes a timely recommendation of a manner of disposition but the court determines to not follow the recommendation, the court shall include in its entry of judgement an order that requires the law enforcement agency that employs the law enforcement officer who seized the forfeited goods or the forfeited personal property to destroy them or cause their destruction.

(E)  This section does not affect the rights of an owner of a trademark or service mark, or the enforcement in a civil action or in administrative proceedings of the rights of an owner or a trademark or service mark under the Lanham Act, being 15 U.S.C. §§1051 through 1127, as amended, the Trademark Counterfeiting Act of 1984, being 18 U.S.C. §2320, as amended, R.C. Chapter 1329, or another section of the Ohio Revised Code, or common law.

(F)   As used in this section:

COUNTERFEIT MARK.

(a)   Except as provided in division (b) of this definition, the term means a spurious trademark or a spurious service mark that satisfies both of the following:

  1. It is identical with or substantially indistinguishable from a mark that is registered on the principal register in the United States Patent and Trademark Office for the same goods or services as the goods or services to which or in connection with which the spurious trademark or spurious service mark is attached, affixed, or otherwise used, or from a mark that is registered with the Secretary of State pursuant to R.C. §§1329.54 through 1329.67 for the same goods or services as the goods or services to which or in connection with which the spurious trademark or spurious service mark is attached, affixed, or otherwise used, and the owner of the registration uses that registered trademark, whether or not the offender knows that the mark is registered in a manner described in this division (a)1.
  1. Its use is likely to cause confusion or mistake or to deceive other persons.

(b)   The term does not include a mark or other designation that is attached to, affixed to, or otherwise used in connection with goods or services if the holder of the right to use the mark or other designation authorizes the manufacturer, producer, or vendor of those goods or services to attach, affix, or otherwise use the mark or other designation in connection with those goods or services at the time of their manufacture, production or sale.

CUMULATIVE SALES PRICE. Means the product of the lowest single unit sales price charged or sought to be charged by an offender for goods to which or in connection with which a counterfeit mark is attached, affixed, or otherwise used or of the lowest single service transaction price charged or sought to be charged by an offender for services in connection with which a counterfeit mark is used, multiplied by the total number of those goods or services, whether or not units of goods are sold or are in an offender’s possession, custody or control.

REGISTERED TRADEMARK OR SERVICE MARK. Means a trademark or service mark that is registered in a manner described in division (a) of the definition of Acounterfeit mark@.

SERVICE MARK. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §1329.54.

TRADEMARK. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §1329.54.

(R.C. §2913.34)

§ 131.37  DIMINISHING OR INTERFERING WITH FORFEITABLE PROPERTY.

(A)  No person shall destroy, damage, remove, or transfer property that is subject to forfeiture or otherwise take any action in regard to property that is subject to forfeiture with purpose to do any of the following:

(1)   Prevent or impair the state’s or political subdivision’s lawful authority to take the property into its custody or control under R.C. Chapter 2981 or to continue holding the property under its lawful custody or control;

(2)   Impair or defeat the court’s continuing jurisdiction over the person and property;

(3)   Devalue property that the person knows, or has reasonable cause to believe, is subject to forfeiture proceedings under R.C. Chapter 2981.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of interference with or diminishing forfeitable property. Except as otherwise provided in this division (B), interference with or diminishing forfeitable property is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the property is $1,000 or more, interference with or diminishing forfeitable property is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2981.07)

§ 131.38  RECORDING CREDIT CARD, TELEPHONE, OR SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBERS.

(A)  No person shall record or cause to be recorded either of the following:

(1)   A credit card account number of the other party to a transaction, when a check, bill of exchange or other draft is presented for payment; or

(2)   The telephone number or Social Security account number of the other party to a transaction, when payment is made by credit card charge agreement, check, bill of exchange or other draft.

(B)  Division (A) of this section does not apply to a transaction, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1)   The credit card account number, Social Security account number or telephone number is recorded for a legitimate business purpose, including collection purposes.

(2)   The other party to the transaction consents to the recording of the credit card account number, Social Security account number or telephone number.

(3)   The credit card account number, Social Security account number or telephone number that is recorded during the course of the transaction is not disclosed to any third party for any purposes other than collection purposes and is not used to market goods or services unrelated to the goods or services purchased in the transaction.

(C)  Nothing in this section prohibits the recording of the number of a credit card account when given in lieu of a deposit to secure payment in the event of default, loss, damage or other occurrence, or requires a person to accept a check presented for payment, if the other party to the transaction refuses to consent to the recording of the number of the party’s Social Security account or license to operate a motor vehicle.

(R.C. §1349.17)

(D)  Whoever violates any of the provisions of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §1349.99(A))

§ 131.39  PROSECUTIONS FOR THEFT OF UTILITIES.

(A)  In a prosecution for a theft offense, as defined in R.C. §2913.01, that involves alleged tampering with a gas, electric, steam or water meter, conduit or attachment of a utility that has been disconnected by the utility, proof that a meter, conduit or attachment of a utility has been tampered with is prima facie evidence that the person who is obligated to pay for the service rendered through the meter, conduit or attachment, and who is in possession or control of the meter, conduit or attachment at the time the tampering occurred has caused the tampering with intent to commit a theft offense.

(B)  In a prosecution for a theft offense, as defined in R.C. §2913.01, that involves the alleged reconnection of a gas, electric, steam or water meter, conduit or attachment of a utility that has been disconnected by the utility, proof that a meter, conduit or attachment disconnected by a utility has been reconnected without the consent of the utility is prima facie evidence that the person in possession or control of the meter, conduit or attachment at the time of the reconnection has reconnected the meter, conduit or attachment with intent to commit a theft offense.

(C)  As used in this section:

TAMPER. Means to interfere with, damage or bypass a utility meter, conduit or attachment with the intent to impede the correct registration of a meter or the proper functions of a conduit or attachment so as to reduce the amount of utility service that is registered on the meter.

UTILITY. Means any electric light company, gas company, natural gas company, pipe-line company, water-works company or heating or cooling company, as defined in R.C. §4905.03(C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (H), its lessees, trustees or receivers, or any similar utility owned or operated by a political subdivision.

(R.C. §4933.18)

(D)  Each electric light company, gas company, natural gas company, pipeline company, waterworks company or heating or cooling company, as defined by R.C. §4905.03(C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (H), or its lessees, trustees or receivers, and each similar utility owned or operated by a political subdivision, shall notify its customers, on an annual basis, that tampering with or bypassing a meter constitutes a theft offense that could result in the imposition of criminal sanctions.

(R.C. §4933.19)

§ 131.40  MOTION PICTURE PIRACY.

(A)  As used in this section:

AUDIOVISUAL RECORDING FUNCTION. Means the capability of a device to record or transmit a motion picture or any part of a motion picture by means of any technology existing on, or developed after, March 9, 2004.

FACILITY. Means a movie theater.

(B)  No person, without the written consent of the owner or lessee of the facility and of the licensor of the motion picture, shall knowingly operate an audiovisual recording function of a device in a facility in which the motion picture is being shown.

(C)  Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of motion picture piracy, a misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law on each subsequent offense.

(D)  This section does not prohibit or restrict a lawfully authorized investigative, law enforcement, protective, or intelligence gathering employee or agent of the government of this state or a political subdivision of this state, or of the federal government, when acting in an official capacity, from operating an audiovisual recording function of a device in any facility in which a motion picture is being shown.

(E)  Division (B) of this section does not limit or affect the application of any other prohibition in this code or the Ohio Revised Code. Any act that is a violation of both division (B) of this section and another provision of this code or the Ohio Revised Code may be prosecuted under this section, under the other provision of this code or the Ohio Revised Code, or under both this section and the other provision of this code or the Ohio Revised Code.

(R.C. §2913.07)

§ 131.41  RAILROAD VANDALISM; CRIMINAL TRESPASS; INTERFERENCE WITH OPERATION OF TRAIN; GRADE CROSSING DEVICE VANDALISM.

(A)  No person shall knowingly, and by any means, drop or throw any object at, onto, or in the path of, any railroad rail, railroad track, locomotive, engine, railroad car, or other vehicle of a railroad company while such vehicle is on a railroad track.

(B)  No person, without privilege to do so, shall climb upon or into any locomotive, engine, railroad car, or other vehicle of a railroad company when it is on a railroad track.

(C)  No person, without privilege to do so, shall disrupt, delay, or prevent the operation of any train or other vehicle of a railroad company while such vehicle is on a railroad track.

(D)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of railroad vandalism. Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of criminal trespass on a locomotive, engine, railroad car, or other railroad vehicle. Whoever violates division (C) of this section is guilty of interference with the operation of a train. Except as otherwise provided in this division, railroad vandalism; criminal trespass on a locomotive, engine, railroad car, or other railroad vehicle; and interference with the operation of a train each is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the violation of division (A), (B), or (C) of this section causes serious physical harm to property or creates a substantial risk of physical harm to any person, causes physical harm to any person, or causes serious physical harm to any person, the violation is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2909.10)

(E)  No person shall knowingly deface, damage, obstruct, remove, or otherwise impair the operation of any railroad grade crossing warning signal or other protective device, including any gate, bell, light, crossbuck, stop sign, yield sign, advance warning sign, or advance pavement marking.

(F)   Whoever violates division (E) of this section is guilty of railroad grade crossing device vandalism. Except as otherwise provided in this division, railroad grade crossing device vandalism is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the violation of division (E) of this section causes serious physical harm to property or creates a substantial risk of physical harm to any person, causes physical harm to any person, or causes serious physical harm to any person, railroad grade crossing device vandalism is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2909.101)

§ 131.42  DESECRATION.

(A)  No person, without privilege to do so, shall purposely deface, damage, pollute, or otherwise physically mistreat any of the following:

(1)   Any public monument;

(2)   Any historical or commemorative marker, or any structure, Indian mound or earthwork, cemetery, thing, or site of great historical or archaeological interest;

(3)   A place of worship, its furnishings, or religious artifacts or sacred texts within the place of worship or within the grounds upon which the place of worship is located;

(4)   A work of art or museum piece;

(5)   Any other object of reverence or sacred devotion.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of desecration. A violation of division (A)(1), (A)(2), (A)(4), or (A)(5) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree. A violation of division (A)(3) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(C)  As used in this section, Acemetery@ means any place of burial and includes burial sites that contain American Indian burial objects placed with or containing American Indian human remains.

(R.C. §2927.11)

CHAPTER 132: OFFENSES AGAINST PUBLIC PEACE

Section

132.01Riot
132.02 Failure to disperse
132.03 Justifiable use of force to suppress riot
132.04 Disorderly conduct
132.05 Disturbing peace and good order in a park
132.06 Disturbing a lawful meeting
132.07 Misconduct at an emergency
132.08 Inducing panic
132.09 Making false alarms
132.10 Unlawful assemblage
132.11 Public intoxication
132.12 Authorization for meetings
132.13 Begging, peddling, soliciting
132.14 Inciting to violence
132.15 Unlawful display of law enforcement emblem
132.16 Safety of crowds attending live entertainment performances
132.17 Misconduct involving a public transportation system
132.18 Impeding public passage of an emergency service responder

§ 132.01  RIOT.

(A)  Generally. No person shall participate with four or more others in a course of disorderly conduct in violation of R.C. § 2917.11 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance:

(1)   With purpose to commit or facilitate the commission of a misdemeanor, other than disorderly conduct;

(2)   With purpose to intimidate a public official or employee into taking or refraining from official action, or with purpose to hinder, impede, or obstruct a function of government;

(3)   With purpose to hinder, impede, or obstruct the orderly process of administration or instruction at an educational institution, or to interfere with or disrupt lawful activities carried on at the institution.

(B)  Acting with unlawful force or violence. No person shall participate with four or more others with purpose to do an act with unlawful force or violence, even though the act might otherwise be lawful.

(C)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of riot, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. § 2917.03)

(D)  Required proof for offenses of riot and aggravated riot. For the purposes of prosecuting violations of this section, the prosecution is not required to allege or prove that the offender expressly agreed with four or more others to commit any act that constitutes a violation this section prior to or while committing those acts.

(R.C. § 2917.031)

(Prior Code, §132.01)

Statutory reference:

Aggravated riot, felony provisions, see R.C. § 2917.02

§ 132.02  FAILURE TO DISPERSE.

(A)  Generally. Where five or more persons are participating in a course of disorderly conduct in violation of R.C. § 2917.11 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, and there are other persons in the vicinity whose presence creates the likelihood of physical harm to persons or property or of serious public inconvenience, annoyance, or alarm, a law enforcement officer or other public official may order the participants and the other persons to disperse. No person shall knowingly fail to obey the order.

(B)  Peaceably assembled. Nothing in this section requires persons to disperse who are peaceably assembled for a lawful purpose.

(C)  State law penalty.

(1)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of failure to disperse.

(2)   Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3) of this section, failure to disperse is a minor misdemeanor.

(3)   Failure to disperse is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree if the failure to obey the order described in division (A) of this section creates the likelihood of physical harm to persons or is committed at the scene of a fire, accident, disaster, riot, or emergency of any kind.

(R.C. § 2917.04)  (Prior Code, §132.02)

§ 132.03  JUSTIFIABLE USE OF FORCE TO SUPPRESS RIOT.

A law enforcement officer or firefighter engaged in suppressing a riot or in protecting persons or property during a riot:

(A)  Is justified in using force, other than deadly force, when and to the extent he or she has probable cause to believe such force is necessary to disperse or apprehend rioters;

(B)  Is justified in using force, including deadly force, when and to the extent he or she has probable cause to believe such force is necessary to disperse or apprehend rioters whose conduct is creating a substantial risk of serious physical harm to persons.

(R.C. § 2917.05)

§ 132.04  DISORDERLY CONDUCT.

(A)  No person shall recklessly cause inconvenience, annoyance, or alarm to another, by doing any of the following:

(1)   Engaging in fighting, in threatening harm to persons or property, or in violent or turbulent behavior;

(2)   Making unreasonable noise or an offensively coarse utterance, gesture, or display, or communicating unwarranted and grossly abusive language to any person;

(3)   Insulting, taunting, or challenging another, under circumstances in which that conduct is likely to provoke a violent response;

(4)   Hindering or preventing the movement of persons on a public street, road, highway, or right‑of‑way, or to, from, within, or upon public or private property, so as to interfere with the rights of others, and by any act that serves no lawful and reasonable purpose of the offender;

(5)   Creating a condition that is physically offensive to persons or that presents a risk of physical harm to persons or property, by any act that serves no lawful and reasonable purpose of the offender.

(B)  No person while voluntarily intoxicated shall do either of the following:

(1)   In a public place or in the presence of two or more persons, engage in conduct likely to be offensive or to cause inconvenience, annoyance, or alarm to persons of ordinary sensibilities, which conduct the offender, if he or she were not intoxicated, should know is likely to have such effect on others;

(2)   Engage in conduct or create a condition that presents a risk of physical harm to himself, herself or another, or to the property of another.

(C)  Violation of any statute or ordinance of which an element is operating a motor vehicle, locomotive, watercraft, aircraft, or other vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or any drug of abuse is not a violation of division (B) of this section.

(D)  If a person appears to an ordinary observer to be intoxicated, it is probable cause to believe that the person is voluntarily intoxicated for purposes of division (B) of this section.

(E)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of disorderly conduct.

(1)   Except as otherwise provided in divisions (E)(2) and (E)(3) of this section, disorderly conduct is a minor misdemeanor.

(2)   Disorderly conduct is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree if any of the following applies:

(a)   The offender persists in disorderly conduct after reasonable warning or request to desist.

(b)   The offense is committed in the vicinity of a school or in a school safety zone.

(c)   The offense is committed in the presence of any law enforcement officer, firefighter, rescuer, medical person, emergency medical services person, or other authorized person who is engaged in the person’s duties at the scene of a fire, accident, disaster, riot, or emergency of any kind.

(d)   The offense is committed in the presence of any emergency facility person who is engaged in the person’s duties in an emergency facility.

(3)   If an offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or more violations of division (B) of this section, R.C. § 2917.11(B), or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a violation of division (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(F)   As used in this section:

COMMITTED IN THE VICINITY OF A SCHOOL. Has the same meaning as in R.C. § 2925.01.

EMERGENCY FACILITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. § 2909.04.

EMERGENCY FACILITY PERSON. Is the singular of Aemergency facility personnel@ as defined in R.C. § 2909.04.

EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES PERSON. Is the singular of Aemergency medical services personnel@ as defined in R.C. § 2133.21.

(R.C. § 2917.11)  (Prior Code, §132.03)  (Rules and Regs. §6.1)

§ 132.05  DISTURBING PEACE AND GOOD ORDER IN A PARK.

No person in or adjacent to a park shall conduct himself or herself, by word or by act, in a riotous, disorderly, boisterous, threatening, or other manner so as to disturb the peace and good order in a park.

(Prior Code, §132.04)

Cross‑reference:

Regulations for permits for use of MetroParks, see Chapter 94

§ 132.06  DISTURBING A LAWFUL MEETING.

(A)  Generally. No person, with purpose to prevent or disrupt a lawful meeting, procession, or gathering, shall do either of the following:

(1)   Do any act which obstructs or interferes with the due conduct of the meeting, procession, or gathering; or

(2)   Make any utterance, gesture, or display which outrages the sensibilities of the group.

(B)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of disturbing a lawful meeting. Except as otherwise provided in this division, disturbing a lawful meeting is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. Disturbing a lawful meeting is a misdemeanor of the first degree if either of the following applies:

(1)   The violation is committed with the intent to disturb or disquiet any assemblage of people met for religious worship at a tax-exempt place of worship, regardless of whether the conduct is within the place at which the assemblage is held or is on the property on which that place is located and disturbs the order and solemnity of the assemblage.

(2)   The violation is committed with the intent to prevent, disrupt, or interfere with a virtual meeting or gathering of people for religious worship, through use of a computer, computer system, telecommunications device, or other electronic device or system, or in any other manner.

(C)  Definitions. As used in this section:

COMPUTER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. § 2913.01.

COMPUTER SYSTEM. Has the same meaning as in R.C. § 2913.01.

TELECOMMUNICATIONS DEVICE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. § 2913.01.

VIRTUAL MEETING OR GATHERING. A meeting or gathering by interactive video conference or teleconference, or by a combination thereof.

(R.C. § 2917.12)  (Prior Code, §132.05)

§ 132.07  MISCONDUCT AT AN EMERGENCY.

(A)  Generally. No person shall knowingly do any of the following:

(1)   Hamper the lawful operations of any law enforcement officer, firefighter, rescuer, medical person, emergency medical services person, or other authorized person engaged in the person’s duties at the scene of a fire, accident, disaster, riot, or emergency of any kind;

(2)   Hamper the lawful activities of any emergency facility person who is engaged in the person’s duties in an emergency facility;

(3)   Fail to obey the lawful order of any law enforcement officer engaged in the law enforcement officer’s duties at the scene of or in connection with a fire, accident, disaster, riot, or emergency of any kind.

(B)  Access to news media. Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit access or deny information to any news media representative in the lawful exercise of the news media representative’s duties.

(C)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of misconduct at an emergency. Except as otherwise provided in this division, misconduct at an emergency is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If violation of this section creates a risk of physical harm to persons or property, misconduct at an emergency is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(D)  Definitions. As used in this section:

EMERGENCY FACILITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. § 2909.04.

EMERGENCY FACILITY PERSON. Is the singular of Aemergency facility personnel@ as defined in R.C. § 2909.04.

EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES PERSON. Is the singular of Aemergency medical services personnel@ as defined in R.C. § 2133.21.

(R.C. § 2917.13)  (Prior Code, §132.06)

§ 132.08  INDUCING PANIC.

(A)  Generally. No person shall cause the evacuation of any public place, or otherwise cause serious public inconvenience or alarm, by doing any of the following:

(1)   Initiating or circulating a report or warning of an alleged or impending fire, explosion, crime, or other catastrophe, knowing that the report or warning is false.

(2)   Threatening to commit any offense of violence.

(3)   Committing any offense, with reckless disregard of the likelihood that its commission will cause serious public inconvenience or alarm.

(B)  Authorized fire or emergency drill. Division (A)(1) of this section does not apply to any person conducting an authorized fire or emergency drill.

(C)  State law penalty.

(1)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of inducing panic.

(2)   Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3), inducing panic is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(3)   If a violation of this section results in physical harm to any person, inducing panic is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. If a violation of this section results in economic harm of $1,000 or more, inducing panic is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. If the public place involved in a violation of division (A)(1) is a school or an institution of higher education, inducing panic is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. If a violation of this section pertains to a purported, threatened or actual use of a weapon of mass destruction, inducing panic is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(D)  Defense and prosecution.

(1)   It is not a defense to a charge under this section that pertains to a purported or threatened use of a weapon of mass destruction that the offender did not possess or have the ability to use a weapon of mass destruction or that what was represented to be a weapon of mass destruction was not a weapon of mass destruction.

(2)   Any act that is a violation of this section and any other section of the Ohio Revised Code or this code may be prosecuted under this section, the other section, or both sections.

(E)  Definitions. As used in this section:

BIOLOGICAL AGENT. Has the same meaning as in R.C. § 2917.33.

ECONOMIC HARM. Means any of the following:

(a)   All direct, incidental and consequential pecuniary harm suffered by a victim as a result of the criminal conduct. AEconomic harm@ as described in this division includes but is not limited to all of the following:

  1. All wages, salaries or other compensation lost as a result of the criminal conduct;
  1. The cost of all wages, salaries or other compensation paid to employees for time those employees are prevented from working as a result of the criminal conduct;
  1. The overhead costs incurred from the time that a business is shut down as a result of the criminal conduct;
  1. The loss of value to tangible or intangible property that was damaged as a result of the criminal conduct.

(b)   All costs incurred by the state or any political subdivision as a result of, or in making any response to, the criminal conduct that constituted the violation of this section or R.C. § 2917.32, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, including but not limited to all costs so incurred by any law enforcement officers, firefighters, rescue personnel, or emergency medical services personnel of the state or the political subdivision.

EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES PERSONNEL. Has the same meaning as in R.C. § 2133.21.

INSTITUTION OF HIGHER EDUCATION. Means any of the following:

(a)   A state university or college as defined in R.C. § 3345.12(A)(1), community college, state community college, university branch, or technical college;

(b)   A private, nonprofit college, university or other post-secondary institution located in this state that possesses a certificate of authorization issued by the Ohio Board of Regents pursuant to R.C. Chapter 1713;

(c)   A post-secondary institution with a certificate of registration issued by the State Board of Career Colleges and Schools pursuant to R.C. Chapter 3332.

SCHOOL. Means any school operated by a board of education or any school for which the State Board of Education prescribes minimum standards under R.C. § 3301.07, whether or not any instruction, extracurricular activities, or training provided by the school is being conducted at the time a violation of this section is committed.

WEAPON OF MASS DESTRUCTION. Means any of the following:

(a)   Any weapon that is designed or intended to cause death or serious physical harm through the release, dissemination, or impact of toxic or poisonous chemicals, or other precursors;

(b)   Any weapon involving a disease organism or biological agent;

(c)   Any weapon that is designed to release radiation or radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life;

(d)   Any of the following, except to the extent that the item or device in question is expressly excepted from the definition of Adestructive device@ pursuant to 18 U.S.C. § 921(a)(4) and regulations issued under that section:

  1. Any explosive, incendiary, or poison gas bomb, grenade, rocket having a propellant charge of more than four ounces, missile having an explosive or incendiary charge of more than one-quarter ounce, mine, or similar device;
  1. Any combination of parts either designed or intended for use in converting any item or device into any item or device described in division (d)1. of this definition and from which an item or device described in that division may be readily assembled.

(R.C. § 2917.31)  (Prior Code, §132.07)

§ 132.09  MAKING FALSE ALARMS.

(A)  Generally. No person shall do any of the following:

(1)   Initiate or circulate a report or warning of an alleged or impending fire, explosion, crime, or other catastrophe, knowing that the report or warning is false and likely to cause public inconvenience or alarm.

(2)   Knowingly cause a false alarm of fire or other emergency to be transmitted to or within any organization, public or private, for dealing with emergencies involving a risk of physical harm to persons or property.

(3)   Report to any law enforcement agency an alleged offense or other incident within its concern, knowing that the offense did not occur;

(4)   Initiate or circulate a report or warning of an alleged or impending fire, explosion, crime, or other catastrophe, knowing that the report or warning is false and likely to impede the operation of a critical infrastructure facility.

(B)  Person conducting authorized fire or emergency drill. This section does not apply to any person conducting an authorized fire or emergency drill.

(C)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of making false alarms. Except as otherwise provided in this division, making false alarms is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If a violation of this section results in economic harm of $1,000 or more, making false alarms is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. If a violation of this section pertains to a purported, threatened, or actual use of a weapon of mass destruction, making false alarms is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(D)  Defense and prosecution.

(1)   It is not a defense to a charge under this section that pertains to a purported or threatened use of a weapon of mass destruction that the offender did not possess or have the ability to use a weapon of mass destruction or that what was represented to be a weapon of mass destruction was not a weapon of mass destruction.

(2)   Any act that is a violation of this section and any other section of the Ohio Revised Code or this code may be prosecuted under this section, the other section, or both sections.

(E)  Definitions. As used in this section:

CRITICAL INFRASTRUCTURE FACILITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. § 2911.21.

ECONOMIC HARM and WEAPON OF MASS DESTRUCTION. Have the same meaning as in R.C. § 2917.31.

(R.C. § 2917.32)  (Prior Code, §132.08)

§ 132.10  UNLAWFUL ASSEMBLAGE.

No persons or groups of persons shall assemble in or adjacent to a park for any unlawful purpose or in riotous assemblage or with intent to annoy, harass, or inflict property damage or bodily injury upon another person or persons or inflict damage to a park.

(Prior Code, §132.10)  (Rules and Regs. §6.6)

§ 132.11  PUBLIC INTOXICATION.

No person in a park shall be intoxicated or be under the influence of any intoxicating liquor; alcoholic beverage; controlled substance, as defined by R.C. §3719.41; or harmful intoxicant.

(Prior Code, §132.11)  (Rules and Regs. §6.11)

Cross‑reference:

Alcoholic beverages, see Chapter 93

§ 132.12  AUTHORIZATION FOR MEETINGS.

No individual or organization shall conduct, sponsor, or promote any public meeting, speech, parade, concert, theater, athletic event, or other public activity in a park without a written permit from the Chief Executive Officer.

(Prior Code, §132.12)  (Rules and Regs. §6.15)

§ 132.13  BEGGING, PEDDLING, SOLICITING.

(A)  No person who is engaged in soliciting shall knowingly touch or grab another person without that person’s consent or shall knowingly approach within three feet of another person or follow another person and continue to engage or attempt to engage in solicitation with that person after that person has made an affirmative communication that he or she is unwilling or unable to engage in solicitation.

(B)  No person shall engage in soliciting with a person who is conducting a transaction at an ATM, operating a bicycle or other self-powered device, or operating a watercraft.

(Prior Code, §132.13)  (Rules and Regs. §6.16)  (Amendment approved 8-1-2022)

§ 132.14  INCITING TO VIOLENCE.

(A)  No person shall knowingly engage in conduct designed to urge or incite another to commit any offense of violence when either of the following apply:

(1)   The conduct takes place under circumstances that create a clear and present danger that any offense of violence will be committed.

(2)   The conduct proximately results in the commission of any offense of violence.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of inciting to violence. If the offense of violence that the other person is being urged or incited to commit is a misdemeanor, inciting to violence is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offense of violence that the other person is being urged or incited to commit is a felony, inciting to violence is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. § 2917.01)

§ 132.15  UNLAWFUL DISPLAY OF LAW ENFORCEMENT EMBLEM.

(A)  No person who is not entitled to do so shall knowingly display on a motor vehicle the emblem of a law enforcement agency or an organization of law enforcement officers.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of the unlawful display of the emblem of a law enforcement agency or an organization of law enforcement officers, a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. § 2913.441)

§ 132.16  SAFETY OF CROWDS ATTENDING LIVE ENTERTAINMENT PERFORMANCES.

(A)  As used in this section:

CONCERT. Means a musical performance of which the primary component is a presentation by persons singing or playing musical instruments, that is intended by its sponsors mainly, but not necessarily exclusively, for the listening enjoyment of the audience, and that is held in a facility. The term does not include any performance in which music is a part of the presentation and the primary component of which is acting, dancing, a motion picture, a demonstration of skills or talent other than singing or playing an instrument, an athletic event, an exhibition or a speech.

FACILITY. Means any structure that has a roof or partial roof and that has walls that wholly surround the area on all sides, including but not limited to a stadium, hall, arena, armory, auditorium, ballroom, exhibition hall, convention center or music hall.

LIVE ENTERTAINMENT PERFORMANCE. Means any live speech; any live musical performance, including a concert; any live dramatic performance; any live variety show; and any other live performance with respect to which the primary intent of the audience can be construed to be viewing the performers. The term does not include any form of entertainment with respect to which the person purchasing a ticket routinely participates in amusements as well as views performers.

PERSON. Includes, in addition to an individual or entity specified in R.C. § 1.59(C), any governmental entity.

RESTRICTED ENTERTAINMENT AREA. Means any wholly or partially enclosed area, whether indoors or outdoors, that has limited access through established entrances or established turnstiles or similar devices.

(B)  (1)   No person shall sell, offer to sell, or offer in return for a donation, any ticket that is not numbered and that does not correspond to a specific seat for admission to either of the following:

(a)   A live entertainment performance that is not exempted under division (D) of this section, that is held in a restricted entertainment area, and for which more than 8,000 tickets are offered to the public;

(b)   A concert that is not exempted under division (D) of this section and for which more than 3,000 tickets are offered to the public.

(2)   No person shall advertise any live entertainment performance as described in division (B)(1)(a) of this section or any concert as described in division (B)(1)(b) of this section, unless the advertisement contains the words AReserved Seats Only@.

(C)  Unless exempted by division (D)(1) of this section, no person who owns or operates any restricted entertainment area shall fail to open, maintain and properly staff at least the number of entrances designated under division (E) of this section for a minimum of 90 minutes prior to the scheduled start of any live entertainment performance that is held in the restricted entertainment area and for which more than 3,000 tickets are sold, offered for sale or offered in return for a donation.

(D)  (1)   A live entertainment performance, other than a concert, is exempted from the provisions of divisions (B) and (C) of this section if both of the following apply:

(a)   The restricted entertainment area in which the performance is held has at least eight entrances or, if both entrances and separate admission turnstiles or similar devices are used, has at least eight turnstiles or similar devices.

(b)   The eight entrances or, if applicable, the eight turnstiles or similar devices, are opened, maintained and properly staffed at least one hour prior to the scheduled start of the performance.

(2)   (a)   The officer responsible for public safety in the municipality may, upon application of the sponsor of a concert covered by division (B) of this section, exempt the concert from the provisions of that division if such officer finds that the health, safety and welfare of the participants and spectators would not be substantially affected by failure to comply with the provisions of that division. In determining whether to grant an exemption, the officer shall consider the following factors: the size and design of the facility in which the concert is scheduled; the size, age and anticipated conduct of the crowd expected to attend the concert; and the ability of the sponsor to manage and control the expected crowd. If the sponsor of any concert desires to obtain an exemption under this division, the sponsor shall apply to the appropriate official on a form prescribed by that official. The official shall issue an order that grants or denies the exemption within five days after receipt of the application. The sponsor may appeal any order that denies an exemption to the Court of Common Pleas of the county in which the facility is located.

(b)   If an official grants an exemption under division (D)(2)(a) of this section, the official shall designate an on-duty law enforcement officer to be present at the concert. The designated officer has authority to issue orders to all security personnel at the concert to protect the health, safety and welfare of the participants and spectators.

(3)   Notwithstanding division (D)(2) of this section, in the case of a concert held in a facility located on the campus of an educational institution covered by R.C. § 3345.04, a state university law enforcement officer appointed pursuant to R.C. §§ 3345.04 and 3345.21 shall do both of the following:

(a)   Exercise the authority to grant exemptions provided by division (D)(2)(a) of this section in lieu of an official designated in that division;

(b)   If the officer grants an exemption under division (D)(3)(a) of this section, designate an on-duty state university law enforcement officer to be present at the concert. The designated officer has authority to issue orders to all security personnel at the concert to protect the health, safety and welfare of the participants and spectators.

(E)  (1)   Unless a live entertainment performance is exempted by division (D)(1) of this section, the officer responsible for public safety within the municipality shall designate, for purposes of division (C) of this section, the minimum number of entrances required to be opened, maintained and staffed at each live entertainment performance so as to permit crowd control and reduce congestion at the entrances. The designation shall be based on such factors as the size and nature of the crowd expected to attend the live entertainment performance, the length of time prior to the live entertainment performance that crowds are expected to congregate at the entrances and the amount of security provided at the restricted entertainment area.

(2)   Notwithstanding division (E)(1) of this section, a state university law enforcement officer appointed pursuant to R.C. §§ 3345.04 and 3345.21 shall designate the number of entrances required to be opened, maintained and staffed in the case of a live entertainment performance that is held at a restricted entertainment area located on the campus of an educational institution covered by R.C. § 3345.04.

(F)   No person shall enter into any contract for a live entertainment performance that does not permit or require compliance with this section.

(G)  (1)   This section does not apply to a live entertainment performance held in a restricted entertainment area if one admission ticket entitles the holder to view or participate in three or more different games, rides, activities or live entertainment performances occurring simultaneously at different sites within the restricted entertainment area and if the initial admittance entrance to the restricted entertainment area, for which the ticket is required, is separate from the entrance to any specific live entertainment performance and an additional ticket is not required for admission to the particular live entertainment performance.

(2)   This section does not apply to a symphony orchestra performance, a ballet performance, horse races, dances or fairs.

(H)  This section does not prohibit the Legislative Authority from imposing additional requirements, not in conflict with the section, for the promotion or holding of live entertainment performances.

(I)   Whoever violates division (B), (C) or (F) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. If any individual suffers physical harm to the individual’s person as a result of a violation of this section, the sentencing court shall consider this factor in favor of imposing a term of imprisonment upon the offender.

(R.C. § 2917.40)

§ 132.17  MISCONDUCT INVOLVING A PUBLIC TRANSPORTATION SYSTEM.

(A)  As used in this section, PUBLIC TRANSPORTATION SYSTEM means a county transit system operated in accordance with R.C. §§ 306.01 through 306.13, a regional transit authority operated in accordance with R.C. §§ 306.30 through 306.71, or a regional transit commission operated in accordance with R.C. §§ 306.80 through 306.90.

(B)  No person shall evade the payment of the known fares of a public transportation system.

(C)  No person shall alter any transfer, pass, ticket or token of a public transportation system with the purpose of evading the payment of fares or of defrauding the system.

(D)  No person shall do any of the following while in any facility or on any vehicle of a public transportation system:

(1)   Play sound equipment without the proper use of a private earphone;

(2)   Smoke, eat or drink in any area where the activity is clearly marked as being prohibited; or

(3)   Expectorate upon a person, facility or vehicle.

(E)  No person shall write, deface, draw or otherwise mark on any facility or vehicle of a public transportation system.

(F)   No person shall fail to comply with a lawful order of a public transportation system police officer, and no person shall resist, obstruct or abuse a public transportation police officer in the performance of the officer’s duties.

(G)  Whoever violates any of the provisions of this section is guilty of misconduct involving a public transportation system.

(1)   A violation of division (B), (C), or (F) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(2)   A violation of division (D) of this section is a minor misdemeanor on a first offense. If a person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of any division of this section or of a municipal ordinance that is substantially equivalent to any division of this section, a violation of division (D) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(3)   A violation of division (E) of this section is a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(H)  Notwithstanding any other provision of law, 75% of each fine paid to satisfy a sentence imposed for a violation of any of the provisions of this section shall be deposited into the treasury of the County and 25% shall be deposited with the county transit board, regional transit authority or regional transit commission that operates the public transportation system involved in the violation, unless the Board of County Commissioners operates the public transportation system, in which case 100% of each fine shall be deposited into the treasury of the County.

(R.C. § 2917.41)

§ 132.18  IMPEDING PUBLIC PASSAGE OF AN EMERGENCY SERVICE RESPONDER.

(A)  No person, without privilege to do so, shall recklessly obstruct any highway, street, sidewalk, or any other public passage in such a manner as to render the highway, street, sidewalk, or passage impassable without unreasonable inconvenience or hazard if both of the following apply:

(1)   The obstruction prevents an emergency vehicle from accessing a highway or street, prevents an emergency service responder from responding to an emergency, or prevents an emergency vehicle or an emergency service responder from having access to an exit from an emergency.

(2)   Upon receipt of a request or order from an emergency service responder to remove or cease the obstruction, the person refuses to remove or cease the obstruction.

(B)  Division (A) of this section does not limit or affect the application of R.C. § 2921.31 or any other section of the Ohio Revised Code. Any conduct that is a violation of division (A) of this section and that also is a violation of R.C. § 2921.31 or any other section of the Ohio Revised Code may be prosecuted under this section, the other section of the Ohio Revised Code, or both sections.

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of unlawfully impeding public passage of an emergency service responder, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(D)  As used in this section, EMERGENCY SERVICE RESPONDER has the same meaning as in R.C. § 2921.01.

(R.C. § 2917.14)

CHAPTER 133: SEX OFFENSES

Section

133.01 Definitions
133.02 Soliciting; loitering to engage in
133.03 Nudity; indecent exposure
133.04 Unlawful sexual conduct with a minor
133.05 Sexual imposition
133.06 Voyeurism
133.07 Procuring
133.08 Prostitution
133.09 Disseminating matter harmful to juveniles
133.10 Displaying matter harmful to juveniles
133.11 Deception to obtain matter harmful to juveniles
133.12 Polygraph examinations for victims; restrictions on use
133.13 Rules of evidence
133.14 Declaratory judgment
133.15 Injunction; abatement of nuisance
133.16 Unlawful operation of viewing booths depicting sexual conduct
133.17 Juveniles on the premises of adult entertainment establishments prohibited
133.18 Sexually oriented businesses; illegal operation and activity
133.19 Unlawful advertising of massage
133.20 Nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images
133.99 Sentencing for sexually oriented offenses; sexual predators; registration

Statutory reference:

Assistance to victims of sexual assault, see R.C. §§ 2907.28 et seq.

Child victim, disposition of, see R.C. § 2945.481

Suppression of information at trial, see R.C. § 2907.11

Testing offenders for venereal disease and AIDS, see R.C. § 2907.27

§ 133.01  DEFINITIONS.

For the purpose of this chapter the following words and phrases shall have the following meanings ascribed to them respectively.

HARMFUL TO JUVENILES. That quality of any material or performance describing or representing nudity, sexual conduct, sexual excitement, or sado-masochistic abuse in any form to which all of the following apply:

(1)   The material or performance, when considered as a whole, appeals to the prurient interest of juveniles in sex.

(2)   The material or performance is patently offensive to prevailing standards in the adult community as a whole with respect to what is suitable for juveniles.

(3)   The material or performance, when considered as a whole, lacks serious literary, artistic, political, and scientific value for juveniles.

JUVENILE. Any unmarried person under 18 years of age.

MATERIAL. Any book, magazine, newspaper, pamphlet, poster, print, picture, figure, image, description, motion picture film, video cassette, laser disc, phonograph record, cassette tape, compact disc, or other tangible thing capable of arousing interest through sight, sound, or touch and includes an image or text appearing on a computer monitor, television screen, liquid crystal display, or similar display device or an image or text recorded on a computer hard disk, computer floppy disk, compact disk, magnetic tape, or similar data storage device.

MENTAL HEALTH CLIENT OR PATIENT. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2305.51.

MENTAL HEALTH PROFESSIONAL. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2305.115.

MINOR. A person under the age of 18.

NUDITY. The showing, representation, or depiction of human male or female genitals, pubic area, or buttocks with less than a full, opaque covering, or of a female breast with less than a full, opaque covering of any portion thereof below the top of the nipple, or of covered male genitals in a discernibly turgid state.

OBSCENE. When considered as a whole, and judged with reference to ordinary adults or, if it is designed for sexual deviates or other specially susceptible group, judged with reference to that group, any material or performance is Aobscene@ if any of the following apply:

(1)   Its dominant appeal is to prurient interest.

(2)   Its dominant tendency is to arouse lust by displaying or depicting sexual activity, masturbation, sexual excitement, or nudity in a way that tends to represent human beings as mere objects of sexual appetite.

(3)   Its dominant tendency is to arouse lust by displaying or depicting bestiality or extreme or bizarre violence, cruelty, or brutality.

(4)   Its dominant tendency is to appeal to scatological interest by displaying or depicting human bodily functions of elimination in a way that inspires disgust or revulsion in persons with ordinary sensibilities, without serving any genuine scientific, educational, sociological, moral, or artistic purpose.

(5)   It contains a series of displays or descriptions of sexual activity, masturbation, sexual excitement, nudity, bestiality, extreme or bizarre violence, cruelty, or brutality, or human bodily functions of elimination, the cumulative effect of which is a dominant tendency to appeal to prurient or scatological interest, when the appeal to such an interest is primarily for its own sake or for commercial exploitation, rather than primarily for a genuine scientific, educational, sociological, moral, or artistic purpose.

PERFORMANCE. Any motion picture, preview, trailer, play, show, skit, dance, or other exhibition performed before an audience.

PLACE WHERE A PERSON HAS A REASONABLE EXPECTATION OF PRIVACY. A place where a reasonable person would believe that the person could fully disrobe in private.

PRIVATE AREA. The genitals, pubic area, buttocks, or female breast below the top of the areola, where nude or covered by an undergarment.

PROSTITUTE. A male or female who promiscuously engages in sexual activity for hire, regardless of whether the hire is paid to the prostitute or to another.

SADO-MASOCHISTIC ABUSE. Flagellation or torture by or upon a person or the condition of being fettered, bound, or otherwise physically restrained.

SEXUAL ACTIVITY. Sexual conduct or sexual contact, or both.

SEXUAL CONDUCT. Vaginal intercourse between a male and female; anal intercourse, fellatio, and cunnilingus between persons regardless of sex; and, without privilege to do so, the insertion, however slight, of any part of the body or any instrument, apparatus, or other object into the vaginal or anal opening of another. Penetration, however slight, is sufficient to complete vaginal or anal intercourse.

SEXUAL CONTACT. Any touching of an erogenous zone of another, including without limitation the thigh, genitals, buttock, pubic region, or, if the person is a female, a breast, for the purpose of sexually arousing or gratifying either person.

SEXUAL EXCITEMENT. The condition of human male or female genitals when in a state of sexual stimulation or arousal.

SPOUSE. A person married to an offender at the time of an alleged offense, except that such person shall not be considered the spouse when any of the following apply:

(1)   When the parties have entered into a written separation agreement pursuant to R.C. §3103.06.

(2)   When an action is pending between the parties for annulment, divorce, dissolution of marriage, or legal separation.

(3)   In the case of an action for legal separation, after the effective date of the judgment for legal separation.

(R.C. §2907.01)  (Prior Code, §133.01)

§ 133.02  SOLICITING; LOITERING TO ENGAGE IN.

(A)  No person shall knowingly solicit another to engage in sexual activity for hire in exchange for the person receiving anything of value from the other person.

(B)  No person, with knowledge that the person has tested positive as a carrier of a virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, shall engage in conduct in violation of division (A) of this section.

(C)  As used in division (A) of this section, SEXUAL ACTIVITY FOR HIRE means an implicit or explicit agreement to provide sexual activity in exchange for anything of value paid to the person engaging in such sexual activity, to any person trafficking that person, or to any person associated with either such person.

(D)  (1)   Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of soliciting. Soliciting is a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(2)   Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of engaging in solicitation after a positive HIV test, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2907.24)

(E)  No person, with purpose to solicit another to engage in sexual activity for hire and while in or near a public place, shall do any of the following:

(1)   Beckon to, stop or attempt to stop another;

(2)   Engage or attempt to engage another in conversation;

(3)   Stop or attempt to stop the operator of a vehicle or approach a stationary vehicle;

(4)   If the offender is the operator of or a passenger in a vehicle, stop, attempt to stop, beckon to, attempt to beckon to, or entice another to approach or enter the vehicle of which the offender is the operator or in which the offender is the passenger;

(5)   Interfere with the free passage of another.

(F)   No person, with knowledge that the person has tested positive as a carrier of a virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, shall engage in conduct in violation of division (E) of this section.

(G)  As used in division (E) of this section:

PUBLIC PLACE. Means any of the following:

(a)   A street, road, highway, thoroughfare, bikeway, walkway, sidewalk, bridge, alley, alleyway, plaza, park, driveway, parking lot or transportation facility.

(b)   A doorway or entrance way to a building that fronts on a place described in division (a) of this definition.

(c)   A place not described in division (a) or (b) of this definition that is open to the public.

VEHICLE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4501.01.

(H)  (1)   Whoever violates division (E) of this section is guilty of loitering to engage in solicitation, a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(2)   Whoever violates division (F) of this section is guilty of loitering to engage in solicitation after a positive HIV test, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2907.241)

(G)  No person in a park shall solicit, or attempt to solicit, another to engage in an act of sexual perversion or solicit or request another to commit, perform, or engage in any lewd, lascivious, obscene, or indecent act or behavior.

(Prior Code, §133.02)  (Rules and Regs. §6.8)

Statutory reference:

Testing offenders for venereal disease and AIDS, see R.C. § 2907.27

§ 133.03  NUDITY; INDECENT EXPOSURE.

(A)  No person in a park shall appear in a state of nudity, or make any indecent exposure of his or her person.

(Rules and Regs. §6.9)

(B)  No person shall recklessly do any of the following, under circumstances in which the person’s conduct is likely to be viewed by and affront others who are in the person’s physical proximity and who are not members of the person’s household:

(1)   Expose the persons’s private parts.

(2)   Engage in sexual conduct or masturbation.

(3)   Engage in conduct that to an ordinary observer would appear to be sexual conduct or masturbation.

(C)  No person shall knowingly do any of the following, under circumstances in which the person’s conduct is likely to be viewed by and affront another person who is in the person’s physical proximity, who is a minor, and who is not the spouse of the offender:

(1)   Engage in masturbation.

(2)   Engage in sexual conduct.

(3)   Engage in conduct that to an ordinary observer would appear to be sexual conduct or masturbation.

(4)   Expose the person’s private parts with the purpose of personal sexual arousal or gratification or to lure the minor into sexual activity.

(D)  (1)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of public indecency and shall be punished as provided in divisions (D)(2), (D)(3), (D)(4), and (D)(5) of this section.

(2)   Except as otherwise provided in this division (D)(2), a violation of division (B)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a violation of division (B)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the third degree or, if any person who was likely to view and be affronted by the offender’s conduct was a minor, a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two violations of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a violation of division (B)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree or, if any person who was likely to view and be affronted by the offender’s conduct was a minor, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or more violations of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a violation of division (B)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree or, if any person who was likely to view and be affronted by the offender’s conduct was a minor, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   Except as otherwise provided in this division (D)(3), a violation of division (B)(2) or (B)(3) of this section is a misdemeanor of the third degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a violation of division (B)(2) or (B)(3) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree or, if any person who was likely to view and be affronted by the offender’s conduct was a minor, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two or more violations of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a violation of division (B)(2) or (B)(3) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree or, if any person who was likely to view and be affronted by the offender’s conduct was a minor, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(4)   Except as otherwise provided in this division (D)(4), a violation of division (C)(1), (C)(2), or (C)(3) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a violation of division (C)(1), (C)(2), or (C)(3) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two or more violations of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a violation of division (C)(1), (C)(2), or (C)(3) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(5)   Except as otherwise provided in this division (D)(5), a violation of division (C)(4) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any violation of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a violation of division (C)(4) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(E)  (1)   If either of the following applies, the court may determine at the time of sentencing whether to classify the offender as a tier I sex offender/child-victim offender for a violation of division (D)(4) of this section:

(a)   The offender is less than ten years older than the other person.

(b)   The offender is ten or more years older than the other person and the offender has not previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any violation of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance.

(2)   If the offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (C)(4) of this section, is ten or more years older than the other person, and previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any violation of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, the court shall issue an order at the time of sentencing that classifies the offender as a tier I sex offender/child-victim offender subject to registration under R.C. §§2950.04, 2950.041, 2950.05, and 2950.06.

(R.C. §2907.09)

(F)   A mother is entitled to breast-feed her baby in any location of a place of public accommodation, as defined in R.C. §4112.01, wherein the mother otherwise is permitted.

(R.C. §3781.55)

(Prior Code, §133.03)

Statutory reference:

Bail considerations for persons charged, see R.C. § 2907.41

§ 133.04  UNLAWFUL SEXUAL CONDUCT WITH A MINOR.

(A)  Generally. No person who is 18 years of age or older shall engage in sexual conduct with another who is not the spouse of the offender, when the offender knows the other person is 13 years of age or older but less than 16 years of age, or the offender is reckless in that regard.

(B)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of unlawful sexual conduct with a minor.

(1)   Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2), unlawful sexual conduct with a minor is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(3) of this section, if the offender is less than four years older than the other person, unlawful sexual conduct with a minor is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(3)   If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of R.C. §2907.02, 2907.03 or 2907.04, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, or a violation of former R.C. §2907.12, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, unlawful sexual conduct with a minor is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2907.04)  (Prior Code, §133.04)

§ 133.05  SEXUAL IMPOSITION.

(A)  Generally. No person shall have sexual contact with another, not the spouse of the offender; cause another, not the spouse of the offender, to have sexual contact with the offender; or cause two or more other persons to have sexual contact when any of the following applies:

(1)   The offender knows that the sexual contact is offensive to the other person, or one of the other persons, or is reckless in that regard.

(2)   The offender knows that the other person’s, or one of the other person’s ability to appraise the nature of or control the offender’s or touching person’s conduct is substantially impaired.

(3)   The offender knows that the other person, or one of the other persons, submits because of being unaware of the sexual contact.

(4)   The other person, or one of the other persons, is 13 years of age or older but less than 16 years of age, whether or not the offender knows the age of the person, and the offender is at least 18 years of age and four or more years older than the other person.

(5)   The offender is a mental health professional, the other person or one of the other persons is a mental health client or patient of the offender, and the offender induces the other person who is the client or patient to submit by falsely representing to the other person who is the client or patient that the sexual contact is necessary for mental health treatment purposes.

(B)  No conviction solely upon testimony unsupported by other evidence. No person shall be convicted of a violation of this section solely upon the victim’s testimony unsupported by other evidence.

(C)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of sexual imposition, a misdemeanor of the third degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section, R.C. §2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, former R.C. §2907.12, or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a violation of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or more violations of this section, R.C. §2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, former R.C. §2907.12, or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, or of any combination of those sections, a violation of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree and, notwithstanding the range of jail terms prescribed in R.C. §2929.24, the court may impose on the offender a definite jail term of not more than one year.

(R.C. §2907.06)  (Prior Code, §133.05)

Statutory reference:

Gross sexual imposition, felony, see R.C. § 2907.05

Notice to licensing board or agency upon indictment, conviction or guilty plea of mental health

  professional, see R.C. §§ 2907.17 and 2907.18

§ 133.06  VOYEURISM.

(A)  Trespass to spy to eavesdrop. No person, for the purpose of sexually arousing or gratifying himself or herself, shall commit trespass or otherwise surreptitiously invade the privacy of another, to spy or eavesdrop upon another.

(B)  Trespass for photographing another in a state of nudity. No person shall knowingly commit trespass or otherwise secretly or surreptitiously videotape, film, photograph, broadcast, stream, or otherwise record another person, in a place where a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy, for the purpose of viewing the private areas of that person.

(C)  Trespass for photographing another in a state of nudity; other person a minor. No person shall knowingly commit trespass or otherwise secretly or surreptitiously videotape, film, photograph, broadcast, stream, or otherwise record a minor, in a place where a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy, for the purpose of viewing the private areas of the minor.

(D)  Secret, surreptitious actions. No person shall secretly or surreptitiously videotape, film, photograph, or otherwise record another person above, under, or through the clothing being worn by that other person for the purpose of viewing the body of, or the undergarments worn by, that other person.

(E)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of voyeurism.

(1)   A violation of division (A) of this section is a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(2)   A violation of division (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(3)   A violation of division (D) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(4)   A violation of division (C) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2907.08)  (Prior Code, §133.06)

§ 133.07  PROCURING.

(A)  Procuring.

(1)   No person, knowingly and for gain, shall do either of the following:

(a)   Entice or solicit another to patronize a prostitute or brothel;

(b)   Procure a prostitute for another to patronize, or take or direct another at the other’s request to any place for the purpose of patronizing a prostitute.

(2)   No person, having authority or responsibility over the use of premises, shall knowingly permit the premises to be used for the purpose of engaging in sexual activity for hire.

(3)   Whoever violates division (A)(1)(a) or (A)(1)(b) of this section is guilty of procuring. Except as otherwise provided in this division, procuring is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the prostitute who is procured, patronized, or otherwise involved in a violation of division (A)(1)(b) of this section is under 18 years of age at the time of the violation, regardless of whether the offender who violates division (A)(1)(b) of this section knows the prostitute’s age, or if a prostitute who engages in sexual activity for hire in premises used in violation of division (A)(2) of this section is under 18 years of age at the time of the violation, regardless of whether the offender who violates division (A)(2) of this section knows the prostitute’s age, procuring is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2907.23)

(B)  Engagement in sexual activity for hire.

(1)   As used in this division (B):

PERSON WITH A DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2905.32.

SEXUAL ACTIVITY FOR HIRE. An implicit or explicit agreement to provide sexual activity in exchange for anything of value paid to the person engaging in such sexual activity, to any person trafficking that person, or to any person associated with either such person.

(2)   No person shall recklessly induce, entice, or procure another to engage in sexual activity for hire in exchange for the person giving anything of value to the other person.

(3)   No person shall recklessly induce, entice, or procure another to engage in sexual activity for hire in exchange for the person giving anything of value to the other person if the other person is a person with a developmental disability and the offender knows or has reasonable cause to believe that the other person is a person with a developmental disability.

(4)   Whoever violates division (B)(2) of this section is guilty of engaging in prostitution, a misdemeanor of the first degree. Whoever violates division (B)(3) of this section is guilty of engaging in prostitution with a person with a developmental disability, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. In sentencing the offender under this division, the court shall require the offender to attend an education or treatment program aimed at preventing persons from inducing, enticing, or procuring another to engage in sexual activity for hire in exchange for the person giving anything of value to the other person and, notwithstanding the fine specified in R.C. §2929.28(A)(2)(a) for a misdemeanor of the first degree, the court may impose upon the offender a fine of not more than $1,500.

(R.C. §2907.231)

(Prior Code, §133.07)

§ 133.08  PROSTITUTION.

(A)  No person shall engage in sexual activity for hire.

(B)  No person, with knowledge that the person has tested positive as a carrier of a virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, shall engage in sexual activity for hire.

(C)  (1)   Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of prostitution, a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(2)   Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of engaging in prostitution after a positive HIV test, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2907.25)  (Prior Code, §133.08)

Statutory reference:

Testing offenders for venereal disease and AIDS, see R.C. § 2907.27

§ 133.09  DISSEMINATING MATTER HARMFUL TO JUVENILES.

(A)  Generally. No person, with knowledge of its character or content, shall recklessly do any of following:

(1)   Directly sell, deliver, furnish, disseminate, provide, exhibit, rent, or present to a juvenile, a group of juveniles, a law enforcement officer posing as a juvenile, or a group of law enforcement officers posing as juveniles any material or performance that is obscene or harmful to juveniles;

(2)   Directly offer or agree to sell, deliver, furnish, disseminate, provide, exhibit, rent, or present to a juvenile, a group of juveniles, a law enforcement officer posing as a juvenile, or a group of law enforcement officers posing as juveniles any material or performance that is obscene or harmful to juveniles;

(3)   While in the physical proximity of the juvenile or law enforcement officer posing as a juvenile, allow any juvenile or law enforcement officer posing as a juvenile to review or peruse any material or view any live performance that is harmful to juveniles.

(B)  Affirmative defenses. The following are affirmative defenses to a charge under this section that involves material or a performance that is harmful to juveniles but not obscene:

(1)   The defendant is the parent, guardian, or spouse of the juvenile involved.

(2)   The juvenile involved, at the time of the conduct in question, was accompanied by his or her parent or guardian who, with knowledge of its character, consented to the material or performance being furnished or presented to the juvenile.

(3)   The juvenile exhibited to the defendant or his or her agent or employee a draft card, driver’s license, birth record, marriage license, or other official or apparently official document purporting to show that the juvenile was 18 years of age or over or married, and the person to whom the document was exhibited did not otherwise have reasonable cause to believe that the juvenile was under the age of 18 and unmarried.

(C)  Defenses.

(1)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this section, involving material or a performance that is obscene or harmful to juveniles, that the material or performance was furnished or presented for a bona fide medical, scientific, educational, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, librarian, clergy, prosecutor, judge, or other proper person.

(2)   Except as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, mistake of age is not a defense to a charge under this section.

(D)  Remote transmission.

(1)   A person directly sells, delivers, furnishes, disseminates, provides, exhibits, rents, or presents or directly offers or agrees to sell, deliver, furnish, disseminate, provide, exhibit, rent, or present material or a performance to a juvenile, a group of juveniles, a law enforcement officer posing as a juvenile, or a group of law enforcement officers posing as juveniles in violation of this section by means of an electronic method of remotely transmitting information if the person knows or has reason to believe that the person receiving the information is a juvenile or the group of persons receiving the information are juveniles.

(2)   A person remotely transmitting information by means of a method of mass distribution does not directly sell, deliver, furnish, disseminate, provide, exhibit, rent, or present or directly offer or agree to sell, deliver, furnish, disseminate, provide, exhibit, rent, or present the material or performance in question to a juvenile, a group of juveniles, a law enforcement officer posing as a juvenile, or a group of law enforcement officers posing as juveniles in violation of this section if either of the following applies:

(a)   The person has inadequate information to know or have reason to believe that a particular recipient of the information or offer is a juvenile.

(b)   The method of mass distribution does not provide the person the ability to prevent a particular recipient from receiving the information.

(E)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of disseminating matter harmful to juveniles. If the material or performance involved is harmful to juveniles except as otherwise provided in this division, a violation of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the material or performance involved is obscene, violation of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2907.31)

(F)   Presumptions, notice and defense.

(1)   An owner or manager, or agent or employee of an owner or manager, of a bookstore, newsstand, theater, or other commercial establishment engaged in selling material or exhibiting performances, who, in the course of business does any of the acts prohibited by this section is presumed to have knowledge of the character of the material or performance involved if the owner, manager, or agent or employee of the owner or manager has actual notice of the nature of such material or performance, whether or not the owner, manager, or agent or employee of the owner or manager has precise knowledge of its contents.

(2)   Without limitation on the manner in which such notice may be given, actual notice of the character of material or a performance may be given in writing by the chief legal officer of the municipality. Such notice, regardless of the manner in which it is given, shall identify the sender, identify the material or performance involved, state whether it is obscene or harmful to juveniles, and bear the date of such notice.

(3)   This §133.09 does not apply to a motion picture operator or projectionist acting within the scope of employment as an employee of the owner or manager of the theater or other place for the showing of motion pictures to the general public, and having no managerial responsibility or financial interest in the operator’s or projectionist’s place of employment, other than wages.

(4)   (a)   The provisions of §§133.09, 133.10 and 133.11(A) do not apply to a person solely because the person provided access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control, including having provided capabilities that are incidental to providing access or connection to or from the electronic method of remotely transferring the information, and that do not include the creation of the content of the material that is the subject of the access or connection.

(b)   Division (F)(4)(a) of this section does not apply to a person who conspires with an entity actively involved in the creation or knowing distribution of material in violation of §133.09, 133.10, or 133.11 or who knowingly advertises the availability of material of that nature.

(c)   Division (F)(4)(a) of this section does not apply to a person who provides access or connection to an electronic method of remotely transferring information that is engaged in the violation of §133.09, 133.10, or 133.11 and that contain content that person has selected and introduced into the electronic method of remotely transferring information or content over which that person exercises editorial control.

(5)   An employer is not guilty of a violation of §133.09, 133.10, or 133.11 based on the actions of an employee or agent of the employer unless the employee’s or agent’s conduct is within the scope of the employee’s or agent’s employment or agency, and the employer does either of the following:

(a)   With knowledge of the employee’s or agent’s conduct, the employer authorizes or ratifies the conduct.

(b)   The employer recklessly disregards the employee’s or agent’s conduct.

(6)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge under §133.09 or 133.10 as the section applies to an image transmitted through the internet or other electronic method of remotely transmitting information that the person charged with violating the section has taken, in good faith, reasonable, effective, and appropriate actions under the circumstances to restrict or prevent access by juveniles to material that is harmful to juveniles, including any method that is feasible under available technology.

(R.C. §2907.35)

(Prior Code, §133.09)

§ 133.10  DISPLAYING MATTER HARMFUL TO JUVENILES.

(A)  Generally. No person who has custody, control, or supervision of a commercial establishment, with knowledge of the character or content of the material involved, shall display at the establishment any material that is harmful to juveniles and that is open to view by juveniles as part of the invited general public.

(B)  Use of blinder rack; not a violation. It is not a violation of division (A) of this section if the material in question is displayed by placing it behind Ablinder racks@ or similar devices that cover at least the lower two-thirds of the material, if the material in question is wrapped or placed behind the counter, or if the material in question otherwise is covered or located so that the portion that is harmful to juveniles is not open to the view of juveniles.

(C)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of displaying matter harmful to juveniles, a misdemeanor of the first degree. Each day during which the offender is in violation of this section constitutes a separate offense.

(R.C. §2907.311)  (Prior Code, §133.10)

§ 133.11  DECEPTION TO OBTAIN MATTER HARMFUL TO JUVENILES.

(A)  Generally. No person, for the purpose of enabling a juvenile to obtain any material or gain admission to any performance which is harmful to juveniles, shall do either of the following:

(1)   Falsely represent that he or she is the parent, guardian, or spouse of the juvenile.

(2)   Furnish the juvenile with any identification or document purporting to show that the juvenile is 18 years of age or over or married.

(B)  Juveniles. No juvenile, for the purpose of obtaining any material or gaining admission to any performance which is harmful to juveniles, shall do either of the following:

(1)   Falsely represent that he or she is 18 years of age or over or married.

(2)   Exhibit any identification or document purporting to show that he or she is 18 years of age or over or married.

(C)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of deception to obtain matter harmful to juveniles, a misdemeanor of the second degree. A juvenile who violates division (B) of this section shall be adjudged an unruly child, with the disposition of the case as may be appropriate under R.C. Chapter 2151.

(R.C. §2907.33)  (Prior Code, §133.11)

Statutory reference:

Juvenile Court, see R.C. Chapter 2151

§ 133.12  POLYGRAPH EXAMINATIONS FOR VICTIMS; RESTRICTIONS ON USE.

(A)  (1)   A peace officer, prosecutor, other public official, defendant, defendant’s attorney, alleged juvenile offender, or alleged juvenile offender’s attorney shall not ask or require a victim of an alleged sex offense to submit to a polygraph examination as a condition for proceeding with the investigation or prosecution of the alleged sex offense.

(2)   The refusal of the victim of an alleged sex offense to submit to a polygraph examination shall not prevent the investigation of the alleged sex offense, the filing of criminal charges with respect to the alleged sex offense, or the prosecution of the alleged perpetrator of the alleged sex offense.

(B)  As used in this section:

ALLEGED JUVENILE OFFENDER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2930.01.

PEACE OFFICER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2921.51.

POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION. Means any mechanical or electrical instrument or device of any type used or allegedly used to examine, test, or question an individual for the purpose of determining the individual’s truthfulness.

PROSECUTION. Means the prosecution of criminal charges in a criminal prosecution or the prosecution of a delinquent child complaint in a delinquency proceeding.

PROSECUTOR. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2935.01.

PUBLIC OFFICIAL. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §117.01.

SEX OFFENSE. Means a violation of any provision of §§133.02 to 133.05 or R.C. §§2907.02 to 2907.09.

(R.C. §2907.10)

§ 133.13  RULES OF EVIDENCE.

(A)  In any case in which it is necessary to prove that a place is a brothel, evidence as to the reputation of such place and as to the reputation of the persons who inhabit or frequent it is admissible on the question of whether such place is or is not a brothel.

(B)  In any case in which it is necessary to prove that a person is a prostitute, evidence as to the reputation of such person is admissible on the question of whether such person is or is not a prostitute.

(C)  In any prosecution for a violation of §§133.07 through 133.08, proof of a prior conviction of the accused of any such offense or substantially equivalent offense is admissible in support of the charge.

(D)  The prohibition contained in R.C. §2317.02(D) against testimony by a husband or wife concerning communications between them does not apply, and the accused’s spouse may testify concerning any such communication in any of the following cases:

(1)   When the husband or wife is charged with a violation of §133.07 and the spouse testifying was the prostitute involved in the offense or the person who used the offender’s premises to engage in sexual activity for hire;

(2)   When the husband or wife is charged with a violation of §133.02(A) or §133.08.

(R.C. §2907.26)

§ 133.14  DECLARATORY JUDGMENT.

(A)  Without limitation on the persons otherwise entitled to bring an action for a declaratory judgment pursuant to R.C. Chapter 2721, involving the same issue, the following persons have standing to bring a declaratory judgment action to determine whether particular materials or performances are obscene or harmful to juveniles:

(1)   The chief legal officer of the municipality if and when there is reasonable cause to believe that R.C. §2907.31 or R.C. §2907.32, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, is being or is about to be violated;

(2)   Any person who, pursuant to R.C. §2907.35(B) or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, has received notice in writing from the chief legal officer stating that particular materials or performances are obscene or harmful to juveniles.

(B)  Any party to an action for a declaratory judgment pursuant to division (A) of this section is entitled, upon the party’s request, to trial on the merits within five days after joinder of the issues, and the court shall render judgment within five days after trial is concluded.

(C)  An action for a declaratory judgement pursuant to division (A) of this section shall not be brought during the pendency of any civil action or criminal prosecution when the character of the particular materials or performances involved is at issue in the pending case, and either of the following applies:

(1)   Either of the parties to the action for a declaratory judgment is a party to the pending case;

(2)   A judgment in the pending case will necessarily constitute res judicata as to the character of the materials or performances involved.

(D)  A civil action or criminal prosecution in which the character of particular materials or performances is at issue, brought during the pendency of an action for a declaratory judgment involving the same issue, shall be stayed during the pendency of the action for a declaratory judgment.

(E)  The fact that a violation of R.C. §2907.31 or R.C. §2907.32, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, occurs prior to a judicial determination of the character of the material or performance involved in the violation does not relieve the offender of criminal liability for the violation, even though prosecution may be stayed pending the judicial determination.

(R.C. §2907.36)

§ 133.15  INJUNCTION; ABATEMENT OF NUISANCE.

(A)  Where it appears that R.C. §2907.31 or R.C. §2907.32, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, is being or is about to be violated, the chief legal officer of the municipality may bring an action to enjoin the violation. The defendant, upon his or her request, is entitled to trial on the merits within five days after the joinder of the issues, and the court shall render judgment within five days after the trial is concluded.

(B)  Premises used or occupied for repeated violations of R.C. §2907.31 or R.C. §2907.32, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, constitute a nuisance subject to abatement pursuant to R.C. Chapter 3767.

(R.C. §2907.37)

Statutory reference:

Disseminating matter harmful to juveniles, felony, see R.C. § 2907.31

Pandering obscenity, felony, see R.C. § 2907.32

§ 133.16  UNLAWFUL OPERATION OF VIEWING BOOTHS DEPICTING SEXUAL CONDUCT.

(A)  As used in this section:

COMMERCIAL ESTABLISHMENT. Means an entity that is open to the public and to which either of the following applies:

(a)   It has a substantial or significant portion of its stock in trade of the sale, rental, or viewing of visual materials or performances depicting sexual conduct.

(b)   It has as a principal business purpose the sale, rental, or viewing of visual materials or performances depicting sexual conduct.

VISUAL MATERIALS OR PERFORMANCES. Means films, videos, CD-ROM discs, streaming video, or other motion pictures.

(B)  No person who has custody, control, or supervision of a commercial establishment, with knowledge of the character of the visual material or performance involved, shall knowingly permit the use of, or offer the use of, viewing booths, stalls, or partitioned portions of a room located in the commercial establishment for the purpose of viewing visual materials or performances depicting sexual conduct unless both of the following apply:

(1)   The inside of each booth, stall, or partitioned room is visible from, and at least one side of each booth, stall, or partitioned room is open to, a continuous and contiguous main aisle or hallway that is open to the public areas of the commercial establishment and is not obscured by any curtain, door, or other covering or enclosure.

(2)   No booth, stall, or partitioned room is designed, constructed, pandered, or allowed to be used for the purpose of encouraging or facilitating nudity or sexual activity on the part of or between patrons or members of the public, and no booth, stall, or partitioned room has any aperture, hole, or opening for the purpose of encouraging or facilitating nudity or sexual activity.

(C)  It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this section that either of the following applies to the involved visual materials or performances:

(1)   The visual materials or performances depicting sexual conduct are disseminated or presented for a bona fide medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose and by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies or research, librarian, member of the clergy, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the visual materials or performances.

(2)   The visual materials or performances depicting sexual conduct, taken as a whole, would be found by a reasonable person to have serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value or are presented or disseminated in good faith for a serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific purpose and are not pandered for their prurient appeal.

(D)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of permitting unlawful operation of viewing booths depicting sexual conduct, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2907.38)

§ 133.17  JUVENILES ON THE PREMISES OF ADULT ENTERTAINMENT ESTABLISHMENTS PROHIBITED.

(A)  As used in this section:

ADULT ARCADE. Means any place to which the public is permitted or invited in which coin‑operated, slug-operated, or electronically, electrically, or mechanically controlled still or motion picture machines, projectors, or other image-producing devices are regularly maintained to show images to five or fewer persons per machine at any one time, and in which the images so displayed are distinguished or characterized by their emphasis upon matter exhibiting or describing specified sexual activities or specified anatomical areas.

ADULT BOOKSTORE, ADULT NOVELTY STORE, or ADULT VIDEO STORE.

(a)   Means a commercial establishment that, for any form of consideration, has as a significant or substantial portion of its stock-in-trade in, derives a significant or substantial portion of its revenues from, devotes a significant or substantial portion of its interior business or advertising to, or maintains a substantial section of its sales or display space for the sale or rental of any of the following:

  1. Books, magazines, periodicals, or other printed matter, or photographs, films, motion pictures, video cassettes, compact discs, slides, or other visual representations, that are characterized by their emphasis upon the exhibition or description of specified sexual activities or specified anatomical areas;
  1. Instruments, devices, or paraphernalia that are designed for use or marketed primarily for stimulation of human genital organs or for sadomasochistic use or abuse of self or others.

(b)   Includes a commercial establishment as defined in R.C. §2907.38. An establishment may have other principal business purposes that do not involve the offering for sale, rental, or viewing of materials exhibiting or describing specified sexual activities or specified anatomical areas and still be categorized as an adult bookstore, adult novelty store, or adult video store. The existence of other principal business purposes does not exempt an establishment from being categorized as an adult bookstore, adult novelty store, or adult video store so long as one of its principal business purposes is offering for sale or rental, for some form of consideration, such materials that exhibit or describe specified sexual activities or specified anatomical areas.

ADULT CABARET. Means a nightclub, bar, juice bar, restaurant, bottle club, or similar commercial establishment, whether or not alcoholic beverages are served, that regularly features any of the following:

(a)   Persons who appear in a state of nudity or seminudity;

(b)   Live performances that are characterized by the exposure of specified anatomical areas or specified sexual activities;

(c)   Films, motion pictures, video cassettes, slides, or other photographic reproductions that are distinguished or characterized by their emphasis upon the exhibition or description of specified sexual activities or specified anatomical areas.

ADULT ENTERTAINMENT. Means the sale, rental, or exhibition, for any form of consideration, of books, films, video cassettes, magazines, periodicals, or live performances that are characterized by an emphasis on the exposure or display of specified anatomical areas or specified sexual activity.

ADULT ENTERTAINMENT ESTABLISHMENT. Means an adult arcade, adult bookstore, adult novelty store, adult video store, adult cabaret, adult motion picture theater, adult theater, nude or seminude model studio, or sexual encounter establishment. An establishment in which a medical practitioner, psychologist, psychiatrist, or similar professional person licensed by the state engages in medically approved and recognized therapy, including but not limited to massage therapy, as regulated pursuant to R.C. §4731.15, is not an Aadult entertainment establishment@.

ADULT MOTION PICTURE THEATER. Means a commercial establishment where films, motion pictures, video cassettes, slides, or similar photographic reproductions that are distinguished or characterized by their emphasis upon the exhibition or description of specified sexual activities or specified anatomical areas are regularly shown for any form of consideration.

ADULT THEATER. Means a theater, concert hall, auditorium, or similar commercial establishment that, for any form of consideration, regularly features persons who appear in a state of nudity or seminudity or live performances that are characterized by their emphasis upon the exposure of specified anatomical areas or specified sexual activities.

DISTINGUISHED OR CHARACTERIZED BY THEIR EMPHASIS UPON. Means the dominant or principal character and theme of the object described by this phrase. For instance, when the phrase refers to films Athat are distinguished or characterized by their emphasis upon the exhibition or description of specified sexual activities or specified anatomical areas@, the films so described are those whose dominant or principal character and theme are the exhibition or description of specified sexual activities or specified anatomical areas.

NUDE OR SEMINUDE MODEL STUDIO. Means any place where a person, who regularly appears in a state of nudity or seminudity, is provided for money or any other form of consideration to be observed, sketched, drawn, painted, sculptured, photographed, or similarly depicted by other persons. A modeling class or studio is not a nude or seminude model studio and is not subject to this chapter if it is operated in any of the following ways:

(a)   By a college or university supported entirely or partly by taxation;

(b)   By a private college or university that maintains and operates educational programs, the credits for which are transferable to a college or university supported entirely or partly by taxation;

(c)   In a structure that has no sign visible from the exterior of the structure and no other advertising indicating that a person appearing in a state of nudity or seminudity is available for viewing, if in order to participate in a class in the structure, a student must enroll at least three days in advance of the class and if not more than one nude or seminude model is on the premises at any one time.

NUDITY, NUDE, or STATE OF NUDITY. Means the showing of the human male or female genitals, pubic area, vulva, anus, anal cleft, or cleavage with less than a fully opaque covering; or the showing of the female breasts with less than a fully opaque covering of any part of the nipple.

REGULARLY FEATURES or REGULARLY SHOWN. Means a consistent or substantial course of conduct, such that the films or performances exhibited constitute a substantial portion of the films or performances offered as a part of the ongoing business of the adult entertainment establishment.

SEMINUDE or STATE OF SEMINUDITY. Means a state of dress in which opaque clothing covers not more than the genitals, pubic region, and nipple of the female breast, as well as portions of the body covered by supporting straps or devices.

SEXUAL ENCOUNTER ESTABLISHMENT.

(a)   Means a business or commercial establishment that, as one of its principal business purposes, offers for any form of consideration a place where either of the following occur:

  1. Two or more persons may congregate, associate, or consort for the purpose of engaging in specified sexual activities.
  1. Two or more persons appear nude or seminude for the purpose of displaying their nude or seminude bodies for their receipt of consideration or compensation in any type or form.

(b)   An establishment where a medical practitioner, psychologist, psychiatrist, or similar professional person licensed by the state engages in medically approved and recognized therapy, including but not limited to massage therapy, as regulated pursuant to R.C. §4731.15, is not a Asexual encounter establishment@.

SPECIFIED ANATOMICAL AREAS. Means the cleft of the buttocks, anus, male or female genitals, or the female breast.

SPECIFIED SEXUAL ACTIVITY. Means any of the following:

(a)   Sex acts, normal or perverted, or actual or simulated, including intercourse, oral copulation, masturbation, or sodomy;

(b)   Excretory functions as a part of or in connection with any of the activities described in division (a) of this definition.

(B)  No person knowingly shall allow an individual, including but not limited to a patron, customer, or employee, who is under 18 years of age on the premises of an adult entertainment establishment.

(C)  No individual who is under 18 years of age knowingly shall show or give false information concerning the individual’s name or age, or other false identification, for the purpose of gaining entrance to an adult entertainment establishment.

(D)  A person shall not be found guilty of a violation of division (B) of this section if the person raises as an affirmative defense and if the jury or, in a nonjury trial, the court finds the person has established by a preponderance of the evidence, all of the following:

(1)   The individual gaining entrance to the adult entertainment establishment exhibited to an operator, employee, agent, or independent contractor of the adult entertainment establishment a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or an identification card issued under R.C. §§4507.50 and 4507.52 showing that the individual was then at least 18 years of age.

(2)   The operator, employee, agent, or independent contractor made a bona fide effort to ascertain the true age of the individual gaining entrance to the adult entertainment establishment by checking the identification presented, at the time of entrance, to ascertain that the description on the identification compared with the appearance of the individual and that the identification had not been altered in any way.

(3)   The operator, employee, agent, or independent contractor had reason to believe that the individual gaining entrance to the adult entertainment establishment was at least 18 years of age.

(E)  In any criminal action in which the affirmative defense described in division (D) of this section is raised, the Registrar of Motor Vehicles or the deputy registrar who issued a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or an identification card under R.C. §§4507.50 and 4507.52 shall be permitted to submit certified copies of the records, in the Registrar’s or deputy registrar’s possession, of the issuance of the license or identification card in question, in lieu of the testimony of the personnel of the Bureau of Motor Vehicles in the action.

(F)   (1)   Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of permitting a juvenile on the premises of an adult entertainment establishment, a misdemeanor of the first degree. Each day a person violates this division constitutes a separate offense.

(2)   Whoever violates division (C) of this section is guilty of use by a juvenile of false information to enter an adult entertainment establishment, a delinquent act that would be a misdemeanor of the fourth degree if committed by an adult.

(R.C. §2907.39)

§ 133.18  SEXUALLY ORIENTED BUSINESSES; ILLEGAL OPERATION AND ACTIVITY.

(A)  As used in this section:

ADULT BOOKSTORE or ADULT VIDEO STORE. Means a commercial establishment that has as a significant or substantial portion of its stock in trade or inventory in, derives a significant or substantial portion of its revenues from, devotes a significant or substantial portion of its interior business or advertising to, or maintains a substantial section of its sales or display space for the sale or rental, for any form of consideration, of books, magazines, periodicals, or other printed matter, or photographs, films, motion pictures, video cassettes, compact discs, slides, or other visual representations, that are characterized by their emphasis upon the exhibition or description of specified sexual activities or specified anatomical areas.

ADULT CABARET. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2907.39.

ADULT MOTION PICTURE THEATER. Means a commercial establishment where films, motion pictures, videocassettes, slides, or similar photographic reproductions that are characterized by their emphasis upon the display of specified sexual activities or specified anatomical areas are regularly shown to more than five individuals for any form of consideration.

CHARACTERIZED BY. Describing the essential character or quality of an item.

EMPLOYEE. Means any individual who performs any service on the premises of a sexually oriented business on a full-time, part-time, or contract basis, regardless of whether the individual is denominated an employee, independent contractor, agent, or otherwise, but does not include an individual exclusively on the premises for repair or maintenance of the premises or for the delivery of goods to the premises.

NUDE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2907.39.

NUDITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2907.39.

OPERATOR. Means any individual on the premises of a sexually oriented business who causes the business to function or who puts or keeps in operation the business or who is authorized to manage the business or exercise overall operational control of the business premises.

PATRON. Means any individual on the premises of a sexually oriented business except for any of the following:

(a)   An operator or an employee of the sexually oriented business;

(b)   An individual who is on the premises exclusively for repair or maintenance of the premises or for the delivery of goods to the premises;

(c)   A public employee or a volunteer firefighter emergency medical services worker acting within the scope of the public employee’s or volunteer’s duties as a public employee or volunteer.

PREMISES. Means the real property on which the sexually oriented business is located and all appurtenances to the real property, including, but not limited, to the sexually oriented business, the grounds, private walkways, and parking lots or parking garages adjacent to the real property under the ownership, control, or supervision of the owner or operator of the sexually oriented business.

REGULARLY. Means consistently or repeatedly.

SEMINUDE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2907.39.

SEXUAL DEVICE. Means any three-dimensional object designed and marketed for stimulation of the male or female human genitals or anus or female breasts or for sadomasochistic use or abuse of oneself or others, including but not limited to dildos, vibrators, penis pumps, and physical representations of the human genital organs, but not including devices primarily intended for protection against sexually transmitted diseases or for preventing pregnancy.

SEXUAL DEVICE SHOP. Means a commercial establishment that regularly features sexual devices, but not including any pharmacy, drug store, medical clinic, or establishment primarily dedicated to providing medical or healthcare products or services, and not including any commercial establishment that does not restrict access to its premises by reason of age.

SEXUAL ENCOUNTER CENTER. Means a business or commercial enterprise that, as one of its principal business purposes, purports to offer for any form of consideration physical contact in the form of wrestling or tumbling between individuals of the opposite sex when one or more of the individuals is nude or seminude.

SEXUALLY ORIENTED BUSINESS. Means an adult bookstore, adult video store, adult cabaret, adult motion picture theater, sexual device shop, or sexual encounter center, but does not include a business solely by reason of its showing, selling, or renting materials that may depict sex.

SPECIFIED ANATOMICAL AREAS. Includes human genitals, pubic region, and buttocks and the human female breast below a point immediately above the top of the areola.

SPECIFIED SEXUAL ACTIVITY. Means sexual intercourse, oral copulation, masturbation, or sodomy, or excretory functions as a part of or in connection with any of these activities.

STATE OF NUDITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2907.39.

STATE OF SEMINUDITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2907.39.

(B)  No sexually oriented business shall be or remain open for business between 12:00 midnight and 6:00 a.m. on any day, except that a sexually oriented business that holds a liquor permit pursuant to R.C. Chapter 4303 may remain open until the hour specified in that permit if it does not conduct, offer, or allow sexually oriented entertainment activity in which the performers appear nude.

(C)  (1)   No patron who is not a member of the employee’s immediate family shall knowingly touch any employee while that employee is nude or seminude or touch the clothing of any employee while that employee is nude or seminude.

(2)   No employee who regularly appears nude or seminude on the premises of a sexually oriented business, while on the premises of that sexually oriented business and while nude or seminude, shall knowingly touch a patron who is not a member of the employee’s immediate family or another employee who is not a member of the employee’s immediate family or the clothing of a patron who is not a member of the employee’s immediate family or another employee who is not a member of the employee’s immediate family or allow a patron who is not a member of the employee’s immediate family or another employee who is not a member of the employee’s immediate family to touch the employee or the clothing of the employee.

(D)  Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of illegally operating a sexually oriented business, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(E)  Whoever violates division (C) of this section is guilty of illegal sexually oriented activity in a sexually oriented business. If the offender touches a specified anatomical area of the patron or employee, or the clothing covering a specified anatomical area, a violation of division (C) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender does not touch a specified anatomical area of the patron or employee, or the clothing covering a specified anatomical area, a violation of division (C) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(R.C. §2907.40)

Statutory reference:

State indemnification for certain municipal liability stemming from local adult business regulations,

  see R.C. § 715.55

§ 133.19  UNLAWFUL ADVERTISING OF MASSAGE.

(A)  No person, by means of a statement, solicitation, or offer in a print or electronic publication, sign, placard, storefront display, or other medium, shall advertise massage, relaxation massage, any other massage technique or method, or any related service, with the suggestion or promise of sexual activity.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of unlawful advertising of massage, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(C)  Nothing in this section prevents the municipality from enacting any regulation of the advertising of massage further than and in addition to the provisions of divisions (A) and (B) of this section.

(D)  As used in this section, SEXUAL ACTIVITY has the same meaning as in R.C. §2907.01.

(R.C. §2927.17)

§ 133.20  NONCONSENSUAL DISSEMINATION OF PRIVATE SEXUAL IMAGES.

(A)  As used in this section:

CABLE SERVICE PROVIDER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §1332.01.

DIRECT-TO-HOME SATELLITE SERVICE. Has the meaning defined in 47 U.S.C. §303, as amended.

DISSEMINATE. Means to post, distribute, or publish on a computer device, computer network, web site, or other electronic device or medium of communication.

IMAGE. Means a photograph, film, videotape, digital recording, or other depiction or portrayal of a person.

INTERACTIVE COMPUTER SERVICE. Has the meaning defined in the ATelecommunications Act of 1996@, 47 U.S.C. §230, as amended.

INTERNET PROVIDER. Means a provider of internet service, including all of the following:

(a)   Broadband service, however defined or classified by the Federal Communications Commission;

(b)   Information service or telecommunications service, both as defined in the ATelecommunications Act of 1996@, 47 U.S.C. §153, as amended;

(c)   Internet protocol-enabled services, as defined in R.C. §4927.01.

MOBILE SERVICE. Has the meaning defined in 47 U.S.C. §153, as amended.

SEXUAL ACT. Means any of the following:

(a)   Sexual activity;

(b)   Masturbation;

(c)   An act involving a bodily substance that is performed for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification;

(d)   Sado‑masochistic abuse.

TELECOMMUNICATIONS CARRIER. Has the meaning defined in 47 U.S.C. §153, as amended.

VIDEO SERVICE PROVIDER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §1332.21.

(B)  No person shall knowingly disseminate an image of another person if all of the following apply:

(1)   The person in the image is 18 years of age or older.

(2)   The person in the image can be identified from the image itself or from information displayed in connection with the image and the offender supplied the identifying information.

(3)   The person in the image is in a state of nudity or is engaged in a sexual act.

(4)   The image is disseminated without consent from the person in the image.

(5)   The image is disseminated with intent to harm the person in the image.

(C)  This section does not prohibit the dissemination of an image if any of the following apply:

(1)   The image is disseminated for the purpose of a criminal investigation that is otherwise lawful.

(2)   The image is disseminated for the purpose of, or in connection with, the reporting of unlawful conduct.

(3)   The image is part of a news report or commentary or an artistic or expressive work, such as a performance, work of art, literary work, theatrical work, musical work, motion picture, film, or audiovisual work.

(4)   The image is disseminated by a law enforcement officer, or a corrections officer or guard in a detention facility, acting within the scope of the person’s official duties.

(5)   The image is disseminated for another lawful public purpose.

(6)   The person in the image is knowingly and willingly in a state of nudity or engaged in a sexual act and is knowingly and willingly in a location in which the person does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy.

(7)   The image is disseminated for the purpose of medical treatment or examination.

(D)  The following entities are not liable for a violation of this section solely as a result of an image or other information provided by another person:

(1)   A provider of interactive computer service;

(2)   A mobile service;

(3)   A telecommunications carrier;

(4)   An internet provider;

(5)   A cable service provider;

(6)   A direct-to-home satellite service;

(7)   A video service provider.

(E)  Any conduct that is a violation of this section and any other section of this Code or the Ohio Revised Code may be prosecuted under this section, the other section, or both sections.

(F)   (1)   (a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (F)(1)(b), (F)(1)(c), or (F)(1)(d) of this section, whoever violates this section is guilty of nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images, a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(b)   If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images is a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(c)   If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two or more violations of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, nonconsensual dissemination of private sexual images is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(d)   If the offender is under 18 years of age and the person in the image is not more than five years older than the offender, the offender shall not be prosecuted under this section.

(2)   In addition to any other penalty or disposition authorized or required by law, the court may order any person who is convicted of a violation of this section or who is adjudicated delinquent by reason of a violation of this section to criminally forfeit all of the following property to the state under R.C. Chapter 2981:

(a)   Any profits or proceeds and any property the person has acquired or maintained in violation of this section that the sentencing court determines to have been acquired or maintained as a result of the violation;

(b)   Any interest in, securities of, claim against, or property or contractual right of any kind affording a source of influence over any enterprise that the person has established, operated, controlled, or conducted in violation of this section that the sentencing court determines to have been acquired or maintained as a result of the violation.

(G)  A victim of a violation of this section may commence a civil cause of action against the offender, as described in R.C. §2307.66.

(R.C. §2917.211)

§ 133.99  SENTENCING FOR SEXUALLY ORIENTED OFFENSES; SEXUAL PREDATORS; REGISTRATION.

(A)  If an offender is being sentenced for a sexually oriented offense or child-victim oriented offense that is a misdemeanor committed on or after January 1, 1997, and the offender is a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender relative to the offense or the offense is any offense listed in R.C. §2901.07(D)(1) to (D)(3), the judge shall include in the offender’s sentence a statement that the offender is a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender, shall comply with the requirements of R.C. §2950.03, and shall require the offender to submit to a DNA specimen collection procedure pursuant to R.C. §2901.07.

(B)  If an offender is being sentenced for a sexually oriented offense or a child-victim oriented offense that is a misdemeanor committed on or after January 1, 1997, the judge shall include in the sentence a summary of the offender’s duties imposed under R.C. §§2950.04, 2950.041, 2950.05, and 2950.06, and the duration of the duties. The judge shall inform the offender, at the time of sentencing, of those duties and of their duration. If required under R.C. §2950.03(A)(2), the judge shall perform the duties specified in that section or, if required under R.C. §2950.03(A)(6), the judge shall perform the duties specified in that division.

(R.C. §2929.23)

Cross-reference:

Sentencing generally, see Chapter 130

CHAPTER 134: GAMBLING OFFENSES

Section

134.01   Definitions
134.02   Public gaming
134.03   Cheating
134.04   Prohibitions against gambling; exception
134.05   Operating a gambling house
134.06   Regulations concerning operation of licensed bingo game
134.07   Records to be kept
134.08   Requirements for bingo game operators
134.09   Bingo games for amusement only
134.10   Prohibitions where instant bingo game is conducted
134.11   Raffle drawings
134.12   Instant bingo other than at bingo sessions
134.13   Restrictions on owner or lessor of location at instant bingo
134.14   Skill-based amusement machines; prohibited conduct
134.15   Electronic instant bingo; prohibited conduct

Statutory reference:

Conducting an illegal bingo game, felony, see R.C. § 2915.07

Licensing bingo games by Attorney General, see R.C. § 2915.08

Licensing distributors of bingo supplies by Attorney General, see R.C. § 2915.081

Licensing manufacturers of bingo supplies by Attorney General, see R.C. § 2915.082

§ 134.01  DEFINITIONS.

For the purpose of this chapter, the following definitions shall apply unless the context clearly indicates or requires a different meaning.

BET. The hazarding of anything of value upon the result of an event, undertaking, or contingency, but does not include a bona fide business risk.

BINGO. Either of the following:

(1)   A game with all of the following characteristics:

(a)   The participants use bingo cards or sheets, including paper formats and electronic representation or image formats, that are divided into 25 spaces arranged in five horizontal and five vertical rows of spaces, with each space, except the central space, being designated by a combination of a letter and a number and with the central space being designated as a free space;

(b)   The participants cover the spaces on the bingo cards or sheets that correspond to combinations of letters and numbers that are announced by a bingo game operator;

(c)   A bingo game operator announces combinations of letters and numbers that appear on objects that a bingo game operator selects by chance, either manually or mechanically, from a receptacle that contains 75 objects at the beginning of each game, each object marked by a different combination of a letter and a number that corresponds to one of the 75 possible combinations of a letter and a number that can appear on the bingo cards or sheets;

(d)   The winner of the bingo game includes any participant who properly announces during the interval between the announcements of letters and numbers, as described in division (1)(c) of this definition, that a predetermined and pre-announced pattern of spaces has been covered on a bingo card or sheet being used by the participant.

(2)   Instant bingo, electronic instant bingo, and raffles.

BINGO GAME OPERATOR. Any person, except security personnel, who performs work or labor at the site of bingo including but not limited to collecting money from participants, handing out bingo cards or sheets or objects to cover spaces on bingo cards or sheets, selecting from a receptacle the objects that contain the combination of letters and numbers that appear on bingo cards or sheets, calling out the combinations of letters and numbers, distributing prizes, selling or redeeming instant bingo tickets or cards, selling or redeeming electronic instant bingo tickets, credits, or vouchers, accessing an electronic instant bingo system other than as a participant, supervising the operation of a punch board, selling raffle tickets, selecting raffle tickets from a receptacle and announcing the winning numbers in a raffle, and preparing, selling, and serving food or beverages. ABingo game operator@ does not include a person who is installing, maintaining, updating, or repairing an electronic instant bingo system.

BINGO SESSION. A period that includes both of the following:

(1)   Not to exceed five continuous hours for the conduct of one or more games described in division (1) of the definition of Abingo@ in this section, instant bingo, and electronic instant bingo;

(2)   A period for the conduct of instant bingo and electronic instant bingo for not more than two hours before and not more than two hours after the period described in division (1) of this definition.

BINGO SUPPLIES. Bingo cards or sheets; instant bingo tickets or cards; electronic bingo aids; raffle tickets; punch boards; seal cards; instant bingo ticket dispensers; electronic instant bingo systems; and devices for selecting or displaying the combination of bingo letters and numbers or raffle tickets. Items that are Abingo supplies@ are not gambling devices if sold or otherwise provided, and used, in accordance with this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2915. For purposes of this chapter, Abingo supplies@ are not to be considered equipment used to conduct a bingo game.

BOOKMAKING. The business of receiving or paying off bets.

CHAMBER OF COMMERCE. Any organization of individuals, professionals, and businesses that has the purpose to advance the commercial, financial, industrial, and civic interests of the community and that is, and has received from the Internal Revenue Service a determination letter that currently is in effect stating that the organization is, exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(6).

CHARITABLE BINGO GAME. Any bingo game described in divisions (1) or (2) of the definition of Abingo@ in this section that is conducted by a charitable organization that has obtained a license pursuant to R.C. §2915.08 and the proceeds of which are used for a charitable purpose.

CHARITABLE INSTANT BINGO ORGANIZATION. An organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(3) and is a charitable organization as defined in this section. The term does not include a charitable organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(3) and that is created by a veteran’s organization, a fraternal organization, or a sporting organization in regards to bingo conducted or assisted by a veteran’s organization, a fraternal organization, or a sporting organization pursuant to R.C. §2915.13, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

CHARITABLE ORGANIZATION.

(1)   Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, Acharitable organization@ means either of the following:

(a)   An organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(3);

(b)   A volunteer rescue service organization, volunteer firefighter’s organization, veteran’s organization, fraternal organization, or sporting organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §§501(c)(4), 501(c)(7), 501(c)(8), 501(c)(10) or 501(c)(19).

(2)   To qualify as a charitable organization, an organization shall have been in continuous existence as such in this state for a period of two years immediately preceding either the making of an application for a bingo license under R.C. §2915.08 or the conducting of any game of chance as provided in R.C. §2915.02(D), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

CHARITABLE PURPOSE. Means that the net profit of bingo, other than instant bingo or electronic instant bingo, is used by, or is given, donated, or otherwise transferred to, any of the following:

(1)   Any organization that is described in I.R.C. §§509(a)(1), 509(a)(2), or 509(a)(3) and is either a governmental unit or an organization that is tax exempt under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(3);

(2)   A veteran’s organization that is a post, chapter, or organization of veterans, or an auxiliary unit or society of, or a trust or foundation for, any such post, chapter, or organization organized in the United States or any of its possessions, at least 75% of the members of which are veterans and substantially all of the other members of which are individuals who are spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, or such individuals, provided that no part of the net earnings of such post, chapter, or organization inures to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and further provided that the net profit is used by the post, chapter, or organization for the charitable purposes set forth in R.C. §5739.02(B)(12), is used for awarding scholarships to or for attendance at an institution mentioned in that division of the Ohio Revised Code, is donated to a governmental agency, or is used for nonprofit youth activities, the purchase of United States or Ohio flags that are donated to schools, youth groups, or other bona fide nonprofit organizations, promotion of patriotism, or disaster relief;

(3)   A fraternal organization that has been in continuous existence in this state for 15 years and that uses the net profit exclusively for religious, charitable, scientific, literary, or educational purposes, or for the prevention of cruelty to children or animals, if contributions for such use would qualify as a deductible charitable contribution under I.R.C. §170;

(4)   A volunteer firefighter’s organization that uses the net profit for the purposes set forth in the definition of Avolunteer firefighter’s organization@ in this section.

COMMUNITY ACTION AGENCY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §122.66.

CONDUCT. To back, promote, organize, manage, carry on, sponsor, or prepare for the operation of bingo or a game of chance, a scheme of chance, or a sweepstakes.

DEAL. A single game of instant bingo tickets, or a single game of electronic instant bingo tickets, all with the same serial number.

DISTRIBUTOR. Any person who purchases or obtains bingo supplies and who does either of the following:

(1)   Sells, offers for sale, or otherwise provides or offers to provide the bingo supplies to another person for use in this state;

(2)   Modifies, converts, adds to, or removes parts from the bingo supplies to further their promotion or sale for use in this state.

ELECTRONIC BINGO AID.

(1)   An electronic device used by a participant to monitor bingo cards or sheets purchased at the time and place of a bingo session and that does all of the following:

(a)   It provides a means for a participant to input numbers and letters announced by a bingo caller.

(b)   It compares the numbers and letters entered by the participant to the bingo faces previously stored in the memory of the device.

(c)   It identifies a winning bingo pattern.

(2)   The term does not include any device into which a coin, currency, token, or an equivalent is inserted to activate play.

ELECTRONIC INSTANT BINGO.

(1)   A form of bingo that consists of an electronic or digital representation of instant bingo in which a participant wins a prize if the participant’s electronic instant bingo ticket contains a combination of numbers or symbols that was designated in advance as a winning combination, and to which all of the following apply:

(a)   Each deal has a predetermined, finite number of winning and losing tickets and a predetermined prize amount and deal structure, provided that there may be multiple winning combinations in each deal and multiple winning tickets.

(b)   Each electronic instant bingo ticket within a deal has a unique serial number that is not regenerated.

(c)   Each electronic instant bingo ticket within a deal is sold for the same price.

(d)   After a participant purchases an electronic instant bingo ticket, the combination of numbers or symbols on the ticket is revealed to the participant.

(e)   The reveal of numbers or symbols on the ticket may incorporate an entertainment or bonus theme, provided that the reveal does not include spinning reels that resemble a slot machine.

(f)   The reveal theme, if any, does not require additional consideration or award any prize other than any predetermined prize associated with the electronic instant bingo ticket.

(2)   The term shall not include any of the following:

(a)   Any game, entertainment, or bonus theme that replicates or simulates any of the following:

  1. The gambling games of keno, blackjack, roulette, poker, craps, other casino-style table games;
  1. Horse racing;
  1. Gambling games offered in this state on slot machines or video lottery terminals. As used in this division, Avideo lottery terminal@ has the same meaning as in R.C. §3770.21.

(b)   Any device operated by dropping one or more coins or tokens into a slot and pulling a handle or pushing a button or touchpoint on a touchscreen to activate one to three or more rotating reels marked into horizontal segments by varying symbols, where the predetermined prize amount depends on how and how many of the symbols line up when the rotating reels come to a rest;

(c)   Any device that includes a coin or token slot, tray, or hopper and the ability to dispense coins, cash, tokens, or anything of value other than a credit ticket voucher.

ELECTRONIC INSTANT BINGO SYSTEM. Means both of the following:

(1)   A mechanical, electronic, digital, or video device and associated software to which all of the following apply:

(a)   It is used by not more than one player at a time to play electronic instant bingo on a single screen that is physically connected to the device;

(b)   It is located on the premises of the principal place of business of a veteran’s or fraternal organization that holds a type II or type III bingo license to conduct electronic instant bingo at that location issued under R.C. §2915.08.

(2)   Any associated equipment or software used to manage, monitor, or document any aspect of electronic instant bingo.

EXPENSES. The reasonable amount of gross profit actually expended for all of the following:

(1)   The purchase or lease of bingo supplies;

(2)   The annual license fee required under R.C. §2915.08;

(3)   Bank fees and service charges for a bingo session or game account described in R.C. §2915.10;

(4)   Audits and accounting services;

(5)   Safes;

(6)   Cash registers;

(7)   Hiring security personnel;

(8)   Advertising bingo;

(9)   Renting premises in which to conduct a bingo session;

(10)  Tables and chairs;

(11)  Expenses for maintaining and operating a charitable organization’s facilities, including but not limited to a post home, club house, lounge, tavern, or canteen and any grounds attached to the post home, club house, lounge, tavern, or canteen;

(12)  Payment of real property taxes and assessments that are levied on a premises on which bingo is conducted;

(13)  Any other product or service directly related to the conduct of bingo that is authorized in rules adopted by the Attorney General under R.C. §2915.08(F)(1).

FRATERNAL ORGANIZATION. Any society, order, state headquarters, or association within this state, except a college or high school fraternity, that is not organized for profit, that is a branch, lodge, or chapter of a national or state organization, that exists exclusively for the common business or sodality of its members.

GAMBLING DEVICE. Any of the following:

(1)   A book, totalizer, or other equipment used for recording bets;

(2)   A ticket, token, or other device representing a chance, share, or interest in a scheme of chance or evidencing a bet;

(3)   A deck of cards, dice, gaming table, roulette wheel, slot machine, or other apparatus designed for use in connection with a game of chance;

(4)   Any equipment, device, apparatus, or paraphernalia specially designed for gambling purposes;

(5)   Bingo supplies sold or otherwise provided, or used, in violation of this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2915.

GAMBLING OFFENSE. Any of the following:

(1)   A violation of R.C. Chapter 2915;

(2)   A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or of the United States substantially equivalent to any provision of this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2915 or a violation of R.C. §2915.06 as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;

(3)   An offense under an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or of the United States, of which gambling is an element;

(4)   A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in committing, any offense under division (1), (2), or (3) of this definition.

GAME FLARE. The board or placard, or electronic representation of a board or placard, that accompanies each deal of instant bingo or electronic instant bingo tickets and that includes the following information for the game:

(1)   The name of the game;

(2)   The manufacturer’s name or distinctive logo;

(3)   The form number;

(4)   The ticket count;

(5)   The prize structure, including the number of winning tickets by denomination and the respective winning symbol or number combinations for the winning tickets;

(6)   The cost per play;

(7)   The serial number of the game.

GAME OF CHANCE. Poker, craps, roulette, or other game in which a player gives anything of value in the hope of gain, the outcome of which is determined largely by chance, but does not include bingo.

GAME OF CHANCE CONDUCTED FOR PROFIT. Any game of chance designed to produce income for the person who conducts or operates the game of chance, but does not include bingo.

GROSS ANNUAL REVENUES. The annual gross receipts derived from the conduct of bingo described in division (1) of the definition of Abingo@ in this section plus the annual net profit derived from the conduct of bingo described in division (2) of the definition of Abingo@ in this section.

GROSS PROFIT. Gross receipts minus the amount actually expended for the payment of prize awards.

GROSS RECEIPTS. All money or assets, including admission fees, that a person receives from bingo without the deduction of any amounts for prizes paid out or for the expenses of conducting bingo. The term does not include any money directly taken in from the sale of food or beverages by a charitable organization conducting bingo, or by a bona fide auxiliary unit or society of a charitable organization conducting bingo, provided all of the following apply:

(1)   The auxiliary unit or society has been in existence as a bona fide auxiliary unit or society of the charitable organization for at least two years prior to conducting bingo.

(2)   The person who purchases the food or beverage receives nothing of value except the food or beverage and items customarily received with the purchase of that food or beverage.

(3)   The food and beverages are sold at customary and reasonable prices.

HISTORIC RAILROAD. All or a portion of the tracks and right-of-way of a railroad that was owned and operated by a for profit common carrier in this state at any time prior to January 1, 1950.

INSTANT BINGO. A form of bingo that shall use folded or banded tickets or paper cards with perforated break-open tabs, a face of which is covered or otherwise hidden from view to conceal a number, letter, or symbol, or set of numbers, letters, or symbols, some of which have been designated in advance as prize winners, and may also include games in which some winners are determined by the random selection of one or more bingo numbers by the use of a seal card or bingo blower. AInstant bingo@ also includes a punch board game. In all Ainstant bingo@ the prize amount and structure shall be predetermined. The term does not include electronic instant bingo or any device that is activated by the insertion of a coin, currency, token, or an equivalent, and that contains as one of its components a video display monitor that is capable of displaying numbers, letters, symbols, or characters in winning or losing combinations.

INSTANT BINGO TICKET DISPENSER. A mechanical device that dispenses an instant bingo ticket or card as the sole item of value dispensed and that has the following characteristics:

(1)   It is activated upon the insertion of United States currency.

(2)   It performs no gaming functions.

(3)   It does not contain a video display monitor or generate noise.

(4)   It is not capable of displaying any numbers, letters, symbols, or characters in winning or losing combinations.

(5)   It does not simulate or display rolling or spinning reels.

(6)   It is incapable of determining whether a dispensed bingo ticket or card is a winning or non‑winning ticket or card and requires a winning ticket or card to be paid by a bingo game operator.

(7)   It may provide accounting and security features to aid in accounting for the instant bingo tickets or cards it dispenses.

(8)   It is not part of an electronic network and is not interactive.

INTERNAL REVENUE CODE (IRC). The Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. §1 et seq., as now or hereafter amended.

MANUFACTURER. Any person who assembles completed bingo supplies from raw materials, other items, or subparts or who modifies, converts, adds to, or removes parts from bingo supplies to further their promotion or sale.

MERCHANDISE PRIZE. Any item of value, but shall not include any of the following:

(1)   Cash, gift cards, or any equivalent thereof;

(2)   Plays on games of chance, state lottery tickets, or bingo;

(3)   Firearms, tobacco, or alcoholic beverages; or

(4)   A redeemable voucher that is redeemable for any of the items listed in division (1), (2), or (3) of this definition.

NET PROFIT. Gross profit minus expenses.

NET PROFIT FROM THE PROCEEDS OF THE SALE OF INSTANT BINGO OR ELECTRONIC INSTANT BINGO. Gross profit minus the ordinary, necessary, and reasonable expense expended for the purchase of bingo supplies for the purpose of conducting instant bingo or electronic instant bingo, and, in the case of instant bingo or electronic instant bingo conducted by a veteran’s, fraternal, or sporting organization, minus the payment by that organization of real property taxes and assessments levied on a premises on which instant bingo or electronic instant bingo is conducted.

PARTICIPANT. Any person who plays bingo.

PERSON. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §1.59 and includes any firm or any other legal entity, however organized.

POOL NOT CONDUCTED FOR PROFIT. A scheme in which a participant gives a valuable consideration for a chance to win a prize and the total amount of consideration wagered is distributed to a participant or participants.

PUNCH BOARD. A form of instant bingo that uses a board containing a number of holes or receptacles of uniform size in which are placed, mechanically and randomly, serially numbered slips of paper that may be punched or drawn from the hole or receptacle. A player may punch or draw the numbered slips of paper from the holes or receptacles and obtain the prize established for the game if the number drawn corresponds to a winning number or, if the punch board includes the use of a seal card, a potential winning number.

RAFFLE. A form of bingo in which the one or more prizes are won by one or more persons who have purchased a raffle ticket. The one or more winners of the raffle are determined by drawing a ticket stub or other detachable section from a receptacle containing ticket stubs or detachable sections corresponding to all tickets sold for the raffle. The term does not include the drawing of a ticket stub or other detachable section of a ticket purchased to attend a professional sporting event if both of the following apply:

(1)   The ticket stub or other detachable section is used to select the winner of a free prize given away at the professional sporting event; and

(2)   The cost of the ticket is the same as the cost of a ticket to the professional sporting event on days when no free prize is given away.

REDEEMABLE VOUCHER. Any ticket, token, coupon, receipt, or other noncash representation of value.

RELIGIOUS ORGANIZATION. Any church, body of communicants, or group that is not organized or operated for profit and that gathers in common membership for regular worship and religious observances.

REVOKE. To void permanently all rights and privileges of the holder of a license issued under R.C. §2915.08, 2915.081, or 2915.082 or a charitable gaming license issued by another jurisdiction.

SCHEME OF CHANCE.

(1)   A slot machine unless authorized under R.C. Chapter 3772, lottery unless authorized under R.C. Chapter 3770, numbers game, pool conducted for profit, or other scheme in which a participant gives a valuable consideration for a chance to win a prize, but does not include bingo, a skill-based amusement machine, or a pool not conducted for profit. AScheme of chance@ includes the use of an electronic device to reveal the results of a game entry if valuable consideration is paid, directly or indirectly, for a chance to win a prize. Valuable consideration is deemed to be paid for a chance to win a prize in the following instances:

(a)   Less than 50% of the goods or services sold by a scheme of chance operator in exchange for game entries are used or redeemed by participants at any one location;

(b)   Less than 50% of participants who purchase goods or services at any one location do not accept, use, or redeem the goods or services sold or purportedly sold;

(c)   More than 50% of prizes at any one location are revealed to participants through an electronic device simulating a game of chance or a Acasino game@ as defined in R.C. §3772.01;

(d)   The good or service sold by a scheme of chance operator in exchange for a game entry cannot be used or redeemed in the manner advertised;

(e)   A participant pays more than fair market value for goods or services offered by a scheme of chance operator in order to receive one or more game entries;

(f)   A participant may use the electronic device to purchase additional game entries;

(g)   A participant may purchase additional game entries by using points or credits won as prizes while using the electronic device;

(h)   A scheme of chance operator pays out in prize money more than 20% of the gross revenue received at one location; or

(i)    A participant makes a purchase or exchange in order to obtain any good or service that may be used to facilitate play on the electronic device.

(2)   As used in this division, Aelectronic device@ means a mechanical, video, digital, or electronic machine or device that is capable of displaying information on a screen or other mechanism and that is owned, leased, or otherwise possessed by any person conducting a scheme of chance, or by that person’s partners, affiliates, subsidiaries, or contractors. AElectronic device@ does not include an electronic instant bingo system.

SEAL CARD. A form of instant bingo that uses instant bingo tickets in conjunction with a board or placard that contains one or more seals that, when removed or opened, reveal predesignated winning numbers, letters, or symbols.

SECURITY PERSONNEL. Includes any person who either is a Sheriff, deputy sheriff, Marshal, deputy marshal, township constable, or member of an organized police department of a municipal corporation or has successfully completed a peace officer’s training course pursuant to R.C. §109.71 through 109.79 and who is hired to provide security for the premises on which bingo is conducted.

SKILL-BASED AMUSEMENT MACHINE.

(1)   (a)   A mechanical, video, digital, or electronic device that rewards the player or players, if at all, only with merchandise prizes or with redeemable vouchers redeemable only for merchandise prizes, provided that with respect to rewards for playing the game all of the following apply:

  1. The wholesale value of a merchandise prize awarded as a result of the single play of a machine does not exceed $10;
  1. Redeemable vouchers awarded for any single play of a machine are not redeemable for a merchandise prize with a wholesale value of more than $10;
  1. Redeemable vouchers are not redeemable for a merchandise prize that has a wholesale value of more than $10 times the fewest number of single plays necessary to accrue the redeemable vouchers required to obtain that prize; and
  1. Any redeemable vouchers or merchandise prizes are distributed at the site of the skill-based amusement machine at the time of play.

(b)   A card for the purchase of gasoline is a redeemable voucher for purposes of division (1) of this definition even if the skill-based amusement machine for the play of which the card is awarded is located at a place where gasoline may not be legally distributed to the public or the card is not redeemable at the location of, or at the time of playing, the skill-based amusement machine.

(2)   A device shall not be considered a skill-based amusement machine and shall be considered a slot machine if it pays cash or one or more of the following apply:

(a)   The ability of a player to succeed at the game is impacted by the number or ratio of prior wins to prior losses of players playing the game;

(b)   Any reward of redeemable vouchers is not based solely on the player achieving the object of the game or the player’s score;

(c)   The outcome of the game, or the value of the redeemable voucher or merchandise prize awarded for winning the game, can be controlled by a source other than any player playing the game;

(d)   The success of any player is or may be determined by a chance event that cannot be altered by player actions;

(e)   The ability of any player to succeed at the game is determined by game features not visible or known to the player;

(f)   The ability of the player to succeed at the game is impacted by the exercise of a skill that no reasonable player could exercise.

(3)   All of the following apply to any machine that is operated as described in division (1) of this definition:

(a)   As used in this definition of Askill-based amusement machine@, GAME and PLAY mean one event from the initial activation of the machine until the results of play are determined without payment of additional consideration. An individual utilizing a machine that involves a single game, play, contest, competition, or tournament may be awarded redeemable vouchers or merchandise prizes based on the results of play.

(b)   Advance play for a single game, play, contest, competition, or tournament participation may be purchased. The cost of the contest, competition, or tournament participation may be greater than a single non-contest, competition, or tournament play.

(c)   To the extent that the machine is used in a contest, competition, or tournament, that contest, competition, or tournament has a defined starting and ending date and is open to participants in competition for scoring and ranking results toward the awarding of redeemable vouchers or merchandise prizes that are stated prior to the start of the contest, competition, or tournament.

(4)   For purposes of division (1) of this definition, the mere presence of a device, such as a pin‑setting, ball-releasing, or scoring mechanism, that does not contribute to or affect the outcome of the play of the game does not make the device a skill-based amusement machine.

SLOT MACHINE.

(1)   Either of the following:

(a)   Any mechanical, electronic, video, or digital device that is capable of accepting anything of value, directly or indirectly, from or on behalf of a player who gives the thing of value in the hope of gain;

(b)   Any mechanical, electronic, video, or digital device that is capable of accepting anything of value, directly or indirectly, from or on behalf of a player to conduct bingo or a scheme or game of chance.

(2)   The term does not include a skill-based amusement machine, an instant bingo ticket dispenser, or an electronic instant bingo system.

SPORTING ORGANIZATION. A hunting, fishing, or trapping organization, other than a college or high school fraternity or sorority, that is not organized for profit, that is affiliated with a state or national sporting organization, including but not limited to the League of Ohio Sportsmen, and that has been in continuous existence in this state for a period of three years.

SUSPEND. To interrupt temporarily all rights and privileges of the holder of a license issued under R.C. §2915.08, 2915.081, or 2915.082 or a charitable gaming license issued by another jurisdiction.

SWEEPSTAKES. Any game, contest, advertising scheme or plan, or other promotion where consideration is not required for a person to enter to win or become eligible to receive any prize, the determination of which is based upon chance. ASweepstakes@ does not include bingo as authorized under R.C. Chapter 2915, pari-mutuel wagering as authorized by R.C. Chapter 3769, lotteries conducted by the State Lottery Commission as authorized by R.C. Chapter 3770, and casino gaming as authorized by R.C. Chapter 3772.

SWEEPSTAKES TERMINAL DEVICE.

(1)   A mechanical, video, digital, or electronic machine or device that is owned, leased, or otherwise possessed by any person conducting a sweepstakes, or by that person’s partners, affiliates, subsidiaries, or contractors, that is intended to be used by a sweepstakes participant, and that is capable of displaying information on a screen or other mechanism. A device is a sweepstakes terminal device if any of the following apply:

(a)   The device uses a simulated game terminal as a representation of the prizes associated with the results of the sweepstakes entries.

(b)   The device utilizes software such that the simulated game influences or determines the winning of or value of the prize.

(c)   The device selects prizes from a predetermined finite pool of entries.

(d)   The device utilizes a mechanism that reveals the content of a predetermined sweepstakes entry.

(e)   The device predetermines the prize results and stores those results for delivery at the time the sweepstakes entry results are revealed.

(f)   The device utilizes software to create a game result.

(g)   The device reveals the prize incrementally, even though the device does not influence the awarding of the prize or the value of any prize awarded.

(h)   The device determines and associates the prize with an entry or entries at the time the sweepstakes is entered.

(2)   As used in this definition and in §134.04:

ENTER. The act by which a person becomes eligible to receive any prize offered in a sweepstakes.

ENTRY. One event from the initial activation of the sweepstakes terminal device until all the sweepstakes prize results from that activation are revealed.

PRIZE. Any gift, award, gratuity, good, service, credit, reward, or any other thing of value that may be transferred to a person, whether possession of the prize is actually transferred, or placed on an account or other record as evidence of the intent to transfer the prize.

SWEEPSTAKES TERMINAL DEVICE FACILITY. Any location in this state where a sweepstakes terminal device is provided to a sweepstakes participant, except as provided in §134.04(G) and R.C. §2915.02(G).

VETERANS ORGANIZATION. Any individual post or state headquarters of a national veteran’s association or an auxiliary unit of any individual post of a national veteran’s association, which post, state headquarters, or auxiliary unit is incorporated as a nonprofit corporation and either has received a letter from the state headquarters of the national veteran’s association indicating that the individual post or auxiliary unit is in good standing with the national veteran’s association or has received a letter from the national veteran’s association indicating that the state headquarters is in good standing with the national veteran’s association. As used in this definition, NATIONAL VETERANS ASSOCIATION means any veteran’s association that has been in continuous existence as such for a period of at least five years and either is incorporated by an act of the United States Congress or has a national dues-paying membership of at least 5,000 persons.

VOLUNTEER FIREFIGHTERS ORGANIZATION. Any organization of volunteer firefighters, as defined in R.C. §146.01, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support for a volunteer fire department or a volunteer fire company and that is recognized or ratified by a county, municipal corporation, or township.

VOLUNTEER RESCUE SERVICE ORGANIZATION. Any organization of volunteers organized to function as an emergency medical service organization, as defined in R.C. §4765.01.

YOUTH ATHLETIC ORGANIZATION. Any organization, not organized for profit, that is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate, athletic activities for persons who are 21 years of age or younger by means of sponsoring, organizing, operating, or contributing to the support of an athletic team, club, league, or association.

YOUTH ATHLETIC PARK ORGANIZATION. Any organization, not organized for profit, that satisfies both of the following:

(1)   It owns, operates, and maintains playing fields that satisfy both of the following:

(a)   The playing fields are used for athletic activities by one or more organizations, not organized for profit, each of which is organized and operated exclusively to provide financial support to, or to operate, athletic activities for persons who are 18 years of age or younger by means of sponsoring, organizing, operating, or contributing to the support of an athletic team, club, league, or association.

(b)   The playing fields are not used for any profit-making activity at any time during the year.

(2)   It uses the proceeds of bingo it conducts exclusively for the operation, maintenance, and improvement of its playing fields of the type described in division (1) of this definition.

(R.C. §2915.01)  (Prior Code, §134.01)

§ 134.02  PUBLIC GAMING.

(A)  Generally. No person, while at a hotel, restaurant, tavern, store, arena, hall, or other place of public accommodation, business, amusement, or resort shall make a bet or play any game of chance or scheme of chance.

(B)  Premises not to be used in violation of division (A) above. No person, being the owner or lessee, or having custody, control, or supervision of a hotel, restaurant, tavern, store, arena, hall, or other place of public accommodation, business, amusement, or resort shall recklessly permit those premises to be used or occupied in violation of division (A) of this section.

(C)  Gambling expressly permitted by law. Divisions (A) and (B) of this section do not prohibit conduct in connection with gambling expressly permitted by law.

(D) Not to solicit for games for money in park. No person in a park shall solicit or procure participants for, engage in, or promote any game which is played for money or other thing of value.

(Rules and Regs. §6.3)

(E)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of public gaming. Except as otherwise provided in this division, public gaming is a minor misdemeanor. If the offender previously has been convicted of any gambling offense, public gaming is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(F)   Nuisance. Premises used or occupied in violation of division (B) of this section constitute a nuisance subject to abatement under R.C. Chapter 3767.

(R.C. §2915.04)

(Prior Code, §134.02)

§ 134.03  CHEATING.

(A)  Corrupting outcome prohibited. No person, with purpose to defraud or knowing that the person is facilitating a fraud, shall engage in conduct designed to corrupt the outcome of any of the following:

(1)   The subject of a bet.

(2)   A contest of knowledge, skill, or endurance that is not an athletic or sporting event.

(3)   A scheme or game of chance.

(4)   Bingo.

(B)  Knowingly corrupting outcome. No person shall knowingly do any of the following:

(1)   Offer, give, solicit, or accept anything of value to corrupt the outcome of an athletic or sporting event.

(2)   Engage in conduct designed to corrupt the outcome of an athletic or sporting event.

(C)  State law penalty.

(1)   Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of cheating. Except as otherwise provided in this division, cheating is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the potential gain from the cheating is $1,000 or more or if the offender previously has been convicted of any gambling offense or of any theft offense as defined in R.C. §2913.01, cheating is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of corrupting sports. Corrupting sports is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2915.05)  (Prior Code, §134.03)

§ 134.04  PROHIBITIONS AGAINST GAMBLING; EXCEPTION.

(A)  No person shall do any of the following:

(1)   Engage in bookmaking, or knowingly engage in conduct that facilitates bookmaking.

(2)   Establish, promote, or operate or knowingly engage in conduct that facilitates any game of chance conducted for profit or any scheme of chance.

(3)   Knowingly procure, transmit, exchange, or engage in conduct that facilitates the procurement, transmission, or exchange of information for use in establishing odds or determining winners in connection with bookmaking or with any game of chance conducted for profit or any scheme of chance.

(4)   Engage in betting or in playing any scheme or game of chance as a substantial source of income or livelihood.

(5)   Conduct, or participate in the conduct of, a sweepstakes with the use of a sweepstakes terminal device at a sweepstakes terminal device facility and either:

(a)   Give to another person any item described in R.C. §2915.01(VV)(1), (VV)(2), (VV)(3), or (VV)(4) as a prize for playing or participating in a sweepstakes; or

(b)   Give to another person any merchandise prize, or a redeemable voucher for a merchandise prize, the wholesale value of which is in excess of $10 and which is awarded as a single entry for playing or participating in a sweepstakes. Redeemable vouchers shall not be redeemable for a merchandise prize that has a wholesale value of more than $10.

(6)   Conduct, or participate in the conduct of, a sweepstakes with the use of a sweepstakes terminal device at a sweepstakes terminal device facility without first obtaining a current annual Acertificate of registration@ from the Attorney General as required by R.C. §2915.02(F).

(7)   With purpose to violate division (A)(1), (A)(2), (A)(3), (A)(4), (A)(5), or (A)(6) of this section, acquire, possess, control, or operate any gambling device.

(B)  For purposes of division (A)(1) of this section, a person facilitates bookmaking if the person in any way knowingly aids an illegal bookmaking operation, including, without limitation, placing a bet with a person engaged in or facilitating illegal bookmaking. For purposes of division (A)(2) of this section, a person facilitates a game of chance conducted for profit or a scheme of chance if the person in any way knowingly aids in the conduct or operation of any such game or scheme, including, without limitation, playing any such game or scheme.

(C)  This section does not prohibit conduct in connection with gambling expressly permitted by law.

(D)  This section does not apply to any of the following:

(1)   Games of chance, if all of the following apply:

(a)   The games of chance are not craps for money or roulette for money.

(b)   The games of chance are conducted by a charitable organization that is and has received from the Internal Revenue Service a determination letter that is currently in effect, stating that the organization is exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(3).

(c)   The games of chance are conducted at festivals of the charitable organization that are conducted not more than a total of five days a calendar year, and are conducted on premises owned by the charitable organization for a period of no less than one year immediately preceding the conducting of the games of chance, on premises leased from a governmental unit, or on premises that are leased from a veteran’s or fraternal organization and that have been owned by the lessor veteran’s or fraternal organization for a period of no less than one year immediately preceding the conducting of the games of chance. A charitable organization shall not lease premises from a veteran’s or fraternal organization to conduct a festival described in this division, if the veteran’s or fraternal organization already has leased the premises 12 times during the preceding year to charitable organizations for that purpose. If a charitable organization leases premises from a veteran’s or fraternal organization to conduct a festival described in this division, the charitable organization shall not pay a rental rate for the premises per day of the festival that exceeds the rental rate per bingo session that a charitable organization may pay under R.C. §2915.09(B)(1) or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance when it leases premises from another charitable organization to conduct bingo games.

(d)   All of the money or assets received from the games of chance after deduction only of prizes paid out during the conduct of the games of chance are used by, given, donated or otherwise transferred to any organization that is described in I.R.C. §509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) and is either a governmental unit or an organization that is tax exempt under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(3).

(e)   The games of chance are not conducted during or within ten hours of a bingo game conducted for amusement purposes only pursuant to R.C. §2915.12 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance. No person shall receive any commission, wage, salary, reward, tip, donation, gratuity, or other form of compensation, directly or indirectly, for operating or assisting in the operation of any game of chance.

(2)   Any tag fishing tournament, as defined in R.C. §1531.01, operated under a permit issued under R.C. §1533.92.

(3)   Bingo conducted by a charitable organization that holds a license issued under R.C. §2915.08.

(E)  Division (D) of this section shall not be construed to authorize the sale, lease, or other temporary or permanent transfer of the right to conduct games of chance, as granted by that division, by any charitable organization that is granted that right.

(F)   Any person desiring to conduct, or participate in the conduct of, a sweepstakes with the use of a sweepstakes terminal device at a sweepstakes terminal device facility shall first register with the Office of the Attorney General and obtain an annual certificate of registration by providing a filing fee of $200 and all information as required by rule adopted under R.C. §2915.02(H). Not later than the tenth day of each month, each sweepstakes terminal device operator shall file a sweepstakes terminal device monthly report with the Attorney General and provide a filing fee of $50 and all information required by rule adopted under R.C. §2915.02(H). All information provided to the Attorney General under this division shall be available to law enforcement upon request.

(G)  (1)   A person may apply to the Attorney General, on a form prescribed by the Attorney General, for a certificate of compliance that the person is not operating a sweepstakes terminal device facility. The form shall require the person to include the address of the business location where sweepstakes terminal devices will be used and to make the following certifications:

(a)   That the person will not use more than two sweepstakes terminal devices at the business location;

(b)   That the retail value of sweepstakes prizes to be awarded at the business location using sweepstakes terminal devices during a reporting period will be less than 3% of the gross revenue received at the business location during the reporting period;

(c)   That no other form of gaming except lottery ticket sales as authorized under R.C. Chapter 3770 will be conducted at the business location or in an adjoining area of the business location;

(d)   That any sweepstakes terminal device at the business location will not allow any deposit of any money, coin, or token, or the use of any credit card, debit card, prepaid card, or any other method of similar payment to be used, directly or indirectly, to participate in a sweepstakes;

(e)   That notification of any prize will not take place on the same day as a participant’s sweepstakes entry; and

(f)   That the person consents to provide any other information to the Attorney General as required by rule adopted under R.C. §2915.02(H).

(2)   The filing fee for a certificate of compliance is $250. The Attorney General may charge up to an additional $250 for reasonable expenses resulting from any investigation related to an application for a certificate of compliance.

(3)   A certificate of compliance is effective for one year. The certificate holder may reapply for a certificate of compliance. A person issued a certificate of compliance shall file semiannual reports with the Attorney General stating the number of sweepstakes terminal devices at the business location and that the retail value of prizes awarded at the business location using sweepstakes terminal devices is less than 3% of the gross revenue received at the business location.

(H)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of gambling, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of any gambling offense, gambling is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. Notwithstanding this division, failing to file a sweepstakes terminal device monthly report as required by division (F) of this section or the semiannual report required by division (G) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2915.02(A) – (G), (K))

§ 134.05  OPERATING A GAMBLING HOUSE.

(A)  No person, being the owner or lessee, or having custody, control, or supervision of premises, shall:

(1)   Use or occupy the premises for gambling in violation of R.C. §2915.02 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

(2)   Recklessly permit the premises to be used or occupied for gambling in violation of R.C. §2915.02 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

(B)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of operating a gambling house, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a gambling offense, operating a gambling house is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(C)  Premises used or occupied in violation of this section constitute a nuisance subject to abatement under R.C. Chapter 3767.

(R.C. §2915.03)

§ 134.06  REGULATIONS CONCERNING OPERATION OF LICENSED BINGO GAME.

(A)  No charitable organization that conducts bingo shall fail to do any of the following:

(1)   Own all of the equipment used to conduct bingo or lease that equipment from a charitable organization that is licensed to conduct bingo, or from the landlord of a premises where bingo is conducted, for a rental rate that is not more than is customary and reasonable for that equipment;

(2)   Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(3) of this section, use all of the gross receipts from bingo for paying prizes, for reimbursement of expenses for or for renting premises in which to conduct bingo, for reimbursement of expenses for or for purchasing or leasing bingo supplies used in conducting bingo, for reimbursement of expenses for or for hiring security personnel, for reimbursement of expenses for or for advertising bingo, or for reimbursement of other expenses or for other expenses listed in the definition for Aexpenses@ in R.C. §2915.01, provided that the amount of the receipts so spent is not more than is customary and reasonable for a similar purchase, lease, hiring, advertising, or expense. If the building in which bingo is conducted is owned by the charitable organization conducting bingo and the bingo conducted includes a form of bingo described in division (1) of the definition of Abingo@ in R.C. §2915.01, the charitable organization may deduct from the total amount of the gross receipts from each session a sum equal to the lesser of $600 or 45% of the gross receipts from the bingo described in that division as consideration for the use of the premises;

(3)   Use, or give, donate, or otherwise transfer, all of the net profit derived from bingo described in R.C. §2915.01(O)(1) for a charitable purpose listed in its license application and described in R.C. §2915.01(V), or distribute all of the net profit from the proceeds of the sale of instant bingo or electronic instant bingo as stated in its license application and in accordance with R.C. §2915.101, as applicable.

(B)  No charitable organization that conducts a bingo game described in division (1) of the definition of Abingo@ in R.C. §2915.01 shall fail to do any of the following:

(1)   Conduct the bingo game on premises that are owned by the charitable organization, on premises that are owned by another charitable organization and leased from that charitable organization for a rental rate not in excess of the lesser of $650 per bingo session or 45% of the gross receipts of the bingo session, on premises that are leased from a person other than a charitable organization for a rental rate that is not more than is customary and reasonable for premises that are similar in location, size, and quality but not in excess of $450 per bingo session, or on premises that are owned by a person other than a charitable organization, that are leased from that person by another charitable organization, and that are subleased from that other charitable organization by the charitable organization for a rental rate not in excess of $450 per bingo session. No charitable organization is required to pay property taxes or assessments on premises that the charitable organization leases from another person to conduct bingo sessions. If the charitable organization leases from a person other than a charitable organization the premises on which it conducts bingo sessions, the lessor of the premises shall provide only the premises to the organization and shall not provide the organization with bingo game operators, security personnel, concessions or concession operators, bingo supplies, or any other type of service. A charitable organization shall not lease or sublease premises that it owns or leases to more than three other charitable organizations per calendar week for conducting bingo sessions on the premises. A person that is not a charitable organization shall not lease premises that it owns, leases, or otherwise is empowered to lease to more than three charitable organizations per calendar week for conducting bingo sessions on the premises. In no case shall more than nine bingo sessions be conducted on any premises in any calendar week;

(2)   Display its license conspicuously at the premises where the bingo session is conducted;

(3)   Conduct the bingo session in accordance with division (1) of the definition of Abingo@ in R.C. §2915.01.

(C)  No charitable organization that conducts a bingo game described in division (1) of the definition of Abingo@ in R.C. §2915.01 shall do any of the following:

(1)   Pay any compensation to a bingo game operator for operating a bingo session that is conducted by the charitable organization or for preparing, selling, or serving food or beverages at the site of the bingo session, permit any auxiliary unit or society of the charitable organization to pay compensation to any bingo game operator who prepares, sells, or serves food or beverages at a bingo session conducted by the charitable organization, or permit any auxiliary unit or society of the charitable organization to prepare, sell, or serve food or beverages at a bingo session conducted by the charitable organization, if the auxiliary unit or society pays any compensation to the bingo game operators who prepare, sell, or serve the food or beverages;

(2)   Pay consulting fees to any person for any services performed in relation to the bingo session;

(3)   Pay concession fees to any person who provides refreshments to the participants in the bingo session;

(4)   Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(4) of this section, conduct more than three bingo sessions in any seven-day period. A volunteer firefighter’s organization or a volunteer rescue service organization that conducts not more than five bingo sessions in a calendar year may conduct more than three bingo sessions in a seven-day period after notifying the Attorney General when it will conduct the sessions;

(5)   Pay out more than $6,000 in prizes for bingo games described in R.C. §2915.01(S)(1) during any bingo session that is conducted by the charitable organization. APrizes@ does not include awards from the conduct of instant bingo.

(6)   Conduct a bingo session at any time during the eight-hour period between 2:00 a.m. and 10:00 a.m., at any time during, or within ten hours of, a bingo game conducted for amusement only pursuant to R.C. §2915.12 or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, at any premises not specified on its license, or on any day of the week or during any time period not specified on its license. This division does not prohibit the sale of instant bingo tickets beginning at 9:00 a.m. for a bingo session that begins at 10:00 a.m. If circumstances make it impractical for the charitable organization to conduct a bingo session at the premises, or on the day of the week or at the time specified on its license or if a charitable organization wants to conduct bingo sessions on a day of the week or at a time other than the day or time specified on its license, the charitable organization may apply in writing to the Attorney General for an amended license pursuant to R.C. §2915.08(J). A charitable organization may apply twice in each calendar year for an amended license to conduct bingo sessions on a day of the week or at a time other than the day or time specified on its license. If the amended license is granted, the organization may conduct bingo sessions at the premises, on the day of the week, and at the time specified on its amended license;

(7)   Permit any person whom the charitable organization knows, or should have known, is under the age of 18 to work as a bingo game operator;

(8)   Permit any person whom the charitable organization knows, or should have known, has been convicted of a felony or gambling offense in any jurisdiction to be a bingo game operator;

(9)   Permit the lessor of the premises on which the bingo session is conducted, if the lessor is not a charitable organization, to provide the charitable organization with bingo game operators, security personnel, concessions, bingo supplies, or any other type of service;

(10)  Purchase or lease bingo supplies from any person except a distributor issued a license under R.C. §2915.081;

(11)  (a)   Use or permit the use of electronic bingo aids except under the following circumstances:

  1. For any single participant, not more than 90 bingo faces can be played using an electronic bingo aid or aids.
  1. The charitable organization shall provide a participant using an electronic bingo aid with corresponding paper bingo cards or sheets.
  1. The total price of bingo faces played with an electronic bingo aid shall be equal to the total price of the same number of bingo faces played with a paper bingo card or sheet sold at the same bingo session but without an electronic bingo aid.
  1. An electronic bingo aid cannot be part of an electronic network other than a network that includes only bingo aids and devices that are located on the premises at which the bingo is being conducted or be interactive with any device not located on the premises at which the bingo is being conducted.
  1. An electronic bingo aid cannot be used to participate in bingo that is conducted at a location other than the location at which the bingo session is conducted and at which the electronic bingo aid is used.
  1. An electronic bingo aid cannot be used to provide for the input of numbers and letters announced by a bingo caller other than the bingo caller who physically calls the numbers and letters at the location at which the bingo session is conducted and at which the electronic bingo aid is used.

(b)   The Attorney General may adopt rules in accordance with R.C. Chapter 119 that govern the use of electronic bingo aids. The rules may include a requirement that an electronic bingo aid be capable of being audited by the Attorney General to verify the number of bingo cards or sheets played during each bingo session.

(12)  Permit any person the charitable organization knows, or should have known, to be under 18 years of age to play bingo described in division (1) of the definition of Abingo@ in R.C. §2915.01.

(D)  (1)   Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(3) of this section, no charitable organization shall provide to a bingo game operator, and no bingo game operator shall receive or accept, any commission, wage, salary, reward, tip, donation, gratuity, or other form of compensation, directly or indirectly, regardless of the source, for conducting bingo or providing other work or labor at the site of bingo during a bingo session.

(2)   Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(3) of this section, no charitable organization shall provide to a bingo game operator any commission, wage, salary, reward, tip, donation, gratuity, or other form of compensation, directly or indirectly regardless of the source, for conducting instant bingo, electronic instant bingo, or both other than at a bingo session at the site of instant bingo, electronic instant bingo, or both other than at a bingo session.

(3)   Nothing in this division (D) of this section prohibits an employee of a fraternal organization, veteran’s organization, or sporting organization from selling instant bingo tickets or cards to the organization’s members or invited guests, as long as no portion of the employee’s compensation is paid from any receipts of bingo.

(E)  Notwithstanding division (B)(1) of this section, a charitable organization that, prior to December 6, 1977, has entered into written agreements for the lease of premises it owns to another charitable organization or other charitable organizations for the conducting of bingo sessions so that more than two bingo sessions are conducted per calendar week on the premises, and a person that is not a charitable organization and that, prior to December 6, 1977, has entered into written agreements for the lease of premises it owns to charitable organizations for the conducting of more than two bingo sessions per calendar week on the premises, may continue to lease the premises to those charitable organizations, provided that no more than four sessions are conducted per calendar week, that the lessor organization or person has notified the Attorney General in writing of the organizations that will conduct the sessions and the days of the week and the times of the day on which the sessions will be conducted, that the initial lease entered into with each organization that will conduct the sessions was filed with the Attorney General prior to December 6, 1977, and that each organization that will conduct the sessions was issued a license to conduct bingo games by the Attorney General prior to December 6, 1977.

(F)   This section does not prohibit a bingo licensed charitable organization or a game operator from giving any person an instant bingo ticket as a prize.

(G)  Whoever violates division (A)(2) of this section is guilty of illegally conducting a bingo game, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates division (A)(1), (A)(3), (B)(1), (B)(2), (B)(3), (C)(1) through (C)(11), or (D) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (A)(1), (A)(3), (B)(1), (B)(2), (B)(3), (C)(1) through (C)(11), or (D) of this section, a violation of division (A)(1), (A)(3), (B)(1), (B)(2), (B)(3), (C)(1) through (C)(11), or (D) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. Whoever violates division (C)(12) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (C)(12) of this section, a violation of division (C)(12) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2915.09)

§ 134.07  RECORDS TO BE KEPT.

(A)  No charitable organization that conducts bingo or a game of chance pursuant to R.C. §2915.02(D), or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, shall fail to maintain the following records for at least three years from the date on which the bingo or game of chance is conducted:

(1)   An itemized list of the gross receipts of each bingo session, each game of instant bingo by serial number, each electronic instant bingo game by serial number, each raffle, each punch board game, and each game of chance, and an itemized list of the gross profits of each game of instant bingo by serial number and each electronic instant bingo game by serial number;

(2)   An itemized list of all expenses, other than prizes, that are incurred in conducting bingo, the name of each person to whom the expenses are paid, and a receipt for all of the expenses;

(3)   A list of all prizes awarded during each bingo session, each raffle, each punch board game, and each game of chance conducted by the charitable organization, the total prizes awarded from each game of instant bingo by serial number and each electronic instant bingo game by serial number, and the name, address, and social security number of all persons who are winners of prizes of $600 or more in value;

(4)   An itemized list of the recipients of the net profit of bingo or game of chance, including the name and address of each recipient to whom the money is distributed, and if the organization uses the net profit of bingo, or the money or assets received from a game of chance, for any charitable or other purpose set forth in R.C. §2915.01(V), R.C. §2915.02(D), or R.C. §2915.101, a list of each purpose and an itemized list of each expenditure for each purpose;

(5)   The number of persons who participate in any bingo session or game of chance that is conducted by the charitable organization;

(6)   A list of receipts from the sale of food and beverages by the charitable organization or one of its auxiliary units or societies, if the receipts were excluded from Agross receipts@ under R.C. §2915.01(T);

(7)   An itemized list of all expenses incurred at each bingo session, each raffle, each punch board game, or each game of instant bingo or electronic instant bingo conducted by the charitable organization in the sale of food and beverages by the charitable organization or by an auxiliary unit or society of the charitable organization, the name of each person to whom the expenses are paid, and a receipt for all of the expenses.

(B)  A charitable organization shall keep the records that it is required to maintain pursuant to division (A) of this section at its principal place of business in this state or at its headquarters in this state and shall notify the Attorney General of the location at which those records are kept.

(C)  The gross profit from each bingo session or game described in division (1) or (2) of the definition of Abingo@ in R.C. §2915.01 shall be deposited into a checking account devoted exclusively to the bingo session or game. Payments for allowable expenses incurred in conducting the bingo session or game and payments to recipients of some or all of the net profit of the bingo session or game shall be made only by checks or electronic fund transfers drawn on the bingo session or game account.

(D)  Each charitable organization shall conduct and record an inventory of all of its bingo supplies as of the first day of November of each year.

(E)  The Attorney General may adopt rules in accordance with R.C. Chapter 119 that establish standards of accounting, record keeping, and reporting to ensure that gross receipts from bingo or games of chance are properly accounted for.

(F)   A distributor shall maintain, for a period of three years after the date of its sale or other provision, a record of each instance of its selling or otherwise providing to another person bingo supplies for use in this state. The record shall include all of the following for each instance:

(1)   The name of the manufacturer from which the distributor purchased the bingo supplies and the date of the purchase;

(2)   The name and address of the charitable organization or other distributor to which the bingo supplies were sold or otherwise provided;

(3)   A description that clearly identifies the bingo supplies;

(4)   Invoices that include the nonrepeating serial numbers of all paper bingo cards and sheets and all instant bingo deals sold or otherwise provided to each charitable organization.

(G)  A manufacturer shall maintain, for a period of three years after the date of its sale or other provision, a record of each instance of its selling or otherwise providing bingo supplies for use in this state. The record shall include all of the following for each instance:

(1)   The name and address of the distributor to whom the bingo supplies were sold or otherwise provided;

(2)   A description that clearly identifies the bingo supplies, including serial numbers;

(3)   Invoices that include the nonrepeating serial numbers of all paper bingo cards and sheets and all instant bingo deals sold or otherwise provided to each distributor.

(H)  (1)   The Attorney General or any law enforcement agency may do all of the following:

(a)   Investigate any charitable organization, distributor, or manufacturer or any officer, agent, trustee, member, or employee of the organization, distributor, or manufacturer;

(b)   Examine the accounts and records of the charitable organization, distributor, or manufacturer or of any officer, agent, trustee, member, or employee of the organization, distributor, or manufacturer;

(c)   Conduct inspections, audits, and observations of bingo or games of chance;

(d)   Conduct inspections of the premises where bingo or games of chance are conducted or where bingo supplies are manufactured or distributed;

(e)   Take any other necessary and reasonable action to determine if a violation of any provision of this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2915 has occurred and to determine whether R.C. §2915.11, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, has been complied with.

(2)   If any law enforcement agency has reasonable grounds to believe that a charitable organization, distributor, or manufacturer or an officer, agent, trustee, member, or employee of the organization, distributor, or manufacturer has violated any provision of this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2915, the law enforcement agency may proceed by action in the proper court to enforce this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2915, provided that the law enforcement agency shall give written notice to the Attorney General when commencing an action as described in this division.

(I)   No person shall destroy, alter, conceal, withhold, or deny access to any accounts or records of a charitable organization, distributor, or manufacturer that have been requested for examination, or obstruct, impede, or interfere with any inspection, audit, or observation of bingo or a game of chance, of premises where bingo or a game of chance is conducted, or of premises where bingo supplies are manufactured or distributed, or refuse to comply with any reasonable request of, or obstruct, impede, or interfere with any other reasonable action undertaken by, the Attorney General or a law enforcement agency pursuant to division (H) of this section.

(J)   Whoever violates division (A) or (I) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2915.10)

§ 134.08  REQUIREMENTS FOR BINGO GAME OPERATORS.

(A)  No person shall be a bingo game operator unless the person is 18 years of age or older.

(B)  No person who has been convicted of a felony or a gambling offense in any jurisdiction shall be a bingo game operator.

(C)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2915.11)

§ 134.09  BINGO GAMES FOR AMUSEMENT ONLY.

(A)  Sections 134.06 through 134.13 and 134.15 do not apply to bingo games that are conducted for the purpose of amusement only. A bingo game is conducted for the purpose of amusement only if it complies with all of the requirements specified in either division (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this section.

(1)   (a)   The participants do not pay any money or any other thing of value, including an admission fee or any fee, for bingo cards or sheets, objects to cover the spaces, or other devices used in playing bingo, for the privilege of participating in the bingo game, or to defray any costs of the game, or pay tips or make donations during or immediately before or after the bingo game.

(b)   All prizes awarded during the course of the game are non-monetary, and in the form of merchandise, goods, or entitlement to goods or services only, and the total value of all prizes awarded during the game is less than $100.

(c)   No commission, wages, salary, reward, tip, donation, gratuity, or other form of compensation, either directly or indirectly, and regardless of the source, is paid to any bingo game operator for work or labor performed at the site of the bingo game.

(d)   The bingo game is not conducted either during or within ten hours of any of the following:

  1. A bingo session during which a charitable bingo game is conducted pursuant to R.C. §2915.07 through 2915.11 or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.
  1. A scheme or game of chance, or bingo described in R.C. §2915.01(O)(2).

(e)   The number of players participating in the bingo game does not exceed 50.

(2)   (a)   The participants do not pay money or any other thing of value as an admission fee, and no participant is charged more than $0.25 to purchase a bingo card or sheet, objects to cover the spaces, or other devices used in playing bingo.

(b)   The total amount of money paid by all of the participants for bingo cards or sheets, objects to cover the spaces, or other devices used in playing bingo does not exceed $100.

(c)   All of the money paid for bingo cards or sheets, objects to cover spaces, or other devices used in playing bingo is used only to pay winners monetary and nonmonetary prizes and to provide refreshments.

(d)   The total value of all prizes awarded during the game does not exceed $100.

(e)   No commission, wages, salary, reward, tip, donation, gratuity, or other form of compensation, either directly or indirectly, and regardless of the source, is paid to any bingo game operator for work or labor performed at the site of the bingo game.

(f)   The bingo game is not conducted during or within ten hours of either of the following:

  1. A bingo session during which a charitable bingo game is conducted pursuant to R.C. §2915.07 through 2915.15 or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;
  1. A scheme of chance or a game of chance, or bingo described in R.C. §2915.01(O)(2).

(g)   All of the participants reside at the premises where the bingo game is conducted.

(h)   The bingo games are conducted on different days of the week and not more than twice in a calendar week.

(B)  The Attorney General or any local law enforcement agency may investigate the conduct of a bingo game that purportedly is conducted for purposes of amusement only if there is reason to believe that the purported amusement bingo game does not comply with the requirements of either division (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this section. A local law enforcement agency may proceed by action in the proper court to enforce this section if the local law enforcement agency gives written notice to the Attorney General when commencing the action.

(R.C. §2915.12)

§ 134.10  PROHIBITIONS WHERE INSTANT BINGO GAME IS CONDUCTED.

(A)  No charitable organization that conducts instant bingo shall do any of the following:

(1)   Fail to comply with the requirements of R.C. §2915.09(A)(1), (A)(2), and (A)(3), or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;

(2)   Conduct instant bingo unless either of the following applies:

(a)   That organization is, and has received from the Internal Revenue Service a determination letter that is currently in effect stating that the organization is, exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a), is described in I.R.C. §501(c)(3), is a charitable organization as defined in R.C. §2915.01, is in good standing in the state pursuant to R.C. §2915.08, and is in compliance with R.C. Chapter 1716;

(b)   That organization is, and has received from the Internal Revenue Service a determination letter that is currently in effect stating that the organization is, exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a), is described in I.R.C. §501(c)(7), (c)(8), (c)(10), or (c)(19) or is a veteran’s organization described in I.R.C. §501(c)(4), and conducts instant bingo under R.C. §2915.13.

(3)   Conduct instant bingo on any day, at any time, or at any premises not specified on the organization’s license issued pursuant to R.C. §2915.08;

(4)   Permit any person whom the organization knows or should have known has been convicted of a felony or gambling offense in any jurisdiction to be a bingo game operator in the conduct of instant bingo;

(5)   Purchase or lease supplies used to conduct instant bingo or punch board games from any person except a distributor licensed under R.C. §2915.081;

(6)   Sell or provide any instant bingo ticket or card for a price different from the price printed on it by the manufacturer on either the instant bingo ticket or card or on the game flare;

(7)   Sell an instant bingo ticket or card to a person under 18 years of age;

(8)   Fail to keep unsold instant bingo tickets or cards for less than three years;

(9)   Pay any compensation to a bingo game operator for conducting instant bingo that is conducted by the organization or for preparing, selling, or serving food or beverages at the site of the instant bingo game, permit any auxiliary unit or society of the organization to pay compensation to any bingo game operator who prepares, sells, or serves food or beverages at an instant bingo game conducted by the organization, or permit any auxiliary unit or society of the organization to prepare, sell, or serve food or beverages at an instant bingo game conducted by the organization, if the auxiliary unit or society pays any compensation to the bingo game operators who prepare, sell, or serve the food or beverages;

(10)  Pay fees to any person for any services performed in relation to an instant bingo game, except as provided in R.C. §2915.093(D);

(11)  Pay fees to any person who provides refreshments to the participants in an instant bingo game;

(12)  (a)   Allow instant bingo tickets or cards to be sold to bingo game operators at a premises at which the organization sells instant bingo tickets or cards or to be sold to employees of a D permit holder who are working at a premises at which instant bingo tickets or cards are sold;

(b)   Division (A)(12)(a) of this section does not prohibit a licensed charitable organization or a bingo game operator from giving any person an instant bingo ticket as a prize in place of a cash prize won by a participant in an instant bingo game. In no case shall an instant bingo ticket or card be sold or provided for a price different from the price printed on it by the manufacturer on either the instant bingo ticket or card or on the game flare.

(13)  Fail to display its bingo license, and the serial numbers of the deal of instant bingo tickets or cards to be sold, conspicuously at each premises at which it sells instant bingo tickets or cards;

(14)  Possess a deal of instant bingo tickets or cards that was not purchased from a distributor licensed under R.C. §2915.081 as reflected on an invoice issued by the distributor that contains all of the information required by R.C. §2915.10(E);

(15)  Fail, once it opens a deal of instant bingo tickets or cards, to continue to sell the tickets or cards in that deal until the tickets or cards with the top two highest tiers of prizes in that deal are sold;

(16)  Possess bingo supplies that were not obtained in accordance with R.C. Chapter 2915.

(B)  A charitable organization may purchase, lease, or use instant bingo ticket dispensers to sell instant bingo tickets or cards.

(C)  Pursuant to R.C. §2915.091(C), the Attorney General may adopt rules in accordance with R.C. Chapter 119 that govern the conduct of instant bingo by charitable organizations.

(D)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section or a rule adopted under division (C) of this section is guilty of illegal instant bingo conduct. Except as otherwise provided in this division, illegal instant bingo conduct is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (A) of this section or of such a rule adopted under division (C) of this section, illegal instant bingo conduct is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2915.091)

§ 134.11  RAFFLE DRAWINGS.

(A)  (1)   Subject to division (A)(2) of this section, a person or entity may conduct a raffle to raise money for the person or entity and does not need a license to conduct bingo in order to conduct a raffle drawing that is not for profit if the person or entity is any of the following:

(a)   Exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(3);

(b)   A school district, community school established under R.C. Chapter 3314, STEM school established under R.C. Chapter 3326, college-preparatory boarding school established under R.C. Chapter 3328, or chartered nonpublic school;

(c)   Exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(4), 501(c)(6), 501(c)(7), 501(c)(8), 501(c)(10), or 501(c)(19).

(2)   If a person or entity that is described in division (A)(1)(c) of this section conducts a raffle, the person or entity shall distribute at least 50% of the net profit from the raffle to a charitable purpose described in R.C. §2915.01(V) or to a department or agency of the federal government, the state, or any political subdivision.

(B)  Except as provided in division (A) of this section, no person shall conduct a raffle drawing that is for profit or a raffle drawing that is not for profit.

(C)  Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of illegal conduct of a raffle. Except as otherwise provided in this division, illegal conduct of a raffle is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (B) of this section, illegal conduct of a raffle is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2915.092)

§ 134.12  INSTANT BINGO OTHER THAN AT BINGO SESSIONS.

(A)  As used in this section, RETAIL INCOME FROM ALL COMMERCIAL ACTIVITY means the income that a person receives from the provision of goods, services, or activities that are provided at the location where instant bingo other than at a bingo session is conducted, including the sale of instant bingo tickets. A religious organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(3), at not more than one location at which it conducts its charitable programs, may include donations from its members and guests as retail income.

(B)  (1)   If a charitable instant bingo organization conducts instant bingo other than at a bingo session under a type III license issued under R.C. §2915.08, the charitable instant bingo organization shall enter into a written contract with the owner or lessor of the location at which the instant bingo is conducted to allow the owner or lessor to assist in the conduct of instant bingo other than at a bingo session, identify each location where the instant bingo other than at a bingo session is being conducted, and identify the owner or lessor of each location.

(2)   A charitable instant bingo organization that conducts instant bingo other than at a bingo session under a type III license issued under R.C. §2915.08 is not required to enter into a written contract with the owner or lessor of the location at which the instant bingo is conducted provided that the owner or lessor is not assisting in the conduct of the instant bingo other than at a bingo session and provided that the conduct of the instant bingo other than at a bingo session at that location is not more than five days per calendar year and not more than ten hours per day.

(C)  Except as provided in division (F) of this section, no charitable instant bingo organization shall conduct instant bingo other than at a bingo session at a location where the primary source of retail income from all commercial activity at that location is the sale of instant bingo tickets.

(D)  (1)   The owner or lessor of a location that enters into a contract pursuant to division (B) of this section shall pay the full gross profit to the charitable instant bingo organization, in return for the deal of instant bingo tickets. The owner or lessor may retain the money that the owner or lessor receives for selling the instant bingo tickets, provided, however, that after the deal has been sold, the owner or lessor shall pay to the charitable instant bingo organization the value of any unredeemed instant bingo prizes remaining in the deal of instant bingo tickets.

(2)   The charitable instant bingo organization shall pay 6% of the total gross receipts of any deal of instant bingo tickets for the purpose of reimbursing the owner or lessor for expenses described in this division.

(3)   As used in this division, EXPENSES means those items provided for in R.C. §2915.01(GG)(4), (GG)(5), (GG)(6), (GG)(7), (GG)(8), (GG)(12), and (GG)(13) and that percentage of the owner’s or lessor’s rent for the location where instant bingo is conducted. Expenses, in the aggregate, shall not exceed 6% of the total gross receipts of any deal of instant bingo tickets.

(4)   As used in this division, FULL GROSS PROFIT means the amount by which the total receipts of all instant bingo tickets, if the deal has been sold in full, exceeds the amount that would be paid out if all prizes were redeemed.

(E)  A charitable instant bingo organization shall provide the Attorney General with all of the following information:

(1)   That the charitable instant bingo organization has terminated a contract entered into pursuant to division (B) of this section with an owner or lessor of a location;

(2)   That the charitable instant bingo organization has entered into a written contract pursuant to division (B) of this section with a new owner or lessor of a location;

(3)   That the charitable instant bingo organization is aware of conduct by the owner or lessor of a location at which instant bingo is conducted that is in violation of R.C. Chapter 2915.

(F)   Division (C) of this section does not apply to a volunteer firefighter’s organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(3), that conducts instant bingo other than at a bingo session on the premises where the organization conducts firefighter training, that has conducted instant bingo continuously for at least five years prior to July 1, 2003, and that, during each of those five years, had gross receipts of at least $1,500,000.

(R.C. §2915.093)

(G)  (1)   Subject to the requirements of R.C. §2915.14 and 2915.15 concerning electronic instant bingo, a veteran’s organization, a fraternal organization, or a sporting organization authorized to conduct a bingo session pursuant to R.C. Chapter 2915 may conduct instant bingo, electronic instant bingo, or both other than at a bingo session under a type III license issued under R.C. §2915.08 if all of the following apply:

(a)   The veteran’s organization, fraternal organization, or sporting organization limits the sale of instant bingo or electronic instant bingo to 12 hours during any day, provided that the sale does not begin earlier than 10:00 a.m. and ends not later than 2:00 a.m.

(b)   The veteran’s organization, fraternal organization, or sporting organization limits the sale of instant bingo or electronic instant bingo to its own premises and to its own members and invited guests.

(c)   The veteran’s organization, fraternal organization, or sporting organization is raising money for an organization that is described in I.R.C. §509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) and is either a governmental unit or an organization that maintains its principal place of business in this state, that is exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(3), and that is in good standing in this state and executes a written contract with that organization as required in division (G)(2) of this section.

(2)   If a veteran’s organization, fraternal organization, or sporting organization authorized to conduct instant bingo or electronic instant bingo pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section is raising money for another organization that is described in I.R.C. §509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) and is either a governmental unit or an organization that maintains its principal place of business in this state, that is exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c), and that is in good standing in this state, the veteran’s organization, fraternal organization, or sporting organization shall execute a written contract with the organization that is described in I.R.C. §509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) and is either a governmental unit or an organization that maintains its principal place of business in this state, that is exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c), and that is in good standing in this state in order to conduct instant bingo or electronic instant bingo. That contract shall include a statement of the percentage of the net proceeds that the veteran’s, fraternal, or sporting organization will be distributing to the organization that is described in I.R.C. §509(a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) and is either a governmental unit or an organization that maintains its principal place of business in this state, that is exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a) and described in I.R.C. §501(c)(3), and that is in good standing in this state.

(3)   (a)   If a veteran’s organization, fraternal organization, or sporting organization authorized to conduct instant bingo or electronic instant bingo pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section has been issued a liquor permit under R.C. Chapter 4303, that permit may be subject to suspension, revocation, or cancellation if the veteran’s organization, fraternal organization, or sporting organization violates a provision of this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2915.

(b)   No veteran’s organization, fraternal organization, or sporting organization that enters into a written contract pursuant to division (G)(2) of this section shall violate any provision of this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2915, or permit, aid, or abet any other person in violating any provision of this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2915.

(4)   A veteran’s organization, fraternal organization, or sporting organization shall give all required proceeds earned from the conduct of instant bingo or electronic instant bingo to the organization with which the veteran’s organization, fraternal organization, or sporting organization has entered into a written contract.

(5)   Whoever violates division (G) of this section is guilty of illegal instant bingo or electronic instant bingo conduct. Except as otherwise provided in this division, illegal instant bingo or electronic instant bingo conduct is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (G) of this section, illegal instant bingo or electronic instant bingo conduct is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2915.13)

§ 134.13  RESTRICTIONS ON OWNER OR LESSOR OF LOCATION AT INSTANT BINGO.

(A)  No owner or lessor of a location shall assist a charitable instant bingo organization in the conduct of instant bingo other than at a bingo session at that location unless the owner or lessor has entered into a written contract, as described in R.C. §2915.093, with the charitable instant bingo organization to assist in the conduct of instant bingo other than at a bingo session.

(B)  The location of the lessor or owner shall be designated as a location where the charitable instant bingo organization conducts instant bingo other than at a bingo session.

(C)  No owner or lessor of a location that enters into a written contract as prescribed in division (A) of this section shall violate any provision of this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2915, or permit, aid, or abet any other person in violating any provision of this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2915.

(D)  No owner or lessor of a location that enters into a written contract as prescribed in division (A) of this section shall violate the terms of the contract.

(E)  (1)   Whoever violates division (C) or (D) of this section is guilty of illegal instant bingo conduct. Except as otherwise provided in this division, illegal instant bingo conduct is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (C) or (D) of this section, illegal instant bingo conduct is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   If an owner or lessor of a location knowingly, intentionally, or recklessly violates division (C) or (D) of this section, any license that the owner or lessor holds for the retail sale of any goods on the owner’s or lessor’s premises that is issued by the state or a political subdivision is subject to suspension, revocation, or payment of a monetary penalty at the request of the Attorney General.

(R.C. §2915.094)

§ 134.14  SKILL-BASED AMUSEMENT MACHINES; PROHIBITED CONDUCT.

(A)  No person shall give to another person any item described in division (1), (2), (3), or (4) of the definition for Amerchandise prize@ in §134.01 in exchange for a noncash prize, toy, or novelty received as a reward for playing or operating a skill-based amusement machine or for a free or reduced-price game won on a skill-based amusement machine.

(B)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of skill-based amusement machine prohibited conduct. A violation of division (A) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree for each redemption of a prize that is involved in the violation. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (A) of this section, a violation of that division is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2915.06)

(C)  Any regulation of skill-based amusement machines shall be governed by this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2915 and not by R.C. Chapter 1345.

(R.C. §2915.061)

§ 134.15  ELECTRONIC INSTANT BINGO; PROHIBITED CONDUCT.

(A)  No charitable organization shall conduct electronic instant bingo unless all of the following are true:

(1)   The organization is a veteran’s organization described in R.C. §2915.01(J), or is a fraternal organization described in R.C. §2915.01(L), and the organization qualified as a veteran’s organization or fraternal organization, as applicable, on or before June 30, 2021.

(2)   The organization is a veteran’s organization described in I.R.C. §501(c)(4) or is, and has received from the Internal Revenue Service a determination letter that is currently in effect stating that the organization is, exempt from federal income taxation under I.R.C. §501(a), and is described in I.R.C. §501(c)(7), 501(c)(8), 501(c)(10), or 501(c)(19).

(3)   The organization has not conducted a raffle in violation of R.C. §2915.092(B) using an electronic raffle machine, as described in Ohio Veterans and Fraternal Charitable Coalition v. DeWine, Case No. 13‑CV‑13610 (C.P. Franklin Co. February 23, 2018), at any time on or after January 1, 2022.

(B)  No charitable organization that conducts electronic instant bingo shall do any of the following:

(1)   Possess an electronic instant bingo system that was not obtained in accordance with R.C. Chapter 2915 or with any rule adopted under R.C. Chapter 2915;

(2)   Conduct electronic instant bingo on any day, at any time, or on any premises not specified on the organization’s type II or type III license issued under R.C. §2915.08;

(3)   Hold more than one valid license to conduct electronic instant bingo at any one time;

(4)   Conduct electronic instant bingo on more than one premises or on any premises other than the charitable organization’s principal place of business;

(5)   Operate more than ten electronic bingo systems at the premises on which the charitable organization conducts electronic instant bingo under its license;

(6)   Fail to display both of the following conspicuously at the premises on which the charitable organization conducts electronic instant bingo:

(a)   The charitable organization’s bingo license;

(b)   The serial number of each deal of electronic instant bingo tickets being sold.

(7)   Permit any person the charitable organization knows, or should have known, to be under 18 years of age to play electronic instant bingo;

(8)   Sell or provide to any person an electronic instant bingo ticket for a price different from the price displayed on the game flare for that deal, except that the charitable organization may give a participant who wins an electronic instant bingo game an electronic instant bingo ticket as a prize in place of a cash prize;

(9)   Fail, once an electronic instant bingo deal is begun, to continue to sell tickets in that deal until all prizes have been awarded;

(10)  Permit any person whom the organization knows, or should have known, has been convicted of a felony or gambling offense in any jurisdiction to be a bingo game operator in the conduct of electronic instant bingo;

(11)  Permit a bingo game operator to play electronic instant bingo;

(12)  (a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(12)(b) of this section, pay compensation to a bingo game operator for conducting electronic instant bingo.

(b)   Division (B)(12)(a) of this section does not prohibit an employee of a veteran’s organization or fraternal organization from redeeming electronic instant bingo tickets or vouchers for the organization’s members or invited guests, so long as no portion of the employee’s compensation is paid from any bingo receipts.

(13)  Pay consulting fees to any person in relation to electronic instant bingo.

(C)  No person shall sell, offer to sell, or otherwise provide or offer to provide an electronic instant bingo system to any person for use in this municipality unless the electronic instant bingo system has been approved under R.C. §2915.15.

(D)  Whoever knowingly violates division (A), (B), or (C) of this section or a rule adopted under R.C. §2915.14(D) is guilty of illegal electronic instant bingo conduct. Illegal electronic instant bingo conduct is a misdemeanor of the first degree, except that if the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or state law, or of a rule adopted under R.C. §2915.14(D), illegal instant bingo conduct is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2915.14)

CHAPTER 135: OFFENSES AGAINST PERSONS

Section

135.01 Definitions
135.02 Assault; negligent assault
135.03 Injury to persons by hunters
135.04 Menacing; aggravated menacing; menacing by stalking
135.05 Unlawful restraint
135.06 Coercion
135.07 Contributing to unruliness or delinquency of a child
135.08 Telecommunications harassment
135.09 Adulteration of food
135.10 Hazing prohibited
135.11 Negligent homicide
135.12 Vehicular homicide; vehicular manslaughter; vehicular assault
135.13 Unlawful collection of bodily substances
135.14 Bigamy
135.15 Unlawful abortion; failure to perform viability testing
135.16 Abortion trafficking
135.17 Nonsupport of dependents
135.18 Endangering children
135.19 Interference with custody; interference with support orders
135.20 Domestic violence
135.21 Failure to provide for a person with a functional impairment
135.22 Patient abuse or neglect; patient endangerment; exceptions; false statements; retaliation
135.23 Interference with right of person to engage in housing transactions because of race, religion, or the like
135.24 Ethnic intimidation
135.25 Violating a protection order, consent agreement, anti-stalking protection order or order issued by a court of another state
135.26 Illegal distribution of cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products; transaction scans
135.27 Nonsmoking areas in places of public assembly
135.28 Spreading contagion
135.29 Abuse of a corpse

Statutory reference:

Child care, misrepresentations by providers and failure to disclose death or serious injuries,

  misdemeanors, see R.C. §§ 2919.223 et seq.

Extortionate extension of credit, see R.C. §§ 2905.21 through 2905.24

Failure to send child to school, see R.C. § 3321.38

Permitting child abuse, felony offense, see R.C. § 2903.15

Reckless homicide, felony offense, see R.C. § 2903.041

Rights of victims of crimes, see R.C. Chapter 2930

§ 135.01  DEFINITIONS.

(A)  For the purpose of §§135.01 through 135.04, the following definitions shall apply unless the context clearly indicates or requires a different meaning.

ANOTHERS UNBORN or OTHER PERSONS UNBORN. A member of the species Homo sapiens who is or was carried in the womb of another during a period that begins with fertilization and that continues unless and until live birth occurs.

UNLAWFUL TERMINATION OF ANOTHERS PREGNANCY. Causing the death of an unborn member of the species Homo sapiens who is or was carried in the womb of another, as a result of injuries inflicted during the period that begins with fertilization and that continues unless and until live birth occurs.

(B)  Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, in no case shall the definitions of the terms Aanother’s unborn@, Aother person’s unborn@ and Aunlawful termination of another’s pregnancy@ that are set forth in division (A) of this section be applied or construed in any of the following manners:

(1)   Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(1) of this section, in a manner so that the offense prohibits or is construed as prohibiting any pregnant woman or her physician from performing an abortion with the consent of the pregnant woman, with the consent of the pregnant woman implied by law in a medical emergency, or with the approval of one otherwise authorized by law to consent to medical treatment on behalf of the pregnant woman. An abortion that violates the conditions described in the immediately preceding sentence may be punished as any violation of R.C. §2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.05, 2903.06, 2903.08, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.14, 2903.21 or 2903.22, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, as applicable. An abortion that does not violate the conditions described in the second immediately preceding sentence but that does violate R.C. §2919.12, 2919.13(B), 2919.15, 2919.151, 2919.17 or 2919.18, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, may be punished as a violation of such section, as applicable.

(2)   In a manner so that the offense is applied or is construed as applying to a woman based on an act or omission of the woman that occurs while she is or was pregnant and that results in any of the following:

(a)   Her delivery of a stillborn baby.

(b)   Her causing, in any other manner, the death in utero of a viable, unborn human that she is carrying.

(c)   Her causing the death of her child who is born alive but who dies from one or more injuries that are sustained while the child is a viable, unborn human.

(d)   Her causing her child who is born alive to sustain one or more injuries while the child is a viable, unborn human.

(e)   Her causing, threatening to cause, or attempting to cause, in any other manner, an injury, illness, or other psychological illness or condition, regardless of its duration or gravity, to a viable, unborn human that she is carrying.

(R.C. §2903.09)

§ 135.02  ASSAULT; NEGLIGENT ASSAULT.

(A)  Assault.

(1)   No person shall knowingly cause or attempt to cause physical harm to another or to another’s unborn.

(2)   No person shall recklessly cause serious physical harm to another or to another’s unborn.

(3)   Whoever violates division (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this section is guilty of assault. Except as provided in R.C. §2903.13(C), assault is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(4)   If an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to assault when it is a misdemeanor also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a specification as described in R.C. §2941.1423 (victim of the offense was a woman whom the defendant knew was pregnant at the time of the offense) that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense, the court shall sentence the offender to a mandatory jail term as provided in R.C. §2929.24(F).

(5)   A prosecution for a violation of division (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this section does not preclude a prosecution of a violation of any other section of the Ohio Revised Code. One or more acts, a series of acts, or a course of behavior that can be prosecuted under division (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this section or any other section of the Ohio Revised Code may be prosecuted under division (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this section, the other section of the Ohio Revised Code, or both sections. However, if an offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this section and also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of R.C. §2903.22, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, based on the same conduct involving the same victim that was the basis of the violation of division (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this section, the offenses are allied offenses of similar import under R.C. §2941.25.

(R.C. §2903.13)

(B)  Negligent assault.

(1)   No person shall negligently, by means of a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance as defined in R.C. §2923.11, cause physical harm to another or to another’s unborn.

(2)   Whoever violates division (B)(1) of this section is guilty of negligent assault, a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §2903.14)

(Prior Code, §135.01)

Statutory reference:

Aggravated and felonious assault, see R.C. §§ 2903.11 and 2903.12

Felony assault offenses, see R.C. § 2903.13(C)

Permitting child abuse, felony offense, see R.C. § 2903.15

Persons who may seek relief under anti-stalking protection order; ex parte orders, see

  R.C. § 2903.214

Protection order as pretrial condition of release, see R.C. § 2903.213

Strangulation, felony offense, see R.C. § 2903.18

Vehicular assault and aggravated vehicular assault, felony offenses, see R.C. § 2903.08

§ 135.03  INJURY TO PERSONS BY HUNTERS.

(A)  Injury to person. No person in the act of hunting, pursuing, taking, or killing a wild animal shall act in a negligent, careless, or reckless manner so as to injure persons.

(R.C. §1533.171(A))

(B)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section shall be guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §1533.99(C))

(Prior Code, §135.02)

Statutory reference:

Violation, license revocation, see R.C. § 1533.171(B) through (E)

§ 135.04  MENACING; AGGRAVATED MENACING; MENACING BY STALKING.

(A)  Menacing.

(1)   (a)   No person shall knowingly cause another to believe that the offender will cause physical harm to the person or property of the other person, the other person’s unborn, or a member of the other person’s immediate family. In addition to any other basis for the other person’s belief that the offender will cause physical harm to the person or property of the other person, the other person’s unborn, or a member of the other person’s immediate family, the other person’s belief may be based on words or conduct of the offender that are directed at or identify a corporation, association, or other organization that employs the other person or to which the other person belongs.

(b)   No person shall knowingly place or attempt to place another in reasonable fear of physical harm or death by displaying a deadly weapon, regardless of whether the deadly weapon displayed is operable or inoperable, if either of the following applies:

  1. The other person is an emergency service responder, the person knows or reasonably should know that the other person is an emergency service responder, and it is the person’s specific purpose to engage in the specified conduct against an emergency service responder.
  1. The other person is a family or household member or co-worker of an emergency service responder, the person knows or reasonably should know that the other person is a family or household member or co-worker of an emergency service responder, and it is the person’s specific purpose to engage in the specified conduct against a family or household member or co-worker of an emergency service responder.

(2)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of menacing. Except as otherwise provided in this division, menacing is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If the victim of the offense is an officer or employee of a public children services agency or a private child placing agency and the offense relates to the officer’s or employee’s performance or anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties or if the victim of the offense is an emergency service responder in the performance of the responder’s official duties, menacing is one of the following:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, a misdemeanor of the first degree;

(b)   If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense of violence, the victim of that prior offense was an officer or employee of a public children services agency or private child placing agency or an emergency service responder, and that prior offense related to the officer’s or employee’s performance or anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties or to the responder’s performance of the responder’s official duties, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   A prosecution for a violation of division (A) of this section does not preclude a prosecution of a violation of any other section of the Ohio Revised Code. One or more acts, a series of acts, or a course of behavior that can be prosecuted under division (A) of this section or any other section of the Ohio Revised Code may be prosecuted under division (A) of this section, the other section of the Ohio Revised Code, or both sections. However, if an offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (A) of this section and also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of R.C. §2903.13, or any substantially similar municipal ordinance, based on the same conduct involving the same victim that was the basis of the violation of division (A) of this section, the offenses are allied offenses of similar import under R.C. §2941.25.

(4)   As used in this section:

CO-WORKER. Has the same meanings as in R.C. §2903.13.

EMERGENCY SERVICE RESPONDER. Has the same meanings as in R.C. §2903.13.

FAMILY OR HOUSEHOLD MEMBER. Have the same meanings as in R.C. §2903.13.

ORGANIZATION. Includes an entity that is a governmental employer.

(R.C. §2903.22)

(B)  Aggravated menacing.

(1)   No person shall knowingly cause another to believe that the offender will cause serious physical harm to the person or property of the other person, such other person’s unborn, or a member of such other person’s immediate family. In addition to any other basis for the other person’s belief that the offender will cause serious physical harm to the person or property of the other person, the other person’s unborn, or a member of the other person’s immediate family, the other person’s belief may be based on words or conduct of the offender that are directed at or identify a corporation, association, or other organization that employs the other person or to which the other person belongs.

(2)   Whoever violates division (B)(1) of this section is guilty of aggravated menacing. Except as otherwise provided in this division (B)(2), aggravated menacing is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the victim of the offense is an officer or employee of a public children services agency or a private child placing agency and the offense relates to the officer’s or employee’s performance or anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties, aggravated menacing is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law or, if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense of violence, the victim of that prior offense was an officer or employee of a public children services agency or private child placing agency, and that prior offense related to the officer’s or employee’s performance or anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   As used in this division (B), ORGANIZATION includes an entity that is a governmental employer.

(R.C. §2903.21)

(C)  Menacing by stalking.

(1)   (a)   No person by engaging in a pattern of conduct shall knowingly cause another person to believe that the offender will cause physical harm to the other person or a family or household member of the other person or cause mental distress to the other person or a family or household member of the other person. In addition to any other basis for the other person’s belief that the offender will cause physical harm to the other person or the other person’s family or household member or mental distress to the other person or the other person’s family or household member, the other person’s belief or mental distress may be based on words or conduct of the offender that are directed at or identify a corporation, association, or other organization that employs the other person or to which the other person belongs.

(b)   No person, through the use of any form of written communication or any electronic method of remotely transferring information, including but not limited to any computer, computer network, computer program, computer system, or telecommunication device, shall post a message or use any intentionally written or verbal graphic gesture with purpose to do either of the following:

  1. Violate division (C)(1)(a) of this section;
  1. Urge or incite another to commit a violation of division (C)(1)(a) of this section.

(c)   No person, with a sexual motivation, shall violate division (C)(1)(a) or (C)(1)(b) of this section.

(2)   Whoever violates division (C)(1) of this section is guilty of menacing by stalking.

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(b) of this section, menacing by stalking is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(b)   Menacing by stalking is a felony, to be prosecuted under appropriate state law, if any of the following applies:

  1. The offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of R.C. §2903.211 or a violation of R.C. §2911.211, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance to either of these offenses.
  1. In committing the offense under division (C)(1)(a), (C)(1)(b) or (C)(1)(c) of this section, the offender made a threat of physical harm to or against the victim, or as a result of an offense committed under division (C)(1)(b) or (C)(1)(c) of this section, a third person induced by the offender’s posted message made a threat of physical harm to or against the victim.
  1. In committing the offense under division (C)(1)(a), (C)(1)(b) or (C)(1)(c) of this section, the offender trespassed on the land or premises where the victim lives, is employed, or attends school, or as a result of an offense committed under division (C)(1)(b) or (C)(1)(c) of this section, a third person induced by the offender’s posted message trespassed on the land or premises where the victim lives, is employed, or attends school.
  1. The victim of the offense is a minor.
  1. The offender has a history of violence towards the victim or any other person or a history of other violent acts towards the victim or any other person.
  1. While committing the offense under division (C)(1)(a) of this section or a violation of division (C)(1)(c) of this section based on conduct in violation of division (C)(1)(a) of this section, the offender had a deadly weapon on or about the offender’s person or under the offender’s control. Division (C)(2)(b)6. of this section does not apply in determining the penalty for a violation of division (C)(1)(b) of this section or a violation of division (C)(1)(c) of this section based on conduct in violation of division (C)(1)(b) of this section.
  1. At the time of the commission of the offense, the offender was the subject of a protection order issued under R.C. §2903.213 or R.C. §2903.214, regardless of whether or not the person to be protected under the order is the victim of the offense or another person.
  1. In committing the offense under division (C)(1)(a), (C)(1)(b) or (C)(1)(c) of this section, the offender caused serious physical harm to the premises at which the victim resides, to the real property on which that premises is located, or to any personal property located on that premises, or as a result of an offense committed under division (C)(1)(b) of this section or an offense committed under division (C)(1)(c) of this section based on a violation of division (C)(1)(b) of this section, a third person induced by the offender’s posted message caused serious physical harm to that premises, that real property, or any personal property on that premises.
  1. Prior to committing the offense, the offender had been determined to represent a substantial risk of physical harm to others as manifested by evidence of then-recent homicidal or other violent behavior, evidence of then-recent threats that placed another in reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious harm, or other evidence of then-present dangerousness.
  1. The victim of the offense is an officer or employee of a public children services agency or a private child placing agency and the offense relates to the officer’s or employee’s performance or anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties.
  1. The offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense of violence, the victim of that prior offense was an officer or employee of a public children services agency or private child placing agency, and that prior offense related to the officer’s or employee’s performance or anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties.

(3)   R.C. §2919.271 applies in relation to a defendant charged with a violation of this section.

(4)   As used in division (C) of this section:

COMPUTER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2913.01.

COMPUTER NETWORK. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2913.01.

COMPUTER PROGRAM. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2913.01.

COMPUTER SYSTEM. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2913.01.

EMERGENCY FACILITY PERSON. Is the singular of Aemergency facility personnel@ as defined in R.C. §2909.04.

EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES PERSON. Is the singular of Aemergency medical services personnel@ as defined in R.C. §2133.21.

FAMILY OR HOUSEHOLD MEMBER. Means any of the following:

  1. Any of the following who is residing or has resided with the person against whom the act prohibited in division (C)(1)(a) of this section is committed:
  1. A spouse, a person living as a spouse, or a former spouse of the person;
  1. A parent, a foster parent, or a child of the person, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to the person;
  1. A parent or a child of a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the person, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the person.
  1. The natural parent of any child of whom the person against whom the act prohibited in division (C)(1)(a) of this section is committed is the other natural parent or is the putative other natural parent.

MENTAL DISTRESS. Means any of the following:

  1. Any mental illness or condition that involves some temporary substantial incapacity;
  1. Any mental illness or condition that would normally require psychiatric treatment, psychological treatment, or other mental health services, whether or not any person requested or received psychiatric treatment, psychological treatment, or other mental health services.

ORGANIZATION. Includes an entity that is a governmental employer.

PATTERN OF CONDUCT. Means two or more actions or incidents closely related in time, whether or not there has been a prior conviction based on any of those actions or incidents, or two or more actions or incidents closely related in time, whether or not there has been a prior conviction based on any of those actions or incidents, directed at one or more persons employed by or belonging to the same corporation, association, or other organization. Actions or incidents that prevent, obstruct, or delay the performance by a public official, firefighter, rescuer, emergency medical services person, or emergency facility person of any authorized act within the public official’s, firefighter’s, rescuer’s, emergency medical services person’s, or emergency facility person’s official capacity, or the posting of messages, use of intentionally written or verbal graphic gestures, or receipt of information or data through the use of any form of written communication or an electronic method of remotely transferring information, including but not limited to a computer, computer network, computer program, computer system, or telecommunications device, may constitute a Apattern of conduct@.

PERSON LIVING AS A SPOUSE. Means a person who is living or has lived with the person against whom the act prohibited in division (C)(1)(a) of this section is committed in a common law marital relationship, who otherwise is cohabiting with that person, or who otherwise has cohabited with the person within five years prior to the date of the alleged commission of the act in question.

POST A MESSAGE. Means transferring, sending, posting, publishing, disseminating, or otherwise communicating, or attempting to transfer, send, post, publish, disseminate, or otherwise communicate, any message or information, whether truthful or untruthful, about an individual, and whether done under one’s own name, under the name of another, or while impersonating another.

PUBLIC OFFICIAL. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2921.01.

SEXUAL MOTIVATION. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2971.01.

TELECOMMUNICATIONS DEVICE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2913.01.

THIRD PERSON. Means, in relation to conduct as described in division (C)(1)(b) of this section, an individual who is neither the offender nor the victim of the conduct.

(5)   The prosecution does not need to prove in a prosecution under division (C) of this section that a person requested or received psychiatric treatment, psychological treatment, or other mental health services in order to show that the person was caused mental distress as described in division (2) of the definition for Amental distress@ in this section.

(6)   (a)   Division (C) of this section does not apply to a person solely because the person provided access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control, including having provided capabilities that are incidental to providing access or connection to or from the electronic method of remotely transferring the information, and that do not include the creation of the content of the material that is the subject of the access or connection. In addition, any person providing access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control shall not be liable for any action voluntarily taken in good faith to block the receipt or transmission through its service of any information that it believes is or will be sent in violation of division (C) of this section.

(b)   Division (C)(6)(a) of this section does not create an affirmative duty for any person providing access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control to block the receipt or transmission through its service of any information that it believes is or will be sent in violation of division (C) of this section except as otherwise provided by law.

(c)   Division (C)(6)(a) of this section does not apply to a person who conspires with a person actively involved in the creation or knowing distribution of material in violation of division (C) of this section or who knowingly advertises the availability of material of that nature.

(R.C. §2903.211)

(Prior Code, §135.03)

Statutory reference:

Authority of corporations to seek protection orders in certain circumstances, see R.C. § 2903.215

Conditions of bail for violators, see R.C. § 2903.212

Persons who may seek relief under anti-stalking protection order; ex parte orders, see

  R.C. § 2903.214

Protection order as pretrial condition of release, see R.C. § 2903.213

§ 135.05  UNLAWFUL RESTRAINT.

(A)  No person, without privilege to do so, shall knowingly restrain another of the other person’s liberty.

(B)  No person, without privilege to do so and with a sexual motivation, shall knowingly restrain another of the other person’s liberty.

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of unlawful restraint, a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(D)  As used in this section, SEXUAL MOTIVATION has the same meaning as in R.C. §2971.01.

(R.C. §2905.03)  (Prior Code, §135.04)

§ 135.06  COERCION.

(A)  Generally. No person, with purpose to coerce another into taking or refraining from action concerning which the other person has a legal freedom of choice, shall do any of the following:

(1)   Threaten to commit any offense.

(2)   Utter or threaten any slander against any person.

(3)   Expose or threaten to expose any matter tending to subject any person to hatred, contempt, or ridicule, or to damage any person’s personal or business repute, or to impair any person’s credit.

(4)   Institute or threaten criminal proceedings against any person.

(5)   Take or withhold, or threaten to take or withhold official action, or cause or threaten to cause official action to be taken or withheld.

(B)  Prosecutor of court not prohibited from the following. Divisions (A)(4) and (A)(5) of this section shall not be construed to prohibit a prosecutor or court from doing any of the following in good faith and in the interests of justice:

(1)   Offering or agreeing to grant, or granting immunity from prosecution pursuant to R.C. §2945.44.

(2)   In return for a plea of guilty to one or more offenses charged or to one or more other or lesser offenses, or in return for the testimony of the accused in a case to which the accused is not a party, offering or agreeing to dismiss, or dismissing one or more charges pending against an accused, or offering or agreeing to impose, or imposing a certain sentence or modification of sentence.

(3)   Imposing a community control sanction on certain conditions, including without limitation requiring the offender to make restitution or redress to the victim of the offense.

(C)  Actors conduct reasonable response to circumstances; affirmative defense. It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (A)(3), (A)(4), or (A)(5) of this section that the actor’s conduct was a reasonable response to the circumstances which occasioned it, and that the actor’s purpose was limited to any of the following:

(1)   Compelling another to refrain from misconduct or to desist from further misconduct.

(2)   Preventing or redressing a wrong or injustice.

(3)   Preventing another from taking action for which the actor reasonably believed the other person to be disqualified.

(4)   Compelling another to take action which the actor reasonably believed the other person to be under a duty to take.

(D)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of coercion, a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(E)  Definitions. As used in this section:

COMMUNITY CONTROL SANCTION has the same meaning as in R.C. §2929.01.

THREAT includes a direct threat and a threat by innuendo.

(R.C. §2905.12)  (Prior Code, §135.06)

§ 135.07  CONTRIBUTING TO UNRULINESS OR DELINQUENCY OF A CHILD.

(A)  Definitions. As used in this section:

DELINQUENT CHILD. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2152.02.

UNRULY CHILD. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2151.022.

(B)  Generally. No person, including a parent, guardian, or other custodian of a child, shall do any of the following:

(1)   Aid, abet, induce, cause, encourage, or contribute to a child or a ward of the juvenile court becoming an unruly child or a delinquent child;

(2)   Act in a way tending to cause a child or a ward of the juvenile court to become an unruly child or a delinquent child;

(3)   Act in a way that contributes to an adjudication of the child as a delinquent child based on the child’s violation of a court order adjudicating the child an unruly child for being an habitual truant;

(4)   If the person is the parent, guardian, or custodian of a child who has the duties under R.C. Chapters 2152 and 2950 to register, register a new residence address, and periodically verify a residence address, and, if applicable, to send a notice of intent to reside, and if the child is not emancipated, as defined in R.C. §2919.121, fail to ensure that the child complies with those duties under R.C. Chapters 2152 and 2950.

(C)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of contributing to the unruliness or delinquency of a child, a misdemeanor of the first degree. Each day of violation of this section is a separate offense.

(R.C. §2919.24)  (Prior Code, §135.07)

Statutory reference:

Failure to send child to school, see R.C. § 3321.38

§ 135.08  TELECOMMUNICATIONS HARASSMENT.

(A)  No person shall knowingly make or cause to be made a telecommunication, or knowingly permit a telecommunication to be made from a telecommunications device under the person’s control, to another, if the caller does any of the following:

(1)   Makes the telecommunication with purpose to harass, intimidate, or abuse any person at the premises to which the telecommunication is made, whether or not actual communication takes place between the caller and a recipient;

(2)   Describes, suggests, requests, or proposes that the caller, the recipient of the telecommunication, or any other person engage in sexual activity, and the recipient or another person at the premises to which the telecommunication is made has requested, in a previous telecommunication or in the immediate telecommunication, that the caller not make a telecommunication to the recipient or to the premises to which the telecommunication is made;

(3)   During the telecommunication, violates R.C. §2903.21 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;

(4)   Knowingly states to the recipient of the telecommunication that the caller intends to cause damage to or destroy public or private property, and the recipient, any member of the recipient’s family, or any other person who resides at the premises to which the telecommunication is made owns, leases, resides, or works in, will at the time of the destruction or damaging be near or in, has the responsibility of protecting, or insures the property that will be destroyed or damaged;

(5)   Knowingly makes the telecommunication to the recipient of the telecommunication, to another person at the premises to which the telecommunication is made, or to those premises, and the recipient or another person at those premises previously has told the caller not to make a telecommunication to those premises or to any persons at those premises;

(6)   Knowingly makes any comment, request, suggestion, or proposal to the recipient of the telecommunication that is threatening, intimidating, menacing, coercive, or obscene with the intent to abuse, threaten, or harass the recipient;

(7)   Without a lawful business purpose, knowingly interrupts the telecommunication service of any person;

(8)   Without a lawful business purpose, knowingly transmits to any person, regardless of whether the telecommunication is heard in its entirety, any file, document, or other communication that prevents that person from using the person’s telephone service or electronic communication device;

(9)   Knowingly makes any false statement concerning the death, injury, illness, disfigurement, reputation, indecent conduct, or criminal conduct of the recipient of the telecommunication or family or household member of the recipient with purpose to abuse, threaten, intimidate, or harass the recipient;

(10)  Knowingly incites another person through a telecommunication or other means to harass or participate in the harassment of a person;

(11)  Knowingly alarms the recipient by making a telecommunication without a lawful purpose at an hour or hours known to be inconvenient to the recipient and in an offensive or repetitive manner.

(B)  (1)   No person shall make or cause to be made a telecommunication or permit a telecommunication to be made from a telecommunications device under the person’s control, with purpose to abuse, threaten, or harass another person.

(2)   No person shall knowingly post a text or audio statement or an image on an internet web site or web page for the purpose of abusing, threatening, or harassing another person.

(C)  (1)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of telecommunications harassment.

(2)   A violation of division (A)(1), (A)(2), (A)(3), (A)(5), (A)(6), (A)(7), (A)(8), (A)(9), (A)(10), or (A)(11) or (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree on a first offense and a felony on each subsequent offense, which shall be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   Except as otherwise provided in this division (C)(3), a violation of division (A)(4) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree on a first offense and a felony on each subsequent offense, to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. If a violation of division (A)(4) of this section results in economic harm of $1,000 or more, telecommunications harassment is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(D)  No cause of action may be asserted in any court of this municipality against any provider of a telecommunications service, interactive computer service as defined in 47 U.S.C. §230, or information service, or against any officer, employee, or agent of a telecommunications service, interactive computer service as defined in 47 U.S.C. §230, or information service, for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises out of the provider’s, officer’s, employee’s, or agent’s provision of information, facilities, or assistance in accordance with the terms of a court order that is issued in relation to the investigation or prosecution of an alleged violation of this section. A provider of a telecommunications service, interactive computer service as defined in 47 U.S.C. §230, or information service, or an officer, employee, or agent of a telecommunications service, interactive computer service as defined in 47 U.S.C. §230, or information service, is immune from any civil or criminal liability for injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises out of the provider’s, officer’s, employee’s, or agent’s provision of information, facilities, or assistance in accordance with the terms of a court order that is issued in relation to the investigation or prosecution of an alleged violation of this section.

(E)  (1)   This section does not apply to a person solely because the person provided access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control, including having provided capabilities that are incidental to providing access or connection to or from the electronic method of remotely transferring the information, and that do not include the creation of the content of the material that is the subject of the access or connection. In addition, any person providing access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control shall not be liable for any action voluntarily taken in good faith to block the receipt or transmission through its service of any information that the person believes is, or will be sent, in violation of this section.

(2)   Division (E)(1) of this section does not create an affirmative duty for any person providing access or connection to or from an electronic method of remotely transferring information not under that person’s control to block the receipt or transmission through its service of any information that it believes is, or will be sent, in violation of this section except as otherwise provided by law.

(3)   Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to a person who conspires with a person actively involved in the creation or knowing distribution of material in violation of this section or who knowingly advertises the availability of material of that nature.

(4)   A provider or user of an interactive computer service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. §230, shall neither be treated as the publisher or speaker of any information provided by another information content provider, as defined in 47 U.S.C. §230, nor held civilly or criminally liable for the creation or development of information provided by another information content provider, as defined in 47 U.S.C. §230. Nothing in this division shall be construed to protect a person from liability to the extent that the person developed or created any content in violation of this section.

(F)   Divisions (A)(5) to (A)(11) and (B)(2) of this section do not apply to a person who, while employed or contracted by a newspaper, magazine, press association, news agency, news wire service, cable channel or cable operator, or radio or television station, is gathering, processing, transmitting, compiling, editing, or disseminating information for the general public within the scope of the person’s employment in that capacity or the person’s contractual authority in that capacity.

(G)  As used in divisions (A) through (D) of this section:

CABLE OPERATOR. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §1332.21.

CALLER. Means the person described in division (A) of this section who makes or causes to be made a telecommunication or who permits a telecommunication to be made from a telecommunications device under that person’s control.

ECONOMIC HARM. Means all direct, incidental and consequential pecuniary harm suffered by a victim as a result of the criminal conduct. The term includes but is not limited to all of the following:

(a)   All wages, salaries or other compensation lost as a result of the criminal conduct;

(b)   The cost of all wages, salaries or other compensation paid to employees for time those employees are prevented from working as a result of the criminal conduct;

(c)   The overhead costs incurred from the time that a business is shut down as a result of the criminal conduct;

(d)   The loss of value to tangible or intangible property that was damaged as a result of the criminal conduct.

FAMILY OR HOUSEHOLD MEMBER. Means any of the following:

(a)   Any of the following who is residing or has resided with the recipient of the telecommunication against whom the act prohibited in division (A)(9) of this section is committed:

  1. A spouse, a person living as a spouse, or a former spouse of the recipient;
  1. A parent, a foster parent, or a child of the recipient, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to the recipient;
  1. A parent or a child of a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the recipient, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the recipient.

(b)   The natural parent of any child of whom the recipient of the telecommunication against whom the act prohibited in division (A)(9) of this section is committed is the other natural parent or is the putative other natural parent.

PERSON LIVING AS A SPOUSE. Means a person who is living or has lived with the recipient of the telecommunication against whom the act prohibited in division (A)(9) of this section is committed in a common law marital relationship, who otherwise is cohabiting with the recipient, or who otherwise has cohabited with the recipient within five years prior to the date of the alleged commission of the act in question.

SEXUAL ACTIVITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2907.01.

TELECOMMUNICATION. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2913.01.

TELECOMMUNICATIONS DEVICE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2913.01.

(H)  Nothing in this section prohibits a person from making a telecommunication to a debtor that is in compliance with the AFair Debt Collection Practices Act@, 15 U.S.C. §1692, as amended, or the ATelephone Consumer Protection Act@, 47 U.S.C. §227, as amended.

(R.C. §2917.21)  (Prior Code, §135.08)

§ 135.09  ADULTERATION OF FOOD.

(A)  Adulterated food. No person shall do either of the following, knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that any person may suffer physical harm or be seriously inconvenienced or annoyed thereby:

(1)   Place a pin, razor blade, glass, laxative, drug of abuse, or other harmful or hazardous object or substance in any food or confection.

(2)   Furnish to any person any food or confection which has been adulterated in violation of division (A)(1) of this section.

(R.C. §3716.11)

(B)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §3716.99(C))

(Prior Code, §135.09)

Statutory reference:

Adulteration of food generally, see R.C. § 3715.59

§ 135.10  HAZING PROHIBITED.

(A)  As used in this section:

HAZING. Means doing any act or coercing another, including the victim, to do any act of initiation into any student or other organization or any act to continue or reinstate membership in or affiliation with any student or other organization that causes or creates a substantial risk of causing mental or physical harm to any person, including coercing another to consume alcohol or a drug of abuse, as defined in R.C. §3719.011.

ORGANIZATION. Includes a national or international organization with which a fraternity or sorority is affiliated.

(B)  (1)   No person shall recklessly participate in the hazing of another.

(2)   No administrator, employee, faculty member, teacher, consultant, alumnus, or volunteer of any organization, including any primary, secondary, or post-secondary school or any other educational institution, public or private, shall recklessly permit the hazing of any person associated with the organization.

(C)  (1)   No person shall recklessly participate in the hazing of another when the hazing includes coerced consumption of alcohol or drugs of abuse resulting in serious physical harm to the other person.

(2)   No administrator, employee, faculty member, teacher, consultant, alumnus, or volunteer of any organization, including any primary, secondary, or post-secondary school or any other educational institution, public or private, shall recklessly permit the hazing of any person associated with the organization when the hazing includes coerced consumption of alcohol or drugs of abuse resulting in serious physical harm to that person.

(D)  Whoever violates divisions (B) or (C) of this section is guilty of hazing. A violation of division (B)(1) or (B)(2) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree. A violation of division (C)(1) or (C)(2) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2903.31)

(E)  Reckless failure to immediately report knowledge of hazing.

(1)   No administrator, employee, faculty member, teacher, consultant, alumnus, or volunteer of any organization, including any primary, secondary, or post-secondary school or any other public or private educational institution, who is acting in an official and professional capacity shall recklessly fail to immediately report the knowledge of hazing to a law enforcement agency in the county in which the victim of hazing resides or in which the hazing is occurring or has occurred.

(2)   A violation of division (E)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree, except that the violation is a misdemeanor of the first degree if the hazing causes serious physical harm.

(R.C. §2903.311(B), (C))

(Prior Code, §135.10)

Statutory reference:

Civil liability for hazing, see R.C. § 2307.44

§ 135.11  NEGLIGENT HOMICIDE.

(A)  No person shall negligently cause the death of another or the unlawful termination of another’s pregnancy by means of a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance, as defined in R.C. §2923.11.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of negligent homicide, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2903.05)

Statutory reference:

Reckless homicide, felony offense, see R.C. § 2903.041

§ 135.12  VEHICULAR HOMICIDE; VEHICULAR MANSLAUGHTER; VEHICULAR ASSAULT.

(A)  No person, while operating or participating in the operation of a motor vehicle, motorcycle, snowmobile, locomotive, watercraft, or aircraft, shall cause the death of another or the unlawful termination of another’s pregnancy in any of the following ways:

(1)   (a)   As the proximate result of committing a violation of R.C. §4511.19(A) or of a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;

(b)   As the proximate result of committing a violation of R.C. §1547.11(A), or of a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;

(c)   As the proximate result of committing a violation of R.C. §4561.15(A)(3), or of a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

(2)   In one of the following ways:

(a)   Recklessly;

(b)   As the proximate result of committing, while operating or participating in the operation of a motor vehicle or motorcycle in a construction zone, a reckless operation offense, provided that this division applies only if the person whose death is caused or whose pregnancy is unlawfully terminated is in the construction zone at the time of the offender’s commission of the reckless operation offense in the construction zone and does not apply as described in division (D) of this section.

(3)   In one of the following ways:

(a)   Negligently;

(b)   As the proximate result of committing, while operating or participating in the operation of a motor vehicle or motorcycle in a construction zone, a speeding offense, provided that this division applies only if the person whose death is caused or whose pregnancy is unlawfully terminated is in the construction zone at the time of the offender’s commission of the speeding offense in the construction zone and does not apply as described in division (D) of this section.

(4)   As the proximate result of committing a violation of any provision of any section contained in R.C. Title 45 that is a minor misdemeanor or of a municipal ordinance that, regardless of the penalty set by ordinance for the violation, is substantially equivalent to any provision of any section contained in R.C. Title 45 that is a minor misdemeanor.

(B)  (1)   Whoever violates division (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this section is guilty of aggravated vehicular homicide, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   (a)   Whoever violates division (A)(3) of this section is guilty of vehicular homicide. Except as otherwise provided in this division, vehicular homicide is a misdemeanor of the first degree. Vehicular homicide committed in violation of division (A)(3) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law if, at the time of the offense, the offender was driving under a suspension or cancellation imposed under R.C. Chapter 4510 or any other provision of the Ohio Revised Code or was operating a motor vehicle or motorcycle, did not have a valid driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating privilege, and was not eligible for renewal of the offender’s driver’s license or commercial driver’s license without examination under R.C. §4507.10 or if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section or any traffic-related homicide, manslaughter, or assault offense.

(b)   In addition to any other sanctions imposed pursuant to this division, the court shall impose upon the offender a class four suspension of the offender’s driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating privilege from the range specified in R.C. §4510.02(A)(4).

(3)   (a)   Whoever violates division (A)(4) of this section is guilty of vehicular manslaughter. Except as otherwise provided in this division, vehicular manslaughter is a misdemeanor of the second degree. Vehicular manslaughter is a misdemeanor of the first degree if, at the time of the offense, the offender was driving under a suspension or cancellation imposed under R.C. Chapter 4510 or any other provision of the Ohio Revised Code or was operating a motor vehicle or motorcycle, did not have a valid driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating privilege, and was not eligible for renewal of the offender’s driver’s license or commercial driver’s license without examination under R.C. §4507.10 or if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section or any traffic-related homicide, manslaughter, or assault offense.

(b)   In addition to any other sanctions imposed pursuant to this division, the court shall impose upon the offender a class six suspension of the offender’s driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating privilege from the range specified in R.C. §4510.02(A)(6) or, if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section, any traffic-related homicide, manslaughter, or assault offense, or a traffic-related murder, felonious assault, or attempted murder offense, a class four suspension of the offender’s driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating privilege from the range specified in R.C. §4510.02(A)(4).

(C)  The court shall impose a mandatory jail term of at least 15 days on an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a misdemeanor violation of division (A)(3)(b) of this section and may impose upon the offender a longer jail term as authorized pursuant to R.C. §2929.24.

(D)  Divisions (A)(2)(b) and (A)(3)(b) of this section do not apply in a particular construction zone unless signs of the type described in R.C. §2903.081 are erected in that construction zone in accordance with the guidelines and design specifications established by the Director of Transportation under R.C. §5501.27. The failure to erect signs of the type described in R.C. §2903.081 in a particular construction zone in accordance with those guidelines and design specifications does not limit or affect the application of division (A)(1), (A)(2)(a), (A)(3)(a), or (A)(4) of this section in that construction zone or the prosecution of any person who violates any of those divisions in that construction zone.

(E)  (1)   As used in this section:

CONSTRUCTION ZONE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5501.27.

MANDATORY JAIL TERM. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2929.01.

MANDATORY PRISON TERM. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2929.01.

MOTOR VEHICLE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4501.01.

RECKLESS OPERATION OFFENSE. A violation of R.C. §4511.20 or a municipal ordinance substantially equivalent to R.C. §4511.20.

SPEEDING OFFENSE. A violation of R.C. §4511.21 or a municipal ordinance pertaining to speed.

TRAFFIC-RELATED HOMICIDE, MANSLAUGHTER, OR ASSAULT OFFENSE. A violation of R.C. §2903.04 in circumstances in which division (D) of that section applies, a violation of R.C. §2903.06 or 2903.08, or a violation of R.C. §2903.06, 2903.07, or 2903.08 as they existed prior to March 23, 2000.

TRAFFIC-RELATED MURDER, FELONIOUS ASSAULT, OR ATTEMPTED MURDER OFFENSE. A violation of R.C. §2903.01 or R.C. §2903.02 in circumstances in which the offender used a motor vehicle as the means to commit the violation, a violation of R.C. §2903.11(A)(2) in circumstances in which the deadly weapon used in the commission of the violation is a motor vehicle, or an attempt to commit aggravated murder or murder in violation of R.C. §2923.02 in circumstances in which the offender used a motor vehicle as the means to attempt to commit the aggravated murder or murder.

(2)   For the purposes of this section, when a penalty or suspension is enhanced because of a prior or current violation of a specified law or a prior or current specified offense, the reference to the violation of the specified law or the specified offense includes any violation of any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, former law of this state, or current or former law of this or another state or the United States.

(R.C. §2903.06)

(F)   Vehicular assault.

(1)   No person, while operating or participating in the operation of a motor vehicle or motorcycle, shall cause serious physical harm to another person or another’s unborn as the proximate result of committing, while operating or participating in the operation of a motor vehicle or motorcycle in a construction zone, a speeding offense, provided that this division applies only if the person to whom the serious physical harm is caused or to whose unborn the serious physical harm is caused is in the construction zone at the time of the offender’s commission of the speeding offense in the construction zone and does not apply as described in division (F)(4) of this section.

(2)   (a)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, vehicular assault committed in violation of division (F)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. Vehicular assault committed in violation of division (F)(1) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law if, at the time of the offense, the offender was driving under a suspension imposed under R.C. Chapter 4510 or any other provision of the Ohio Revised Code or if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (F)(1) of this section, R.C. §2903.08, or any traffic-related homicide, manslaughter, or assault offense.

(b)   In addition to any other sanctions imposed, the court shall impose upon the offender a class four suspension of the offender’s driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating privilege from the range specified in R.C. §4510.02(A)(4).

(3)   The court shall impose a mandatory jail term of at least seven days on an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a misdemeanor violation of division (F)(1) of this section and may impose upon the offender a longer jail term as authorized pursuant to R.C. §2929.24.

(4)   Division (F)(1) of this section does not apply in a particular construction zone unless signs of the type described in R.C. §2903.081 are erected in that construction zone in accordance with the guidelines and design specifications established by the Director of Transportation under R.C. §5501.27.

(5)   As used in this division (F):

CONSTRUCTION ZONE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5501.27.

MANDATORY JAIL TERM. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2929.01.

SPEEDING OFFENSE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2903.06.

TRAFFIC-RELATED HOMICIDE, MANSLAUGHTER, OR ASSAULT OFFENSE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2903.06.

(6)   For the purposes of this division (F), when a penalty or suspension is enhanced because of a prior or current violation of a specified law or a prior or current specified offense, the reference to the violation of the specified law or the specified offense includes any violation of any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, former law of this state, or current or former law of another state or the United States.

(R.C. 2903.08(A)(3), (C)(3), (D)(3), (E) – (G))

Statutory reference:

Court to suspend drivers license, see R.C. §§ 4510.05 and 4510.07

Vehicular assault and aggravated vehicular assault, felony offenses, see R.C. § 2903.08

§ 135.13  UNLAWFUL COLLECTION OF BODILY SUBSTANCES.

(A)  No person shall knowingly collect any blood, urine, tissue, or other bodily substance of another person without privilege or consent to do so.

(B)  (1)   Division (A) of this section does not apply to any of the following:

(a)   The collection of any bodily substance of a person by a law enforcement officer, or by another person pursuant to the direction or advice of a law enforcement officer, for purposes of a chemical test or tests of the substance under R.C. §1547.111(A)(1) or R.C. §4511.191(A)(2) to determine the alcohol, drug, controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or combination content of the bodily substance;

(b)   The collection of any bodily substance of a person by a peace officer, or by another person pursuant to the direction or advice of a peace officer, for purposes of a test or tests of the substance as provided in R.C. §4506.17(A) to determine the person’s alcohol concentration or the presence of any controlled substance or metabolite of a controlled substance.

(2)   Division (B)(1) of this section shall not be construed as implying that the persons identified in divisions (B)(1)(a) and (b) of this section do not have privilege to collect the bodily substance of another person as described in those divisions or as limiting the definition of Aprivilege@ set forth in R.C. §2901.01.

(C)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of unlawful collection of a bodily substance. Except as otherwise provided in this division, unlawful collection of a bodily substance is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A) of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, unlawful collection of a bodily substance is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2927.15)

§ 135.14  BIGAMY.

(A)  No married person shall marry another or continue to cohabit with such other person in this municipality.

(B)  It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this section that the actor’s spouse was continuously absent for five years immediately preceding the purported subsequent marriage, and was not known by the actor to be alive within that time.

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of bigamy, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2919.01)

§ 135.15  UNLAWFUL ABORTION; FAILURE TO PERFORM VIABILITY TESTING.

(A)  As used in this section:

ABORTION. Means the purposeful termination of a human pregnancy by any person, including the pregnant woman herself, with an intention other than to produce a live birth or to remove a dead fetus or embryo.

(R.C. §2919.11)

EMANCIPATED. A minor shall be considered emancipated if the minor has married, entered the armed services of the United States, become employed and self-subsisting, or has otherwise become independent from the care and control of her parent, guardian or custodian.

UNEMANCIPATED. Means a woman who is unmarried and under 18 years of age who has not entered the armed services of the United States, has not become employed and self-subsisting, or has not otherwise become independent from the care and control of her parent, guardian, or custodian.

(B)  No person shall perform or induce an abortion without the informed consent of the pregnant woman.

(C)  No person shall knowingly perform or induce an abortion upon a pregnant minor unless one of the following is the case:

(1)   The attending physician has secured the informed written consent of the minor and one parent, guardian or custodian;

(2)   The minor is emancipated and the attending physician has received her informed written consent;

(3)   The minor has been authorized to consent to the abortion by a court order issued pursuant to R.C. §2919.121(C) and the attending physician has received her informed written consent; or

(4)   The court has given its consent in accordance with R.C. §2919.121(C) and the minor is having the abortion willingly.

(D)  No person shall knowingly perform or induce an abortion upon a woman who is pregnant, unmarried, under 18 years of age, and unemancipated unless at least one of the circumstances enumerated in R.C. §2919.12(B) applies.

(E)  (1)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (D) of this section that the pregnant woman provided the person who performed or induced the abortion with false, misleading, or incorrect information about her age, marital status, or emancipation, about the age of the brother or sister to whom she requested notice to be given as a specified relative instead of one of her parents, her guardian, or her custodian, or about the last known address of either of her parents, her guardian, her custodian, or a specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent to whom she requested notice be given and the person who performed or induced the abortion did not otherwise have reasonable cause to believe the pregnant woman was under 18 years of age, unmarried, or unemancipated, to believe that the age of the brother or sister to whom she requested notice be given as a specified relative instead of one of her parents, her guardian, or her custodian was not 21 years of age, or to believe that the last known address of either of her parents, her guardian, her custodian, or a specified brother, sister, stepparent, or grandparent to whom she requested notice be given was incorrect.

(2)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this section that compliance with the requirements of this section was not possible because an immediate threat of serious risk to the life or physical health of the pregnant woman or pregnant minor from the continuation of her pregnancy created an emergency necessitating the immediate performance or inducement of an abortion.

(F)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of unlawful abortion. A violation of division (B), (C) or (D) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law on each subsequent offense.

(G)  Whoever violates this section is liable to the pregnant woman or pregnant minor, and her parents, guardian, or custodian for civil, compensatory and exemplary damages.

(R.C. §§2919.12, 2919.121)

(H)  (1)   Division (C) of this section applies in lieu of division (D) of this section whenever its operation is not enjoined. If division (C) of this section is enjoined, division (D) of this section applies.

(2)   If a person complies with the requirements of division (D) of this section under the good faith belief that the application or enforcement of division (C) of this section is subject to a restraining order or injunction, good faith compliance shall constitute a complete defense to any civil, criminal or professional disciplinary action brought under division (C) of this section or R.C. §2919.121.

(3)   If a person complies with the requirements of division (C) of this section under the good faith belief that it is not subject to a restraining order or injunction, good faith compliance shall constitute a complete defense to any civil, criminal or professional disciplinary action for failure to comply with the requirements of division (D) of this section.

(R.C. §2919.122)

(I)   Failure to perform viability testing.

(1)   Except in a medical emergency that prevents compliance with this division, no physician shall perform or induce or attempt to perform or induce an abortion on a pregnant woman after the beginning of the twentieth week of gestation unless, prior to the performance or inducement of the abortion or the attempt to perform or induce the abortion, the physician determines, in the physician’s good faith medical judgment, that the unborn child is not viable, and the physician makes that determination after performing a medical examination of the pregnant woman and after performing or causing to be performed those tests for assessing gestational age, weight, lung maturity, or other tests that the physician, in that physician’s good faith medical judgment, believes are necessary to determine whether an unborn child is viable.

(2)   Except in a medical emergency that prevents compliance with this division, no physician shall perform or induce or attempt to perform or induce an abortion on a pregnant woman after the beginning of the twentieth week of gestation without first entering the determination made in division (I)(1) of this section and the associated findings of the medical examination and tests in the medical record of the pregnant woman.

(3)   Whoever violates this division (I) is guilty of failure to perform viability testing, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(4)   The State Medical Board shall suspend a physician’s license to practice medicine in this state for a period of not less than six months if the physician violates this section.

(R.C. §2919.18)

Statutory reference:

Judicial bypass, see R.C. § 2151.85

Judicial consent and the right of a minor to consent, see R.C. § 2919.121(C)

Notice or consent requirements for unmarried minors, see R.C. § 2919.12(B)

§ 135.16  ABORTION TRAFFICKING.

(A)  No person shall experiment upon or sell the product of human conception which is aborted. Experiment does not include autopsies pursuant to R.C. §§313.13 and 2108.50.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of abortion trafficking, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2919.14)

§ 135.17  NONSUPPORT OF DEPENDENTS.

(A)  No person shall abandon, or fail to provide adequate support to:

(1)   The person’s spouse, as required by law;

(2)   The person’s child who is under age 18, or the persons’s child with a mental or physical disability who is under age 21;

(3)   The person’s aged or infirm parent or adoptive parent, who from lack of ability and means is unable to provide adequately for the parent’s own support.

(B)  (1)   No person shall abandon, or fail to provide support as established by a court order to, another person whom, by court order or decree, the person:

(a)   Is legally obligated to support; or

(b)   Was legally obligated to support, and an amount for support:

  1. Was due and owing prior to the date the person’s duty to pay current support terminated; and
  1. Remains unpaid.

(2)   The period of limitation under R.C. §2901.13 applicable to division (B)(1)(b) of this section shall begin to run on the date the person’s duty to pay current support terminates.

(C)  No person shall aid, abet, induce, cause, encourage, or contribute to a child or a ward of the juvenile court becoming a dependent child, as defined in R.C. §2151.04, or a neglected child, as defined in R.C. §2151.03.

(D)  It is an affirmative defense to a charge of failure to provide adequate support under division (A) of this section or a charge of failure to provide support established by a court order under division (B) of this section that the accused was unable to provide adequate support or the established support, but did provide the support that was within his or her ability and means.

(E)  It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (A)(3) of this section that the parent abandoned the accused or failed to support the accused as required by law, while the accused was under age 18, or had a mental or physical disability and was under age 21.

(F)   It is not a defense to a charge under division (B) of this section that the person whom a court has ordered the accused to support is being adequately supported by someone other than the accused.

(G)  (1)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever violates division (A) or (B) of this section is guilty of nonsupport of dependents, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A)(2) or (B) of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, or if the offender has failed to provide support under division (A)(2) or (B) of this section for a total accumulated period of 26 weeks out of 104 consecutive weeks, whether or not the 26 weeks were consecutive, then a violation of division (A)(2) or (B) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony violation of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a violation of division (A)(2) or (B) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   If the offender is guilty of nonsupport of dependents by reason of failing to provide support to his or her child as required by a child support order issued on or after April 15, 1985, pursuant to R.C. §2151.23, 2151.231, 2151.232, 2151.33, 3105.21, 3109.05, 3111.13, 3113.04, 3113.31, 3115.401, or former R.C. §3115.31, the court, in addition to any other sentence imposed, shall assess all court costs arising out of the charge against the person and require the person to pay any reasonable attorney’s fees of any adverse party other than the state, as determined by the court, that arose in relation to the charge.

(3)   Whoever violates division (C) of this section is guilty of contributing to the nonsupport of dependents, a misdemeanor of the first degree. Each day of a violation of division (C) of this section is a separate offense.

(R.C. §2919.21)

§ 135.18  ENDANGERING CHILDREN.

(A)  No person, who is the parent, guardian, custodian, person having custody or control, or person in loco parentis of a child under 18 years of age or a child with a mental or physical disability under 21 years of age, shall create a substantial risk to the health or safety of the child by violating a duty of care, protection, or support. It is not a violation of a duty of care, protection, or support under this division when the parent, guardian, custodian, or person having custody or control of a child treats the physical or mental illness or disability of the child by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets of a recognized religious body.

(B)  No person shall do any of the following to a child under 18 years of age or a child with a mental or physical disability under 21 years of age:

(1)   Abuse the child.

(2)   Torture or cruelly abuse the child.

(3)   Administer corporal punishment or other physical disciplinary measure, or physically restrain the child in a cruel manner or for a prolonged period, which punishment, discipline or restraint is excessive under the circumstances and creates a substantial risk of serious physical harm to the child.

(4)   Repeatedly administer unwarranted disciplinary measures to a child when there is a substantial risk that such conduct, if continued, will seriously impair or retard the child’s mental health or development.

(5)   Entice, coerce, permit, encourage, compel, hire, employ, use, or allow the child to act, model, or in any other way participate in, or be photographed for, the production, presentation, dissemination, or advertisement of any material or performance that the offender knows or reasonably should know is obscene, is sexually oriented matter, or is nudity-oriented matter;

(6)   Allow the child to be on the same parcel of real property and within 100 feet of, or, in the case of more than one housing unit on the same parcel of real property, in the same housing unit and within 100 feet of, any act in violation of R.C. §2925.04 or 2925.041 when the person knows that the act is occurring, whether or not any person is prosecuted for or convicted of the violation of R.C. §2925.04 or 2925.041 that is the basis of the violation of this division.

(C)  (1)   No person shall operate a vehicle, as defined by R.C. §4511.01, within the municipality and in violation of R.C. §4511.19(A), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, when one or more children under 18 years of age are in the vehicle. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person may be convicted at the same trial or proceeding of a violation of this division and a violation of R.C. §4511.19(A), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, that constitutes the basis of the charge of the violation of this division. For purposes of R.C. §§4511.191 through 4511.197 and all related provisions of law, a person arrested for a violation of this division shall be considered to be under arrest for operating a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or a combination of them or for operating a vehicle with a prohibited concentration of alcohol, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine.

(2)   As used in division (C)(1) of this section:

CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

VEHICLE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4511.01.

(D)  (1)   Division (B)(5) of this section does not apply to any material or performance that is produced, presented, or disseminated for a bona fide medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies for research, librarian, member of the clergy, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the material or performance.

(2)   Mistake of age is not a defense to a charge under division (B)(5) of this section.

(3)   In a prosecution under division (B)(5) of this section, the trier of fact may infer that an actor, model, or participant in the material or performance involved is a juvenile if the material or performance, through its title, text, visual representation, or otherwise, represents or depicts the actor, model, or participant as a juvenile.

(4)   As used in this division and division (B)(5) of this section:

MATERIAL. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2907.01.

NUDITY-ORIENTED MATTER means any material or performance that shows a minor in a state of nudity and that, taken as a whole by the average person applying contemporary community standards, appeals to the prurient interest.

OBSCENE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2907.01.

PERFORMANCE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2907.01.

SEXUAL ACTIVITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2907.01.

SEXUALLY ORIENTED MATTER. Means any material or performance that shows a minor participating or engaging in sexual activity, masturbation, or bestiality.

(E)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of endangering children.

(1)   If the offender violates division (A) or (B)(1) of this section, endangering children is one of the following:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (E)(1)(b), (E)(1)(c) or (E)(1)(d), a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(b)   If the offender previously has been convicted of an offense under this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, or of any offense involving neglect, abandonment, or contributing to the delinquency of or physical abuse of a child, except as otherwise provided in division (E)(1)(c) or (E)(1)(d) of this section, endangering children is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(c)   If the violation is a violation of division (A) of this section and results in serious physical harm to the child involved, endangering children is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(d)   If the violation is a violation of division (B)(1) of this section and results in serious physical harm to the child involved, endangering children is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   If the offender violates division (B)(2), (B)(3), (B)(4), (B)(5) or (B)(6) of this section, endangering children is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   If the offender violates division (C) of this section, the offender shall be punished as follows:

(a)   Except as provided in (E)(3)(b) or (E)(3)(c), endangering children in violation of division (C) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(b)   If the violation results in serious physical harm to the child or if the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, or of any offense involving neglect, abandonment, or contributing to the delinquency of or physical abuse of a child, except as otherwise provided in division (E)(3)(c) of this section, endangering children in violation of division (C) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(c)   If the violation results in serious physical harm to the child and if the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of this section, R.C. §2903.06, 2903.08, 2919.22(C) or former R.C. §2903.07 as it existed prior to March 23, 2000, or R.C. §2903.04, in a case in which the offender was subject to the sanctions described in division (D) of that section, endangering children in violation of division (C) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(d)   In addition to any term of imprisonment, fine, or other sentence, penalty or sanction it imposes upon the offender pursuant to divisions (E)(3)(a), (E)(3)(b) or (E)(3)(c) of this section or pursuant to any other provision of law, and in addition to any suspension of the offender’s driver’s license or commercial driver’s license or permit or nonresident operating privilege under R.C. Chapter 4506, 4509, 4510, or 4511, or any other provision of law, the court also may impose upon the offender a class seven suspension of the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit or nonresident operating privilege from the range specified in R.C. §4510.02(A)(7).

(e)   In addition to any term of imprisonment, fine, or other sentence, penalty or sanction imposed upon the offender pursuant to division (E)(3)(a), (E)(3)(b), (E)(3)(c) or (E)(3)(d) of this section or pursuant to any other provision of law for the violation of division (C) of this section, if as a part of the same trial or proceeding the offender also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a separate charge charging the violation of R.C. §4511.19(A), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, that was the basis of the charge of the violation of division (C) of this section, the offender also shall be sentenced in accordance with R.C. §4511.19, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, for that violation of R.C. §4511.19(A), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

(F)   (1)   If a person violates division (C) of this section and if, at the time of the violation, there were two or more children under 18 years of age in the motor vehicle involved in the violation, the offender may be convicted of a violation of division (C) of this section for each of the children, but the court may sentence the offender for only one of the violations.

(2)   (a)   If a person is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (C) of this section but the person is not also convicted of and does not also plead guilty to a separate charge of violating R.C. §4511.19(A), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, that was the basis of the charge of the violation of division (C) of this section, both the following apply:

  1. For purposes of the provisions of R.C. §4511.19, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, that set forth the penalties and sanctions for a violation of R.C. §4511.19(A), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, the conviction of or plea of guilty to the violation of division (C) of this section shall not constitute a violation of R.C. §4511.19(A), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.
  1. For purposes of the provisions of law that refers to a conviction of or plea of guilty to a violation of R.C. §4511.19(A), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, and that is not described in division (F)(2)(a)1. of this section, the conviction of or plea of guilty to the violation of division (C) of this section shall constitute a conviction or plea of guilty to a violation of R.C. §4511.19(A), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

(b)   If a person is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (C) of this section and the person also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a separate charge of violating R.C. §4511.19(A), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, that was the basis of the charge of the violation of division (C) of this section, the conviction of or plea of guilty to the violation of division (C) of this section shall not constitute, for the purposes of any provision of law that refers to a conviction of or a plea of guilty to a violation of R.C. §4511.19(A) or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, a conviction of or a plea of guilty to a violation of R.C. §4511.19(A) or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

(R.C. §2919.22(A) – (E), (H))

Statutory reference:

Community service, requirements, see R.C. § 2919.22(F)

License suspension, requirements, see R.C. § 2919.22(G)

Permitting child abuse, felony offense, see R.C. § 2903.15

§ 135.19  INTERFERENCE WITH CUSTODY; INTERFERENCE WITH SUPPORT ORDERS.

(A)  Interference with custody.

(1)   No person, knowing that he or she is without privilege to do so or being reckless in that regard, shall entice, take, keep, or harbor a person identified in division (A)(1)(a), (A)(1)(b) or (A)(1)(c) of this section from the parent, guardian, or custodian of the person identified in division (A)(1)(a), (A)(1)(b) or (A)(1)(c) of this section:

(a)   A child under the age of 18, or a child with a mental or physical disability under the age of 21;

(b)   A person committed by law to an institution for delinquent, unruly, neglected, abused, or dependent children;

(c)   A person committed by law to an institution for persons with mental illnesses or an institution for persons with intellectual disabilities.

(2)   No person shall aid, abet, induce, cause, or encourage a child or a ward of the juvenile court who has been committed to the custody of any person, department, or public or private institution to leave the custody of that person, department, or institution without legal consent.

(3)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge of enticing or taking under division (A)(1)(a) of this section that the actor reasonably believed that his or her conduct was necessary to preserve the child’s health or safety. It is an affirmative defense to a charge of keeping or harboring under division (A)(1) of this section that the actor in good faith gave notice to law enforcement or judicial authorities within a reasonable time after the child or committed person came under his or her shelter, protection, or influence.

(4)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of interference with custody.

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in this subdivision, a violation of division (A)(1)(a) above is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the child who is the subject of a violation of division (A)(1)(a) is removed from the state or if the offender previously has been convicted of an offense under this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a violation of division (A)(1)(a) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. If the child who is the subject of a violation of division (A)(1)(a) suffers physical harm as a result of the violation, a violation of division (A)(1)(a) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(b)   A violation of division (A)(1)(b) or (A)(1)(c) of this section is a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(c)   A violation of division (A)(2) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. Each day of a violation of division (A)(2) is a separate offense.

(R.C. §2919.23)

(B)  Interference with support orders.

(1)   No person, by using physical harassment or threats of violence against another person, shall interfere with the other person’s initiation or continuance of, or attempt to prevent the other person from initiating or continuing, an action to issue or modify a support order under R.C. Chapter 3115, or under R.C. §2151.23, 2151.231, 2151.232, 2151.33, 2151.36, 2151.361, 2151.49, 3105.18, 3105.21, 3109.05, 3109.19, 3111.13, 3113.04, 3113.07, or 3113.31.

(2)   Whoever violates this division (B) is guilty of interfering with an action to issue or modify a support order, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this division (B) or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, or R.C. §3111.19, interfering with an action to issue or modify a support order is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2919.231)

§ 135.20  DOMESTIC VIOLENCE.

(A)  No person shall knowingly cause or attempt to cause physical harm to a family or household member.

(B)  No person shall recklessly cause serious physical harm to a family or household member.

(C)  No person, by threat of force, shall knowingly cause a family or household member to believe that the offender will cause imminent physical harm to the family or household member.

(D)  (1)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of domestic violence, and the court shall sentence the offender as provided in divisions (D)(2) to (D)(5) of this section.

(2)   Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(3), (D)(4) or (D)(5) of this section, a violation of division (C) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree and a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(3)   Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(4) of this section, if the offender previously has pleaded guilty to or been convicted of domestic violence, a violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States that is substantially equivalent to domestic violence, a violation of R.C. §2903.14, 2909.06, 2909.07, 2911.12, 2911.211, or 2919.22 if the victim of the violation was a family or household member at the time of the violation, a violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other state or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of those sections if the victim of the violation was a family or household member at the time of the commission of the violation, or any offense of violence if the victim of the offense was a family or household member at the time of the commission of the offense, a violation of division (A) or (B) is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law, and a violation of division (C) is a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(4)   If the offender previously has pleaded guilty to or been convicted of two or more offenses of domestic violence or two or more violations or offenses of the type described in division (D)(3) of this section involving a person who was a family or household member at the time of the violations or offenses, a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law, and a violation of division (C) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(5)   Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(3) or (D)(4) of this section, if the offender knew that the victim of the violation was pregnant at the time of the violation, a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law, and a violation of division (C) of this section is a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(E)  Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, no court or unit of state or local government shall charge any fee, cost, deposit, or money in connection with the filing of charges against a person alleging that the person violated this section or a municipal ordinance substantially equivalent to this section or in connection with the prosecution of any charges so filed.

(F)   As used in this section:

FAMILY OR HOUSEHOLD MEMBER. Means any of the following:

(a)   Any of the following who is residing or has resided with the offender:

  1. A spouse, a person living as a spouse as defined below, or a former spouse of the offender;
  1. A parent, a foster parent, or a child of the offender, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to the offender;
  1. A parent or a child of a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the offender, or another person related by consanguinity or affinity to a spouse, person living as a spouse, or former spouse of the offender.

(b)   The natural parent of any child of whom the offender is the other natural parent or is the putative other natural parent.

PERSON LIVING AS A SPOUSE. Means a person who is living or has lived with the offender in a common law marital relationship, who otherwise is cohabiting with the offender, or who otherwise has cohabited with the offender within five years prior to the date of the alleged commission of the act in question.

(R.C. §2919.25)

Statutory reference:

Temporary protection orders, see R.C. § 2919.26

Violation of protection order or consent agreement, factors to consider, bail, see R.C. § 2919.251

§ 135.21  FAILURE TO PROVIDE FOR A PERSON WITH A FUNCTIONAL IMPAIRMENT.

(A)  No caretaker shall knowingly fail to provide a person with a functional impairment under the caretaker’s care with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is necessary to maintain the health or safety of the person with a functional impairment when this failure results in physical harm or serious physical harm to the person with a functional impairment.

(B)  No caretaker shall recklessly fail to provide a person with a functional impairment under the caretaker’s care with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is necessary to maintain the health or safety of the person with a functional impairment when this failure results in serious physical harm to the person with a functional impairment.

(C)  (1)   Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of knowingly failing to provide for a person with a functional impairment, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the person with a functional impairment under the offender’s care suffers serious physical harm as a result of the violation of this section, a violation of division (A) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of recklessly failing to provide for a person with a functional impairment, a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the person with a functional impairment under the offender’s care suffers serious physical harm as a result of the violation of this section, a violation of division (B) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2903.16)

(D)  As used in this section:

CARETAKER. A person who assumes the duty to provide for the care and protection of a person with a functional impairment on a voluntary basis, by contract, through receipt of payment for care and protection, as a result of a family relationship, or by order of a court of competent jurisdiction. The term does not include a person who owns, operates, or administers, or who is an agent or employee of, a care facility, as defined in R.C. §2903.33.

PERSON WITH A FUNCTIONAL IMPAIRMENT. Any person who has a physical or mental impairment that prevents the person from providing for the person’s own care or protection or whose infirmities caused by aging prevent the person from providing for the person’s own care or protection.

(R.C. §2903.10)

§ 135.22  PATIENT ABUSE OR NEGLECT; PATIENT ENDANGERMENT; EXCEPTIONS; FALSE STATEMENTS; RETALIATION.

(A)  Definitions. As used in this section:

ABUSE. Means knowingly causing physical harm or recklessly causing serious physical harm to a person by physical contact with the person or by the inappropriate use of a physical or chemical restraint, medication or isolation on the person.

CARE FACILITY. Means any of the following:

(a)   Any Ahome@ as defined in R.C. §3721.10.

(b)   Any Aresidential facility@ as defined in R.C. §5119.34 or 5123.19.

(c)   Any institution or facility operated or provided by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services or by the Department of Developmental Disabilities pursuant to R.C. §§5119.14 and 5123.03.

(d)   Any unit of any hospital, as defined in R.C. §3701.01, that provided the same services as a nursing home, as defined in R.C. §3721.01.

(e)   Any institution, residence or facility that provides, for a period of more than 24 hours, whether for consideration or not, accommodations to one individual or two unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of others.

GROSS NEGLECT. Means knowingly failing to provide a person with any treatment, care, goods or service that is necessary to maintain the health or safety of the person when the failure results in serious physical harm to the person.

INAPPROPRIATE USE OF A PHYSICAL OR CHEMICAL RESTRAINT, MEDICATION OR ISOLATION. Means the use of physical or chemical restraint, medication or isolation as punishment, for staff convenience, excessively, as a substitute for treatment, or in quantities that preclude habilitation and treatment.

NEGLECT. Means recklessly failing to provide a person with any treatment, care, goods or service that is necessary to maintain the health or safety of the person when the failure results in serious physical harm to the person.

(R.C. §2903.33)

(B)  Patient abuse or neglect; spiritual treatment; defense.

(1)   No person who owns, operates, or administers, or who is an agent or employee of a care facility shall do any of the following:

(a)   Commit abuse against a resident or patient of the facility.

(b)   Commit gross neglect against a resident or patient of the facility.

(c)   Commit neglect against a resident or patient of the facility.

(2)   (a)   A person who relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets of a recognized religious denomination, shall not be considered neglectful under division (B)(1)(c) of this section for that reason alone.

(b)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge of gross neglect or neglect under this section that the actor’s conduct was committed in good faith solely because the actor was ordered to commit the conduct by a person with supervisory authority over the actor.

(3)   (a)   Whoever violates division (B)(1)(a) is guilty of patient abuse, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(b)   Whoever violates division (B)(1)(b) is guilty of gross patient neglect, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, any violation of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, gross patient neglect is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(c)   Whoever violates division (B)(1)(c) is guilty of patient neglect, a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, any violation of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, gross patient neglect is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2903.34)

(C)  Patient endangerment; spiritual treatment; defense.

(1)   As used in this section:

DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES CARETAKER. Means any developmental disabilities employee or any person who assumes the duty to provide for the care and protection of a person with a developmental disability on a voluntary basis, by contract, through receipt of payment for care and protection, as a result of a family relationship, or by order of a court of competent jurisdiction. The phrase includes a person who is an employee of a care facility and a person who is an employee of an entity under contract with a provider. The phrase does not include a person who owns, operates, or administers a care facility or who is an agent of a care facility unless that person also personally provides care to a person with a developmental disability.

DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES EMPLOYEE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5123.50.

DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5123.01.

(2)   No developmental disabilities caretaker shall create a substantial risk to the health or safety of a person with a developmental disability. A developmental disabilities caretaker does not create a substantial risk to the health or safety of a person with a developmental disability under this division when the developmental disabilities caretaker treats a physical or mental illness or disability of the person with a developmental disability by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets of a recognized religious body.

(3)   No person who owns, operates, or administers a care facility or who is an agent of a care facility shall condone, or knowingly permit, any conduct by a developmental disabilities caretaker who is employed by or under the control of the owner, operator, administrator, or agent that is in violation of division (C)(2) of this section and that involves a person with a developmental disability who is under the care of the owner, operator, administrator, or agent. A person who relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone, in accordance with the tenets of a recognized religious denomination, shall not be considered endangered under this division for that reason alone.

(4)   (a)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge of a violation of division (C)(2) or (C)(3) of this section that the actor’s conduct was committed in good faith solely because the actor was ordered to commit the conduct by a person to whom one of the following applies:

  1. The person has supervisory authority over the actor.
  1. The person has authority over the actor’s conduct pursuant to a contract for the provision of services.

(b)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge of a violation of division (C)(3) of this section that the person who owns, operates, or administers a care facility or who is an agent of a care facility and who is charged with the violation is following the individual service plan for the involved person with a developmental disability or that the admission, discharge, and transfer rule set forth in the Ohio Administrative Code is being followed.

(c)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge of a violation of division (C)(3) of this section that the actor did not have readily available a means to prevent either the harm to the person with a developmental disability or the death of such a person and the actor took reasonable steps to summon aid.

(5)   (a)   Except as provided in division (C)(5)(b) or (C)(5)(c) of this section, whoever violates division (C)(2) or (C)(3) of this section is guilty of patient endangerment, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(b)   If the offender previously has been convicted of, or pleaded guilty to, a violation of this section, patient endangerment is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(c)   If the violation results in serious physical harm to the person with a developmental disability, patient endangerment is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2903.341)

(D)  False statements.

(1)   No person shall knowingly make a false statement, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false statement previously made, alleging a violation of division (B) of this section when the statement is made with purpose to incriminate another.

(2)   Whoever violates this division (D) is guilty of filing a false patient abuse or neglect complaint, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2903.35)

(E)  Retaliation against person reporting patient abuse or neglect. No care facility shall discharge or in any manner discriminate or retaliate against any person solely because such person, in good faith, filed a complaint, affidavit, or other document alleging a violation of division (B) of this section or a violation of R.C. §2903.34.

(R.C. §2903.36)

Statutory reference:

License revocation for felony violations, see R.C. § 2903.37

§ 135.23  INTERFERENCE WITH RIGHT OF PERSON TO ENGAGE IN HOUSING TRANSACTIONS BECAUSE OF RACE, RELIGION, OR THE LIKE.

(A)  No person, whether or not acting under color of law, shall by force or threat of force willfully injure, intimidate, or interfere with, or attempt to injure, intimidate, or interfere with any of the following:

(1)   Any person because of race, color, religion, sex, familial status, as defined in R.C. §4112.01, national origin, military status as defined in that section, disability as defined in that section, or ancestry and because that person is or has been selling, purchasing, renting, financing, occupying, contracting, or negotiating for the sale, purchase, rental, financing, or occupation of any housing accommodations, or applying for or participating in any service, organization, or facility relating to the business of selling or renting housing accommodations.

(2)   Any person because that person is or has been doing, or in order to intimidate that person or any other person or any class of persons from doing either of the following:

(a)   Participating, without discrimination on account of race, color, religion, sex, familial status, as defined in R.C. §4112.01, national origin, military status as defined in that section, disability as defined in that section, or ancestry, in any of the activities, services, organizations, or facilities described in division (A)(1) of this section;

(b)   Affording another person or class of persons opportunity or protection so to participate.

(3)   Any person because that person is or has been, or in order to discourage that person or any other person from, lawfully aiding or encouraging other persons to participate, without discrimination on account of race, color, religion, sex, familial status as defined in R.C. §4112.01, national origin, military status as defined in that section, disability as defined in that section, or ancestry, in any of the activities, services, organizations, or facilities described in division (A)(1) of this section, or participating lawfully in speech or peaceful assembly opposing any denial of the opportunity to so participate.

(B)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2927.03)

§ 135.24  ETHNIC INTIMIDATION.

(A)  No person shall violate R.C. §2903.21, 2903.22, 2909.06, or 2909.07, or R.C. §2917.21(A)(3), (A)(4), or (A)(5), by reason of the race, color, religion, or national origin of another person or group of persons.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of ethnic intimidation. Ethnic intimidation is an offense of the next higher degree than the offense the commission of which is a necessary element of ethnic intimidation. In the case of an offense that is a misdemeanor of the first degree, ethnic intimidation is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2927.12)

§ 135.25  VIOLATING A PROTECTION ORDER, CONSENT AGREEMENT, ANTI‑STALKING PROTECTION ORDER OR ORDER ISSUED BY A COURT OF ANOTHER STATE.

(A)  No person shall recklessly violate the terms of any of the following:

(1)   A protection order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to R.C. §2919.26 or R.C. §3113.31;

(2)   A protection order issued pursuant to R.C. §2151.34, 2903.213 or 2903.214;

(3)   A protection order issued by a court of another state.

(B)  (1)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of violating a protection order.

(2)   Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(3) or (B)(4) of this section, violating a protection order is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(3)   Violating a protection order is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law if the offender previously has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been adjudicated a delinquent child for any of the following:

(a)   A violation of a protection order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to R.C. §2151.34, 2903.213, 2903.214, 2919.26, or 3113.31, or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance;

(b)   Two or more violations of R.C. §2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, or 2911.211, or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, or any combination of those offenses, that involved the same person who is the subject of the protection order or consent agreement;

(c)   One or more violations of this section, or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance.

(4)   If the offender violates a protection order or consent agreement while committing a felony offense, violating a protection order is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(5)   If the protection order violated by the offender was an order issued pursuant to R.C. §2151.34 or 2903.214 that required electronic monitoring of the offender pursuant to that section, the court may require in addition to any other sentence imposed upon the offender that the offender be electronically monitored for a period not exceeding five years by a law enforcement agency designated by the court. If the court requires under this division that the offender be electronically monitored, unless the court determines that the offender is indigent, the court shall order that the offender pay the costs of the installation of the electronic monitoring device and the cost of monitoring the electronic monitoring device.

(C)  It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (A)(3) of this section that the protection order issued by a court of another state does not comply with the requirements specified in 18 U.S.C. §2265(b) for a protection order that must be accorded full faith and credit by a court of this state or that it is not entitled to full faith and credit under 18 U.S.C. §2265(c).

(D)  In a prosecution for a violation of this section, it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove that the protection order or consent agreement was served on the defendant if the prosecution proves that the defendant was shown the protection order or consent agreement or a copy of either or a judge, magistrate, or law enforcement officer informed the defendant that a protection order or consent agreement had been issued, and proves that the defendant recklessly violated the terms of the order or agreement.

(E)  As used in this section, PROTECTION ORDER ISSUED BY A COURT OF ANOTHER STATE means an injunction or another order issued by a criminal court of another state for the purpose of preventing violent or threatening acts or harassment against, contact or communication with, or physical proximity to another person including a temporary order, and means an injunction or order of that nature issued by a civil court of another state, including a temporary order and a final order issued in an independent action or as a pendente lite order in a proceeding for other relief, if the court issued it in response to a complaint, petition or motion filed by or on behalf of a person seeking protection. The term does not include an order for support or for custody of a child issued pursuant to the divorce and child custody laws of another state, except to the extent that the order for support or for custody of a child is entitled to full faith and credit under the laws of the United States.

(R.C. §2919.27)

§ 135.26  ILLEGAL DISTRIBUTION OF CIGARETTES, OTHER TOBACCO PRODUCTS, OR ALTERNATIVE NICOTINE PRODUCTS; TRANSACTION SCANS.

(A)  Illegal distribution of cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products.

(1)   As used in this section:

AGE VERIFICATION. A service provided by an independent third party (other than a manufacturer, producer, distributor, wholesaler, or retailer of cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes) that compares information available from a commercially available database, or aggregate of databases, that regularly are used by government and businesses for the purpose of age and identity verification to personal information provided during an internet sale or other remote method of sale to establish that the purchaser is 21 years of age or older.

ALTERNATIVE NICOTINE PRODUCT.

  1. Subject to division 2. of this definition, an electronic smoking device, vapor product, or any other product or device that consists of or contains nicotine that can be ingested into the body by any means, including, but not limited to, chewing, smoking, absorbing, dissolving, or inhaling.
  1. The phrase does not include any of the following:
  1. Any cigarette or other tobacco product;
  1. Any product that is a Adrug@ as that term is defined in 21 U.S.C. §321(g)(1);
  1. Any product that is a Adevice@ as that term is defined in 21 U.S.C. §321(h);
  1. Any product that is a Acombination product@ as described in 21 U.S.C. §353(g).

CIGARETTE. Includes clove cigarettes and hand-rolled cigarettes.

DISTRIBUTE. Means to furnish, give, or provide cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes to the ultimate consumer of the cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes.

ELECTRONIC SMOKING DEVICE. Means any device that can be used to deliver aerosolized or vaporized nicotine or any other substance to the person inhaling from the device including an electronic cigarette, electronic cigar, electronic hookah, vaping pen, or electronic pipe. The phrase includes any component, part, or accessory of such a device, whether or not sold separately, and includes any substance intended to be aerosolized or vaporized during the use of the device. The phrase does not include any product that is a drug, device, or combination product, as those terms are defined or described in 21 U.S.C. §§321 and 353(g).

PROOF OF AGE. Means a driver’s license, a commercial driver’s license, a military identification card, a passport, or an identification card issued under R.C. §§4507.50 to 4507.52 that shows that a person is 18 years of age or older.

TOBACCO PRODUCT. Means any product that is made or derived from tobacco or that contains any form of nicotine, if it is intended for human consumption or is likely to be consumed, whether smoked, heated, chewed, absorbed, dissolved, inhaled, or ingested by any other means, including, but not limited to, a cigarette, an electronic smoking device, a cigar, pipe tobacco, chewing tobacco, snuff, or snus. The phrase also means any component or accessory used in the consumption of a tobacco product, such as filters, rolling papers, pipes, blunt or hemp wraps, and liquids used in electronic smoking devices, whether or not they contain nicotine. The phrase does not include any product that is a drug, device, or combination product, as those terms are defined or described in 21 U.S.C. §§321 and 353(g).

VAPOR PRODUCT. Means a product, other than a cigarette or other tobacco product as defined in R.C. Chapter 5743, that contains or is made or derived from nicotine and that is intended and marketed for human consumption, including by smoking, inhaling, snorting, or sniffing. The phrase includes any component, part, or additive that is intended for use in an electronic smoking device, a mechanical heating element, battery, or electronic circuit and is used to deliver the product. The phrase does not include any product that is a drug, device, or combination product, as those terms are defined or described in 21 U.S.C. §§321 and 353(g). The phrase includes any product containing nicotine, regardless of concentration.

VENDING MACHINE. Has the same meaning as Acoin machine@ in R.C. §2913.01.

(2)   No manufacturer, producer, distributor, wholesaler, or retailer of cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes, no agent, employee, or representative of a manufacturer, producer, distributor, wholesaler, or retailer of cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes, and no other person shall do any of the following:

(a)   Give, sell, or otherwise distribute cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes to any person under 21 years of age;

(b)   Give away, sell, or distribute cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes in any place that does not have posted in a conspicuous place a legibly printed sign in letters at least one-half inch high stating that giving, selling, or otherwise distributing cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes to a person under 21 years of age is prohibited by law;

(c)   Knowingly furnish any false information regarding the name, age, or other identification of any person under 21 years of age with purpose to obtain cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes for that person;

(d)   Manufacture, sell, or distribute in this state any pack or other container of cigarettes containing fewer than 20 cigarettes or any package of roll-your-own tobacco containing less than six‑tenths of one ounce of tobacco;

(e)   Sell cigarettes or alternative nicotine products in a smaller quantity than that placed in the pack or other container by the manufacturer;

(f)   Give, sell, or otherwise distribute alternative nicotine products, papers used to roll cigarettes, or tobacco products other than cigarettes over the internet or through another remote method without age verification.

(3)   No person shall sell or offer to sell cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products by or from a vending machine, except in the following locations:

(a)   An area within a factory, business, office, or other place not open to the general public;

(b)   An area to which persons under 21 years of age are not generally permitted access;

(c)   Any other place not identified in division (A)(3)(a) or (A)(3)(b) of this section, upon all of the following conditions:

  1. The vending machine is located within the immediate vicinity, plain view, and control of the person who owns or operates the place, or an employee of that person, so that all cigarettes, other tobacco product, and alternative nicotine product purchases from the vending machine will be readily observed by the person who owns or operates the place or an employee of that person. For the purpose of this section, a vending machine located in any unmonitored area, including an unmonitored coatroom, restroom, hallway, or outer waiting area, shall not be considered located within the immediate vicinity, plain view, and control of the person who owns or operates the place, or an employee of that person.
  1. The vending machine is inaccessible to the public when the place is closed.
  1. A clearly visible notice is posted in the area where the vending machine is located that states the following in letters that are legibly printed and at least one‑half inch high: AIt is illegal for any person under the age of 21 to purchase tobacco or alternative nicotine products.@

(4)   The following are affirmative defenses to a charge under division (A)(2)(a) of this section:

(a)   The person under 21 years of age was accompanied by a parent, spouse who is 21 years of age or older, or legal guardian of the person under 21 years of age.

(b)   The person who gave, sold, or distributed cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes to a person under 21 years of age under division (A)(2)(a) of this section is a parent, spouse who is 21 years of age or older, or legal guardian of the person under 21 years of age.

(5)   It is not a violation of division (A)(2)(a) or (A)(2)(b) of this section for a person to give or otherwise distribute to a person under 21 years of age cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes while the person under 21 years of age is participating in a research protocol if all of the following apply:

(a)   The parent, guardian, or legal custodian of the person under 21 years of age has consented in writing to the person under 21 years of age participating in the research protocol.

(b)   An institutional human subjects protection review board, or an equivalent entity, has approved the research protocol.

(c)   The person under 21 years of age is participating in the research protocol at the facility or location specified in the research protocol.

(6)   (a)   Whoever violates division (A)(2)(a), (A)(2)(b), (A)(2)(d), (A)(2)(e), or (A)(2)(f) or (A)(3) of this section is guilty of illegal distribution of cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products. Except as otherwise provided in this division, illegal distribution of cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (A)(2)(a), (A)(2)(b), (A)(2)(d), (A)(2)(e), or (A)(2)(f) or (A)(3) of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, illegal distribution of cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products is a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(b)   Whoever violates division (A)(2)(c) of this section is guilty of permitting a person under 21 years of age to use cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products. Except as otherwise provided in this division, permitting a person under 21 years of age to use cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (A)(2)(c) of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, permitting a person under 21 years of age to use cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products is a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(7)   Any cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes that are given, sold, or otherwise distributed to a person under 21 years of age in violation of this section and that are used, possessed, purchased, or received by a person under 21 years of age in violation of R.C. §2151.87 are subject to seizure and forfeiture as contraband under R.C. Chapter 2981.

(R.C. §2927.02)

(B)  Transaction scan.

(1)   As used in this division and division (C) of this section:

CARD HOLDER. Means any person who presents a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or an identification card to a seller, or an agent or employee of a seller, to purchase or receive cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products from a seller, agent, or employee.

IDENTIFICATION CARD. Means an identification card issued under R.C. §§4507.50 through 4507.52.

SELLER. Means a seller of cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products and includes any person whose gift of or other distribution of cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products is subject to the prohibitions of division (A) of this section.

TRANSACTION SCAN. Means the process by which a seller or an agent or employee of a seller checks, by means of a transaction scan device, the validity of a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or an identification card that is presented as a condition for purchasing or receiving cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products.

TRANSACTION SCAN DEVICE. Means any commercial device or combination of devices used at a point of sale that is capable of deciphering in an electronically readable format the information encoded on the magnetic strip or bar code of a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or an identification card.

(2)   (a)   A seller or an agent or employee of a seller may perform a transaction scan by means of a transaction scan device to check the validity of a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card presented by a card holder as a condition for selling, giving away, or otherwise distributing to the card holder cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products.

(b)   If the information deciphered by the transaction scan performed under division (B)(2)(a) of this section fails to match the information printed on the driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card presented by the card holder, or if the transaction scan indicates that the information so printed is false or fraudulent, neither the seller nor any agent or employee of the seller shall sell, give away, or otherwise distribute any cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products to the card holder.

(c)   Division (B)(2)(a) of this section does not preclude a seller or an agent or employee of a seller from using a transaction scan device to check the validity of a document other than a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card, if the document includes a bar code or magnetic strip that may be scanned by the device, as a condition for selling, giving away, or otherwise distributing cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products to the person presenting the document.

(3)   Rules adopted by the Registrar of Motor Vehicles under R.C. §4301.61(C) apply to the use of transaction scan devices for purposes of this division (B) and division (C) of this section.

(4)   (a)   No seller or agent or employee of a seller shall electronically or mechanically record or maintain any information derived from a transaction scan, except for the following:

  1. The name and date of birth of the person listed on the driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card presented by the card holder;
  1. The expiration date and identification number of the driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card presented by the card holder.

(b)   No seller or agent or employee of a seller shall use the information that is derived from a transaction scan or that is permitted to be recorded and maintained under division (B)(4)(a) of this section, except for purposes of division (C) of this section.

(c)   No seller or agent or employee of a seller shall use a transaction scan device for a purpose other than the purpose specified in division (C)(2)(a) of this section.

(d)   No seller or agent or employee of a seller shall sell or otherwise disseminate the information derived from a transaction scan to any third party, including but not limited to selling or otherwise disseminating that information for any marketing, advertising, or promotional activities, but a seller or agent or employee of a seller may release that information pursuant to a court order or as specifically authorized by division (C) of this section or another section of this code or the Ohio Revised Code.

(5)   Nothing in this division (B) or division (C) of this section relieves a seller or an agent or employee of a seller of any responsibility to comply with any other applicable local, state or federal laws or rules governing the sale, giving away, or other distribution of cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products.

(6)   Whoever violates division (B)(2)(b) or (B)(4) of this section is guilty of engaging in an illegal tobacco product or alternative nicotine product transaction scan, and the court may impose upon the offender a civil penalty of up to $1,000 for each violation. The Clerk of the Court shall pay each collected civil penalty to the County Treasurer for deposit into the County Treasury.

(R.C. §2927.021)

(C)  Affirmative defenses.

(1)   A seller or an agent or employee of a seller may not be found guilty of a charge of a violation of division (A) of this section in which the age of the purchaser or other recipient of cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products is an element of the alleged violation, if the seller, agent, or employee raises and proves as an affirmative defense that all of the following occurred:

(a)   A card holder attempting to purchase or receive cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products presented a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or an identification card.

(b)   A transaction scan of the driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card that the card holder presented indicated that the license or card was valid.

(c)   The cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products were sold, given away, or otherwise distributed to the card holder in reasonable reliance upon the identification presented and the completed transaction scan.

(2)   In determining whether a seller or an agent or employee of a seller has proven the affirmative defense provided by division (C)(1) of this section, the trier of fact in the action for the alleged violation of division (A) of this section shall consider any written policy that the seller has adopted and implemented and that is intended to prevent violations of division (A) of this section. For purposes of division (C)(1)(c) of this section, the trier of fact shall consider that reasonable reliance upon the identification presented and the completed transaction scan may require a seller or an agent or employee of a seller to exercise reasonable diligence to determine, and that the use of a transaction scan device does not excuse a seller or an agent or employee of a seller from exercising reasonable diligence to determine, the following:

(a)   Whether a person to whom the seller or agent or employee of a seller sells, gives away, or otherwise distributes cigarettes, other tobacco products, or alternative nicotine products is 21 years of age or older;

(b)   Whether the description and picture appearing on the driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card presented by a card holder is that of the card holder.

(3)   In any criminal action in which the affirmative defense provided by division (C)(1) of this section is raised, the Registrar of Motor Vehicles or a deputy registrar who issued an identification card under R.C. §§4507.50 through 4507.52 shall be permitted to submit certified copies of the records of that issuance in lieu of the testimony of the personnel of or contractors with the Bureau of Motor Vehicles in the action.

(R.C. §2927.022)

(D)  Shipment of tobacco products.

(1)   As used in this division (D):

AUTHORIZED RECIPIENT OF TOBACCO PRODUCTS means a person who is:

  1. Licensed as a cigarette wholesale dealer under R.C. §5743.15;
  1. Licensed as a retail dealer as long as the person purchases cigarettes with the appropriate tax stamp affixed;
  1. An export warehouse proprietor as defined in Section 5702 of the Internal Revenue Code;
  1. An operator of a customs bonded warehouse under 19 U.S.C. §1311 or 19 U.S.C. §1555;
  1. An officer, employee, or agent of the federal government or of this state acting in the person’s official capacity;
  1. A department, agency, instrumentality, or political subdivision of the federal government or of this state;
  1. A person having a consent for consumer shipment issued by the Tax Commissioner under R.C. §5743.71.

MOTOR CARRIER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4923.01.

(2)   The purpose of this division (D) is to prevent the sale of cigarettes to minors and to ensure compliance with the Master Settlement Agreement, as defined in R.C. §1346.01.

(3)   (a)   No person shall cause to be shipped any cigarettes to any person in this municipality other than an authorized recipient of tobacco products.

(b)   No motor carrier or other person shall knowingly transport cigarettes to any person in this municipality that the carrier or other person reasonably believes is not an authorized recipient of tobacco products. If cigarettes are transported to a home or residence, it shall be presumed that the motor carrier or other person knew that the person to whom the cigarettes were delivered was not an authorized recipient of tobacco products.

(4)   No person engaged in the business of selling cigarettes who ships or causes to be shipped cigarettes to any person in this municipality in any container or wrapping other than the original container or wrapping of the cigarettes shall fail to plainly and visibly mark the exterior of the container or wrapping in which the cigarettes are shipped with the words Acigarettes@.

(5)   A court shall impose a fine of up to $1,000 for each violation of division (D)(3)(a), (D)(3)(b) or (D)(4) of this section.

(R.C. §2927.023)

(E)  Furnishing false information to obtain tobacco products.

(1)   No person who is 18 years of age or older but younger than 21 years of age shall knowingly furnish false information concerning that person’s name, age, or other identification for the purpose of obtaining tobacco products.

(2)   Whoever violates division (E)(1) of this section is guilty of furnishing false information to obtain tobacco products. Except as otherwise provided in this division, furnishing false information to obtain tobacco products is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (E)(1) of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, furnishing false information to obtain tobacco products is a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §2927.024)

§ 135.27  NONSMOKING AREAS IN PLACES OF PUBLIC ASSEMBLY.

(A)  As used in this section, PLACE OF PUBLIC ASSEMBLY means:

(1)   Enclosed theaters, except the lobby; opera houses; auditoriums; classrooms; elevators; rooms in which persons are confined as a matter of health care, including but not limited to a hospital room and a room in a residential care facility serving as the residence of a person living in such residential care facility.

(2)   All buildings and other enclosed structures owned by the state, its agencies, or political subdivisions, including but not limited to hospitals and state institutions for persons with mental illnesses and persons with intellectual disabilities; university and college buildings, except rooms within those buildings used primarily as the residences of students or other persons affiliated with the university or college; office buildings; libraries; museums; and vehicles used in public transportation. That portion of a building or other enclosed structure that is owned by the state, a state agency, or a political subdivision, and that is used primarily as a food service establishment, is not a place of public assembly.

(3)   Each portion of a building or enclosed structure that is not included in division (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this section is a place of public assembly if it has a seating capacity of 50 or more persons and is available to the public. Restaurants, food service establishments, dining rooms, cafes, cafeterias, or other rooms used primarily for the service of food, as well as bowling alleys and places licensed by the Ohio Division of Liquor Control to sell intoxicating beverages for consumption on the premises, are not places of public assembly.

(B)  For the purpose of separating persons who smoke from persons who do not smoke for the comfort and health of persons not smoking, in every place of public assembly there shall be an area where smoking is not permitted, which shall be designated a no smoking area, provided that not more than one-half of the rooms in any health care facility in which persons are confined as a matter of health care may be designated as smoking areas in their entirety. The designation shall be made before the place of public assembly is made available to the public. In places included in division (A)(1) of this section, the local fire authority having jurisdiction shall designate the no smoking area. In places included in division (A)(2) of this section that are owned by the state or its agencies, the Ohio Director of Administrative Services shall designate the area, and if the place is owned by a political subdivision, its Legislative Authority shall designate an officer who shall designate the area. In places included in division (A)(3) of this section, the person having control of the operations of the place of public assembly shall designate the no smoking area. In places included in division (A)(2) of this section which are also included in division (A)(1) of this section, the officer who has authority to designate the area in places in division (A)(2) of this section shall designate the no smoking area. A no smoking area may include the entire place of public assembly. Designations shall be made by the placement of signs that are clearly visible and that state Ano smoking@. No person shall remove signs from areas designated as no smoking areas.

(C)  This section does not affect or modify the prohibition contained in R.C. §3313.751(B).

(D)  No person shall smoke in any area designated as a no smoking area in accordance with division (B) of this section.

(E)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §3791.031)

§ 135.28  SPREADING CONTAGION.

(A)  No person, knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that the person has a dangerous, contagious disease, shall knowingly fail to take reasonable measures to prevent exposing self to other persons, except when seeking medical aid.

(B)  No person, having charge or care of a person whom the person having charge or care knows or has reasonable cause to believe has a dangerous, contagious disease, shall recklessly fail to take reasonable measures to protect others from exposure to the contagion, and to inform health authorities of the existence of the contagion.

(C)  No person, having charge of a public conveyance or place of public accommodation, amusement, resort, or trade, and knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that persons using such conveyance or place have been or are being exposed to a dangerous, contagious disease, shall negligently fail to take reasonable measures to protect the public from exposure to the contagion, and to inform health authorities of the existence of the contagion.

(R.C. §3701.81)

(D)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(R.C. §3701.99(C))

Statutory reference:

Contagion and quarantine, see R.C. §§ 3707.04 et seq.

Power to prevent contagious diseases, see R.C. § 715.37

§ 135.29  ABUSE OF A CORPSE.

(A)  No person, except as authorized by law, shall treat a human corpse in a way that he or she knows would outrage reasonable family sensibilities.

(B)  No person, except as authorized by law, shall treat a human corpse in a way that would outrage reasonable community sensibilities.

(C)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of abuse of a corpse, a misdemeanor of the second degree. Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of gross abuse of a corpse, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2927.01)

CHAPTER 136: OFFENSES AGAINST JUSTICE AND ADMINISTRATION

Section

136.01   Definitions
136.02   Falsification
136.03   Failure to aid a law enforcement officer
136.04   Failure to comply with lawful orders
136.05   Obstructing official business
136.06   Obstructing justice
136.07   Resisting arrest
136.08   Personating an officer
136.09   Impersonating a peace officer
136.10   Assaulting police dog or horse, or assistance dog
136.11   Misuse of 9‑1‑1 system
136.12   Compounding a crime
136.13   Failure to report a crime
136.14   Having an unlawful interest in a public contract
136.15   Soliciting or receiving improper compensation
136.16   Dereliction of duty
136.17   Interfering with civil rights
136.18   Illegal conveyance of prohibited items onto grounds of a detention facility or other specified governmental facilities
136.19   False report of child abuse or neglect
136.20   Disclosure of confidential peace officer information
136.21   Intimidation of crime victim or witness
136.22   Using sham legal process
136.23   Making false allegation of peace officer misconduct
136.24   Failure to disclose personal information

Statutory reference:
Escape from detention, see R.C. § 2921.34
Harassment by inmates by causing or attempting to cause contact with blood, semen, urine, feces
  or other bodily substance; knowledge of AIDS, hepatitis or tuberculosis infection; felony offenses, see R.C. § 2921.38

§ 136.01  DEFINITIONS.

For the purpose of this chapter, the following definitions shall apply unless the context clearly indicates or requires a different meaning.

CAMPAIGN COMMITTEE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3517.01.

CONTRIBUTION. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3517.01.

DETENTION. Arrest; confinement in any vehicle subsequent to an arrest; confinement in any public or private facility for custody of persons charged with or convicted of crime in this state or another state or under the laws of the United States or alleged or found to be a delinquent child or unruly child in this state or another state or under the laws of the United States; hospitalization, institutionalization, or confinement in any public or private facility that is ordered pursuant to or under the authority of R.C. §2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401 or 2945.402; confinement in any vehicle for transportation to or from any facility of any of those natures; detention for extradition or deportation; except as provided in this division, supervision by any employee of any facility of any of those natures that is incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or confinement in the facility but that occurs outside the facility; supervision by an employee of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction of a person on any type of release from a state correctional institution; or confinement in any vehicle, airplane, or place while being returned from outside of this state into this state by a private person or entity pursuant to a contract entered into under R.C. §311.29(E) or R.C. §5149.03(B). For a person confined in a county jail who participates in a county jail industry program pursuant to R.C. §5147.30, the term includes time spent at an assigned work site and going to and from the work site.

DETENTION FACILITY. Any public or private place used for the confinement of a person charged with or convicted of any crime in this state or another state or under the laws of the United States or alleged or found to be a delinquent child or an unruly child in this state or another state or under the laws of the United States.

LEGISLATIVE CAMPAIGN FUND. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3517.01.

OFFICIAL PROCEEDING. Any proceeding before a legislative, judicial, administrative, or other governmental agency or official authorized to take evidence under oath, and includes any proceeding before a referee, hearing examiner, commissioner, notary, or other person taking testimony or a deposition in connection with an official proceeding.

PARTY OFFICIAL. Any person who holds an elective or appointive post in a political party in the United States or this state, by virtue of which he or she directs, conducts, or participates in directing or conducting party affairs at any level of responsibility.

POLITICAL ACTION COMMITTEE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3517.01.

POLITICAL CONTRIBUTING ENTITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3517.01.

POLITICAL PARTY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3517.01.

PROVIDER AGREEMENT. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5164.01.

PUBLIC OFFICIAL. Any elected or appointed officer, employee, or agent of the state or any political subdivision thereof, whether in a temporary or permanent capacity, and includes but is not limited to legislators, judges, and law enforcement officers. The term does not include an employee, officer, or governor-appointed member of the board of directors of the nonprofit corporation formed under R.C. §187.01.

PUBLIC SERVANT.

(1)   Any of the following:

(a)   Any public official.

(b)   Any person performing ad hoc a governmental function, including but not limited to a juror, member of a temporary commission, master, arbitrator, advisor, or consultant.

(c)   A person who is a candidate for public office, whether or not he or she is elected or appointed to the office for which he or she is a candidate. A person is a candidate for purposes of this division if he or she has been nominated according to law for election or appointment to public office, or if he or she has filed a petition or petitions as required by law to have his or her name placed on the ballot in a primary, general, or special election, or if he or she campaigns as a write-in candidate in any primary, general, or special election.

(2)   The term does not include an employee, officer, or governor-appointed member of the board of directors of the nonprofit corporation formed under R.C. §187.01.

VALUABLE THING or VALUABLE BENEFIT. Includes but is not limited to a contribution. This inclusion does not indicate or imply that a contribution was not included in those terms before September 17, 1986.

(R.C. §2921.01)

§ 136.02  FALSIFICATION.

(A)  False statement. No person shall knowingly make a false statement, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false statement previously made, when any of the following applies:

(1)   The statement is made in any official proceeding.

(2)   The statement is made with purpose to incriminate another.

(3)   The statement is made with purpose to mislead a public official in performing his or her official function.

(4)   The statement is made with purpose to secure the payment of unemployment compensation; Ohio Works First; prevention, retention and contingency benefits and services; disability financial assistance; retirement benefits or health care coverage from a state retirement system; economic development assistance as defined in R.C. §9.66; or other benefits administered by a governmental agency or paid out of a public treasury.

(5)   The statement is made with purpose to secure the issuance by a governmental agency of a license, permit, authorization, certificate, registration, release, or provider agreement.

(6)   The statement is sworn or affirmed before a notary public or another person empowered to administer oaths.

(7)   The statement is in writing on or in connection with a report or return that is required or authorized by law.

(8)   The statement is in writing, and is made with purpose to induce another to extend credit to or employ the offender, or to confer any degree, diploma, certificate of attainment, award of excellence, or honor on the offender, or to extend to or bestow upon the offender any other valuable benefit or distinction, when the person to whom the statement is directed relies upon it to his or her detriment.

(9)   The statement is made with purpose to commit or facilitate the commission of a theft offense.

(10)  The statement is knowingly made to a probate court in connection with any action, proceeding, or other matter within its jurisdiction, either orally or in a written document, including but not limited to an application, petition, complaint, or other pleading, or an inventory, account, or report.

(11)  The statement is made on an account, form, record, stamp, label or other writing that is required by law.

(12)  The statement is made in connection with the purchase of a firearm, as defined in R.C. §2923.11, and in conjunction with the furnishing to the seller of the firearm of a fictitious or altered driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit, a fictitious or altered identification card, or any other document that contains false information about the purchaser’s identity.

(13)  The statement is made in a document or instrument of writing that purports to be a judgment, lien, or claim of indebtedness and is filed or recorded with the Secretary of State, a county recorder, or the clerk of a court of record.

(14)  The statement is made in an application filed with a county sheriff pursuant to R.C. §2923.125 in order to obtain or renew a concealed handgun license or is made in an affidavit submitted to a county sheriff to obtain a concealed handgun license on a temporary emergency basis under R.C. §2923.1213.

(15)  The statement is required under R.C. §5743.71 in connection with the person’s purchase of cigarettes or tobacco products in a delivery sale.

(B)  Furnishing altered identification in purchase of firearm. No person, in connection with the purchase of a firearm as defined in R.C. §2923.11, shall knowingly furnish to the seller of the firearm a fictitious or altered driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit, a fictitious or altered identification card, or any other document that contains false information about the purchaser’s identity.

(C)  Fictitious or altered documents. No person, in an attempt to obtain a concealed handgun license under R.C. §2923.125, shall knowingly present to a sheriff a fictitious or altered document that purports to be certification of the person’s competence in handling a handgun as described in division (B)(3) of that section.

(D)  Oath administered or taken in irregular manner; no defense. It is no defense to a charge under division (A)(6) of this section that the oath or affirmation was administered or taken in an irregular manner.

(E)  Prosecution; false statement. If contradictory statements relating to the same fact are made by the offender within the period of the statute of limitations for falsification, it is not necessary for the prosecution to prove which statement was false, but only that one or the other was false.

(F)   State law penalty.

(1)   Whoever violates division (A)(1), (A)(2), (A)(3), (A)(4), (A)(5), (A)(6), (A)(7), (A)(8), (A)(10), (A)(11), (A)(13) or (A)(15) of this section is guilty of falsification. Except as otherwise provided in this division, falsification is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(2)   Whoever violates division (A)(9) of this section is guilty of falsification in a theft offense. Except as otherwise provided in this division, falsification in a theft offense is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the property or services stolen is $1,000 or more, falsification in a theft offense is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   Whoever violates division (A)(12) or (B) of this section is guilty of falsification to purchase a firearm, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(4)   Whoever violates division (A)(14) or (C) of this section is guilty of falsification to obtain a concealed handgun license, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(5)   Whoever violates division (A) of this section in removal proceedings under R.C. §319.26, 321.37, 507.13 or 733.78 is guilty of falsification regarding a removal proceeding, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2921.13)

(G)  Failure to maintain proof of financial liability.

(1)   No person who has knowingly failed to maintain proof of financial responsibility in accordance with R.C. §4509.101 shall produce any document or present to a peace officer an electronic wireless communications device that is displaying any text or images with the purpose to mislead a peace officer upon the request of a peace officer for proof of financial responsibility made in accordance with R.C. §4509.101(D)(2).

(2)   Whoever violates this division (G) is guilty of falsification, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §4509.102)

(Prior Code, §136.01)

Statutory reference:

Civil liability for violations of this section, see R.C. § 2921.13(G)

§ 136.03  FAILURE TO AID A LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICER.

(A)  Generally. No person shall negligently fail or refuse to aid a law enforcement officer, when called upon for assistance in preventing or halting the commission of an offense, or in apprehending or detaining an offender, when the aid can be given without a substantial risk of physical harm to the person giving it.

(B)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of failure to aid a law enforcement officer, a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §2921.23)  (Prior Code, §136.02)

§ 136.04  FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH LAWFUL ORDERS.

No person shall fail or refuse to comply with any reasonable order relating to the regulation, direction, or control of traffic, or to any other order lawfully given by any peace officer acting under the authority of the Board of Park Commissioners, or willfully resist, obstruct, or abuse any peace officer or any other official in the execution of his or her office.

(Prior Code, §136.03)  (Rules and Regs. §21)

Statutory reference:

Failure to comply, see R.C. §§ 1541.18 and 2921.331

§ 136.05  OBSTRUCTING OFFICIAL BUSINESS.

(A)  Generally. No person, without privilege to do so and with purpose to prevent, obstruct, or delay the performance by a public official of any authorized act within the public official’s official capacity, shall do any act that hampers or impedes a public official in the performance of the public official’s lawful duties.

(B)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of obstructing official business. Except as otherwise provided in this division, obstructing official business is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If a violation of this section creates a risk of physical harm to any person, obstructing official business is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2921.31)  (Prior Code, §136.04)

§ 136.06  OBSTRUCTING JUSTICE.

(A)  Generally. No person, with purpose to hinder the discovery, apprehension, prosecution, conviction, or punishment of another for crime, or to assist another to benefit from the commission of a crime, and no person, with purpose to hinder the discovery, apprehension, prosecution, adjudication as a delinquent child, or disposition of a child for an act that if committed by an adult would be a crime or to assist a child to benefit from the commission of an act that if committed by an adult would be a crime, shall do any of the following:

(1)   Harbor or conceal the other person or child.

(2)   Provide the other person or child with money, transportation, a weapon, a disguise, or other means of avoiding discovery or apprehension.

(3)   Warn the other person or child of impending discovery or apprehension.

(4)   Destroy or conceal physical evidence of the crime or act, or induce any person to withhold testimony or information or to elude legal process summoning him or her to testify or supply evidence.

(5)   Communicate false information to any person.

(6)   Prevent or obstruct any person, by means of force, intimidation, or deception, from performing any act to aid in the discovery, apprehension, or prosecution of the other person or child.

(B)  Violation of division (A). A person may be prosecuted for, and may be convicted of or adjudicated a delinquent child for committing, a violation of division (A) of this section regardless of whether the person or child aided ultimately is apprehended for, is charged with, is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing the crime or act the person or child aided committed. The crime or act the person or child aided committed shall be used under division (C) of this section in determining the penalty for violation of division (A) of this section, regardless of whether the person or child aided ultimately is apprehended for, is charge with, is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or is adjudicated a delinquent child for committing the crime or act the person or child aided committed.

(C)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of obstructing justice.

(1)   If the crime committed by the person aided is a misdemeanor or if the act committed by the child aided would be a misdemeanor if committed by an adult, obstructing justice is a misdemeanor of the same degree as the crime committed by the person aided or a misdemeanor of the same degree that the act committed by the child aided would be if committed by an adult.

(2)   If the crime committed by the person aided is a felony or if the act committed by the child aided would be a felony if committed by an adult, or if the crime or act committed by the person or child aided is an act of terrorism, obstructing justice is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(D)  Definitions. As used in this section:

ACT OF TERRORISM. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2909.21.

ADULT. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2151.011.

CHILD. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2151.011.

DELINQUENT CHILD. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2152.02.

(R.C. §2921.32)  (Prior Code, §136.05)

§ 136.07  RESISTING ARREST.

(A)  Generally. No person, recklessly or by force, shall resist or interfere with a lawful arrest of himself, herself or another.

(B)  Physical harm to law enforcement officer. No person, recklessly or by force, shall resist or interfere with a lawful arrest of the person or another person and, during the course of or as a result of the resistance or interference, cause physical harm to a law enforcement officer.

(C)  Interference with lawful arrest of another person. No person, recklessly or by force, shall resist or interfere with a lawful arrest of the person or another person if either of the following applies:

(1)   The offender, during the course of or as a result of the resistance or interference, recklessly causes physical harm to a law enforcement officer by means of a deadly weapon; or

(2)   The offender, during the course of the resistance or interference, brandishes a deadly weapon.

(D)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of resisting arrest. A violation of division (A) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree. A violation of division (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. A violation of division (C) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(E)  Definition. As used in this section, DEADLY WEAPON has the same meaning as in R.C. §2923.11.

(R.C. §2921.33)  (Prior Code, §136.06)

Statutory reference:

Unlawful taking of deadly weapon from a law enforcement officer, felony offense, see

  R.C. § 2911.01

§ 136.08  PERSONATING AN OFFICER.

(A)  Generally. No person, with purpose to defraud or knowing that he or she is facilitating a fraud, or with purpose to induce another to purchase property or services, shall personate a law enforcement officer, or an inspector, investigator, or agent of any governmental agency.

(B)  State law penalty. Whoever violates this section is guilty of personating an officer, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2913.44)  (Prior Code, §136.07)

§ 136.09  IMPERSONATING A PEACE OFFICER.

(A)  Definitions. As used in this section:

FEDERAL LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICER. Means an employee of the United States who serves in a position the duties of which are primarily the investigation, apprehension, or detention of individuals suspected or convicted of offenses under the criminal laws of the United States.

IMPERSONATE. Means to act the part of, assume the identity of, wear the uniform or any part of the uniform of, or display the identification of a particular person or of a member of a class of persons with purpose to make another person believe that the actor is that particular person or is a member of that class of persons.

INVESTIGATOR OF THE BUREAU OF CRIMINAL IDENTIFICATION AND INVESTIGATION. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2903.11.

PEACE OFFICER. A Sheriff, deputy sheriff, Marshal, deputy marshal, member of the organized police department of a municipal corporation, or township constable, who is employed by a political subdivision of this state; a member of a police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under R.C. §3735.31(D); a member of a police force employed by a regional transit authority under R.C. §306.35(Y); a state university law enforcement officer appointed under R.C. §3345.04; a veterans’ home police officer appointed under R.C. §5907.02; a special police officer employed by a port authority under R.C. §4582.04 or 4582.28; an officer, agent, or employee of the state or any of its agencies, instrumentalities, or political subdivisions, upon whom, by statute, a duty to conserve the peace or to enforce all or certain laws is imposed and the authority to arrest violators is conferred, within limits of that statutory duty and authority; or a state highway patrol trooper whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, to protect life and property, and to enforce the laws, ordinances, or rules of the state or any of its political subdivisions.

PRIVATE POLICE OFFICER. Means any security guard, special police officer, private detective, or other person who is privately employed in a police capacity.

(B)  Impersonation of peace office or private police officer. No person shall impersonate a peace officer, private police officer, investigator of the Bureau of Criminal Identification and Investigation, or federal law enforcement officer.

(C)  Arrest, detain and the like another by person impersonating peace officer or private police officer. No person, by impersonating a peace officer, private police officer, investigator of the Bureau of Criminal Identification and Investigation, or federal law enforcement officer, shall arrest or detain any person, search any person, or search the property of any person.

(D)  Impersonation of peace officer, private police officer, officer, agent or employee of municipality of state. No person, with purpose to commit or facilitate the commission of an offense, shall impersonate a peace officer, private police officer, federal law enforcement officer, an officer, agent or employee of the municipality or the state, or investigator of the Bureau of Criminal Identification and Investigation.

(E)  Felony committed during impersonation. No person shall commit a felony while impersonating a peace officer, private police officer, federal law enforcement officer, an officer, agent or employee of the municipality or of the state, or investigator of the Bureau of Criminal Identification and Investigation.

(F)   Impersonation for lawful purpose, affirmative defense. It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (B) of this section that the impersonation of the peace officer, private police officer, federal law enforcement officer, an officer, agent or employee of the municipality or of the state, or investigator of the Bureau of Criminal Identification and Investigation was for a lawful purpose.

(G)  State law penalty. Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. Whoever violates division (C) or (D) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the purpose of a violation of division (D) of this section is to commit or facilitate the commission of a felony, a violation of division (D) is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. Whoever violates division (E) of this section is guilty of a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2921.51)  (Prior Code, §136.08)

§ 136.10  ASSAULTING POLICE DOG OR HORSE, OR ASSISTANCE DOG.

(A)  No person shall knowingly cause, or attempt to cause, physical harm to a police dog or horse in either of the following circumstances:

(1)   The police dog or horse is assisting a law enforcement officer in the performance of the officer’s official duties at the time the physical harm is caused or attempted.

(2)   The police dog or horse is not assisting a law enforcement officer in the performance of the officer’s official duties at the time the physical harm is caused or attempted, but the offender has actual knowledge that the dog or horse is a police dog or horse.

(B)  No person shall recklessly do any of the following:

(1)   Taunt, torment, or strike a police dog or horse;

(2)   Throw an object or substance at a police dog or horse;

(3)   Interfere with or obstruct a police dog or horse, or interfere with or obstruct a law enforcement officer who is being assisted by a police dog or horse, in a manner that does any of the following:

(a)   Inhibits or restricts the law enforcement officer’s control of the police dog or horse;

(b)   Deprives the law enforcement officer of control of the police dog or horse;

(c)   Releases the police dog or horse from its area of control;

(d)   Enters the area of control of the police dog or horse without the consent of the law enforcement officer, including placing food or any other object or substance into that area;

(e)   Inhibits or restricts the ability of the police dog or horse to assist a law enforcement officer;

(4)   Engage in any conduct that is likely to cause serious physical injury or death to a police dog or horse;

(5)   If the person is the owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog, fail to reasonably restrain the dog from taunting, tormenting, chasing, approaching in a menacing fashion or apparent attitude of attack, or attempting to bite or otherwise endanger a police dog or horse that at the time of the conduct, the police dog or horse is assisting a law enforcement officer in the performance of the officer’s duties or that the person knows is a police dog or horse.

(C)  No person shall knowingly cause, or attempt to cause, physical harm to an assistance dog in either of the following circumstances:

(1)   The dog, at the time the physical harm is caused or attempted, is assisting or serving a person who is blind, deaf, or hearing impaired or a person with a mobility impairment.

(2)   The dog, at the time the physical harm is caused or attempted, is not assisting or serving a person who is blind, deaf, or hearing impaired or a person with a mobility impairment, but the offender has actual knowledge that the dog is an assistance dog.

(D)  No person shall recklessly do any of the following:

(1)   Taunt, torment, or strike an assistance dog;

(2)   Throw an object or substance at an assistance dog;

(3)   Interfere with or obstruct an assistance dog, or interfere with or obstruct a person who is blind, deaf, or hearing impaired or a person with a mobility impairment who is being assisted or served by an assistance dog, in a manner that does any of the following:

(a)   Inhibits or restricts the assisted or served person’s control of the dog;

(b)   Deprives the assisted or served person of control of the dog;

(c)   Releases the dog from its area of control;

(d)   Enters the area of control of the dog without the consent of the assisted or served person, including placing food or any other object or substance into that area;

(e)   Inhibits or restricts the ability of the dog to assist the assisted or served person;

(4)   Engage in any conduct that is likely to cause serious physical injury or death to an assistance dog;

(5)   If the person is the owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog, fail to reasonably restrain the dog from taunting, tormenting, chasing, approaching in a menacing fashion or apparent attitude of attack, or attempting to bite or otherwise endanger an assistance dog that at the time of the conduct is assisting or serving a person who is blind, deaf, or hearing impaired or a person with a mobility impairment or that the person knows is an assistance dog.

(E)  (1)   Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of assaulting a police dog or horse. Except as otherwise provided in this division, assaulting a police dog or horse is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the violation results in physical harm to the police dog or horse other than death or serious physical harm, assaulting a police dog or horse is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the violation results in serious physical harm to the police dog or horse or results in its death, assaulting a police dog or horse is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of harassing a police dog or horse. Except as otherwise provided this division, harassing a police dog or horse is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the violation results in physical harm to the police dog or horse but does not result in its death or in serious physical harm to it, harassing a police dog or horse is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the violation results in serous physical harm to the police dog or horse or results in its death, harassing a police dog or horse is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   Whoever violates division (C) of this section is guilty of assaulting an assistance dog. Except as otherwise provided in this division, assaulting an assistance dog is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the violation results in physical harm to the assistance dog other than death or serious physical harm, assaulting an assistance dog is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the violation results in serious physical harm to the assistance dog or results in its death, assaulting an assistance dog is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(4)   Whoever violates division (D) of this section is guilty of harassing an assistance dog. Except as otherwise provided in this division, harassing an assistance dog is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the violation results in physical harm to the assistance dog but does not result in the death or in serious physical harm to it, harassing an assistance dog is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the violation results in serious physical harm to the assistance dog or results in its death, harassing an assistance dog is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(5)   In addition to any other sanctions or penalty imposed for the offense under this section, R.C. Chapter 2929 or any other provision of the Ohio Revised Code or this code, whoever violates division (A), (B), (C), or (D) of this section is responsible for the payment of all of the following:

(a)   Any veterinary bill or bill for medication incurred as a result of the violation by the police department regarding a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section or by the person who is blind, deaf, or hearing impaired or the person with a mobility impairment assisted or served by the assistance dog regarding a violation of division (C) or (D) of this section;

(b)   The cost of any damaged equipment that results from the violation;

(c)   If the violation did not result in the death of the police dog or horse or the assistance dog that was the subject of the violation and if, as a result of that dog or horse being the subject of the violation, the dog or horse needs further training or retraining to be able to continue in the capacity of a police dog or horse or an assistance dog, the cost of any further training or retraining of that dog or horse by a law enforcement officer or by the person who is blind, deaf, or hearing impaired or the person with a mobility impairment assisted or served by the assistance dog;

(d)   If the violation resulted in the death of the assistance dog that was the subject of the violation or resulted in serious physical harm to the police dog or horse or the assistance dog or horse that was the subject of the violation to the extent that the dog or horse needs to be replaced on either a temporary or a permanent basis, the cost of replacing that dog or horse and of any further training of a new police dog or horse or a new assistance dog by a law enforcement officer or by the person who is blind, deaf, or hearing impaired or the person with a mobility impairment assisted or served by the assistance dog, which replacement or training is required because of the death of or the serious physical harm to the dog or horse that was the subject of the violation.

(F)   This section does not apply to a licensed veterinarian whose conduct is in accordance with R.C. Chapter 4741.

(G)  This section only applies to an offender who knows or should know at the time of the violation that the police dog or horse or assistance dog that is the subject of a violation under this section is a police dog or horse or an assistance dog.

(H)  As used in this section:

ASSISTANCE DOG. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §955.011.

BLIND. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §955.011.

PERSON WITH A MOBILITY IMPAIRMENT. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §955.011.

PHYSICAL HARM. Means any injury, illness, or other psychological impairment, regardless of its gravity or duration.

POLICE DOG OR HORSE. Means a dog or horse that has been trained and may be used to assist law enforcement officers in the performance of their official duties.

SERIOUS PHYSICAL HARM. Means any of the following:

(a)   Any physical harm that carries a substantial risk of death.

(b)   Any physical harm that causes permanent maiming or that involves some temporary, substantial maiming.

(c)   Any physical harm that causes acute pain of a duration that results in substantial suffering.

(R.C. §2921.321)  (Prior Code, §136.09)

§ 136.11  MISUSE OF 9‑1‑1 SYSTEM.

(A)  As used in this section, 9‑1‑1 SYSTEM means a system through which individuals can request emergency service using the telephone number 9‑1‑1.

(R.C. §128.01(A))

(B)  No person shall knowingly use the telephone number of a 9‑1‑1 system established under R.C. Chapter 128 to report an emergency if the person knows that no emergency exists.

(C)  No person shall knowingly use a 9‑1‑1 system for a purpose other than obtaining emergency service.

(D)  No person shall disclose or use any information concerning telephone numbers, addresses, or names obtained from the database that serves the public safety answering point of a 9‑1‑1 system established under R.C. Chapter 128, except for any of the following purposes or under any of the following circumstances:

(1)   For the purpose of the 9‑1‑1 system;

(2)   For the purpose of responding to an emergency call to an emergency service provider;

(3)   In the circumstance of the inadvertent disclosure of such information due solely to technology of the wireless telephone network portion of the 9‑1‑1 system not allowing access to the database to be restricted to 9‑1‑1 specific answering lines at a public safety answering point;

(4)   In the circumstance of access to a database being given by a telephone company that is a wireless service provider to a public utility or municipal utility in handling customer calls in times of public emergency or service outages. The charge, terms, and conditions for the disclosure or use of such information for the purpose of such access to a database shall be subject to the jurisdiction of the Steering Committee;

(5)   In the circumstance of access to a database given by a telephone company that is a wireline service provider to a state and local government in warning of a public emergency, as determined by the Steering Committee. The charge, terms and conditions for the disclosure or use of that information for the purpose of access to a database is subject to the jurisdiction of the Steering Committee.

(R.C. §128.32(E) – (G))

(E)  (1)   Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(2)   Whoever violates division (C) or (D) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree on a first offense and a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law on each subsequent offense.

(R.C. §128.99(A), (B))

(Prior Code, §136.10)

§ 136.12  COMPOUNDING A CRIME.

(A)  No person shall knowingly demand, accept, or agree to accept anything of value in consideration of abandoning or agreeing to abandon a pending criminal prosecution.

(B)  It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this section when both of the following apply:

(1)   The pending prosecution involved is for a violation of R.C. §2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.21(B)(2), or 2913.47, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, of which the actor under this section was the victim.

(2)   The thing of value demanded, accepted, or agreed to be accepted, in consideration of abandoning or agreeing to abandon the prosecution, did not exceed an amount that the actor reasonably believed due him or her as restitution for the loss caused him or her by the offense.

(C)  When a prosecuting witness abandons or agrees to abandon a prosecution under division (B) of this section, the abandonment or agreement in no way binds the state to abandoning the prosecution.

(D)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of compounding a crime, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2921.21)

§ 136.13  FAILURE TO REPORT A CRIME.

(A)  (1)   Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, no person, knowing that a felony has been or is being committed, shall knowingly fail to report the information to law enforcement authorities.

(2)   No person, knowing that a violation of R.C. §2913.04(B) has been or is being committed or that the person has received information derived from such a violation, shall knowingly fail to report the violation to law enforcement authorities.

(B)  Except for conditions that are within the scope of division (E) of this section, no person giving aid to a sick or injured person shall negligently fail to report to law enforcement authorities any gunshot or stab wound treated or observed by the person, or any serious physical harm to persons that the person knows or has reasonable cause to believe resulted from an offense of violence.

(C)  No person who discovers the body or acquires the first knowledge of the death of a person shall fail to report the death immediately to a physician or advanced practice registered nurse whom the person knows to be treating the deceased for a condition from which death at such time would not be unexpected, or to a law enforcement officer, an ambulance service, an emergency squad, or the coroner in a political subdivision in which the body is discovered, the death is believed to have occurred, or knowledge concerning the death is obtained. For purposes of this division, Aadvanced practice registered nurse@ does not include a certified registered nurse anesthetist.

(D)  No person shall fail to provide upon request of the person to whom a report required by division (C) of this section was made, or to any law enforcement officer who has reasonable cause to assert the authority to investigate the circumstances surrounding the death, any facts within his or her knowledge that may have a bearing on the investigation of the death.

(E)  (1)   As used in this section, BURN INJURY means any of the following:

(a)   Second or third degree burns;

(b)   Any burns to the upper respiratory tract or laryngeal edema due to the inhalation of super-heated air;

(c)   Any burn injury or wound that may result in death;

(d)   Any physical harm to persons caused by or as the result of the use of fireworks, novelties and trick noisemakers, and wire sparklers, as each is defined by R.C. §3743.01.

(2)   No physician, nurse, physician assistant, or limited practitioner who, outside a hospital, sanitarium, or other medical facility, attends or treats a person who has sustained a burn injury inflicted by an explosion or other incendiary device, or that shows evidence of having been inflicted in a violent, malicious, or criminal manner, shall fail to report the burn injury immediately to the local arson bureau, if there is such a bureau in the jurisdiction in which the person is attended or treated, or otherwise to local law enforcement authorities.

(3)   No manager, superintendent, or other person in charge of a hospital, sanitarium, or other medical facility in which a person is attended or treated for any burn injury inflicted by an explosion or other incendiary device, or that shows evidence of having been inflicted in a violent, malicious, or criminal manner, shall fail to report the burn injury immediately to the local arson bureau, if there is such a bureau in the jurisdiction in which the person is attended or treated, or otherwise to local law enforcement authorities.

(4)   No person who is required to report any burn injury under division (E)(2) or (E)(3) of this section shall fail to file, within three working days after attending or treating the victim, a written report of the burn injury with the office of the State Fire Marshal. The report shall be made on a form provided by the State Fire Marshal.

(5)   Anyone participating in the making of reports under division (E) of this section or anyone participating in a judicial proceeding resulting from the reports is immune from any civil or criminal liability that otherwise might be incurred or imposed as a result of such actions. Notwithstanding R.C. §4731.22, the physician-patient relationship or advanced practice registered nurse-patient relationship is not a ground for excluding evidence regarding a person’s burn injury or the cause of the burn injury in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report submitted under division (E) of this section.

(F)   (1)   Any doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, hospital intern or resident, nurse, psychologist, social worker, independent social worker, social work assistant, licensed professional clinical counselor, licensed professional counselor, independent marriage and family therapist, or marriage and family therapist who knows or has reasonable cause to believe that a patient or client has been the victim of domestic violence, as defined in R.C. §3113.31, shall note that knowledge or belief and the basis for it in the patient’s or client’s records.

(2)   Notwithstanding R.C. §4731.22, the physician-patient privilege or advanced practice registered nurse-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding any information regarding the report containing the knowledge or belief noted under division (F)(1) of this section, and the information may be admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence.

(G)  Division (A) or (D) of this section does not require disclosure of information, when any of the following applies:

(1)   The information is privileged by reason of the relationship between attorney and client; physician and patient; advanced practice registered nurse and patient; licensed psychologist or licensed school psychologist and client; licensed professional clinical counselor, licensed professional counselor, independent social worker, social worker, independent marriage and family therapist, or marriage and family therapist and client; member of the clergy, rabbi, minister, or priest and any person communicating information confidentially to the member of the clergy, rabbi, minister, or priest for a religious counseling purpose of a professional character; husband and wife; or a communications assistant and those who are a party to a telecommunications relay service call.

(2)   The information would tend to incriminate a member of the actor’s immediate family.

(3)   Disclosure of the information would amount to revealing a news source, privileged under R.C. §2739.04 or 2739.12.

(4)   Disclosure of the information would amount to disclosure by a member of the ordained clergy of an organized religious body of a confidential communication made to that member of the clergy in that member’s capacity as a member of the clergy by a person seeking the aid or counsel of that member of the clergy.

(5)   Disclosure would amount to revealing information acquired by the actor in the course of the actor’s duties in connection with a bona fide program of treatment or services for persons with drug dependencies or persons in danger of drug dependence, which program is maintained or conducted by a hospital, clinic, person, agency, or community addiction services provider whose alcohol and drug addiction services are certified pursuant to R.C. §5119.36.

(6)   Disclosure would amount to revealing information acquired by the actor in the course of the actor’s duties in connection with a bona fide program for providing counseling services to victims of crimes that are violations of R.C. §2907.02 or R.C. §2907.05 or to victims of felonious sexual penetration in violation of former R.C. §2907.12. As used in this division, Acounseling services@ include services provided in an informal setting by a person who, by education or experience, is competent to provide those services.

(H)  No disclosure of information pursuant to this section gives rise to any liability or recrimination for a breach of privilege or confidence.

(I)   Whoever violates division (A) or (B) of this section is guilty of failure to report a crime. Violation of division (A)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. Violation of division (A)(2) or (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(J)   Whoever violates division (C) or (D) of this section is guilty of failure to report knowledge of a death, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(K)  (1)   Whoever negligently violates division (E) of this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.

(2)   Whoever knowingly violates division (E) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(L)  As used in this section, NURSE includes an advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse, and licensed practical nurse.

(R.C. §2921.22)

§ 136.14  HAVING AN UNLAWFUL INTEREST IN A PUBLIC CONTRACT.

(A)  No public official shall knowingly do any of the following:

(1)   Authorize or employ the authority of the public official’s office to secure authorization of any public contract in which the public official, a member of the public official’s family, or any of the public official’s business associates has an interest.

(2)   Authorize or employ the authority or influence of the public official’s office to secure the investment of public funds in any share, bond, mortgage, or other security with respect to which the public official, a member of the public official’s family, or any of the public official’s business associates either has an interest, is an underwriter, or receives any brokerage, origination, or servicing fees.

(3)   During the public official’s term of office or within one year thereafter, occupy any position of profit in the prosecution of a public contract authorized by the public official or by a legislative body, commission, or board of which the public official was a member at the time of authorization, unless the contract was let by competitive bidding to the lowest and best bidder.

(4)   Have an interest in the profits or benefits of a public contract entered into by or for the use of the political subdivision or governmental agency or instrumentality with which the public official is connected.

(5)   Have an interest in the profits or benefits of a public contract that is not let by competitive bidding when required by law, and that involves more than $150.

(B)  In the absence of bribery or a purpose to defraud, a public official, member of a public official’s family, or any of a public official’s business associates shall not be considered as having an interest in a public contract or the investment of public funds, if all of the following apply:

(1)   The interest of that person is limited to owning or controlling shares of the corporation, or being a creditor of the corporation or other organization, that is the contractor on the public contract involved, or that is the issuer of the security in which public funds are invested.

(2)   The shares owned or controlled by that person do not exceed 5% of the outstanding shares of the corporation, and the amount due that person as creditor does not exceed 5% of the total indebtedness of the corporation or other organization.

(3)   That person, prior to the time the public contract is entered into, files with the political subdivision or governmental agency or instrumentality involved, an affidavit giving that person’s exact status in connection with the corporation or other organization.

(C)  This section does not apply to a public contract in which a public official, member of a public official’s family, or one of a public official’s business associates has an interest, when all of the following apply:

(1)   The subject of the public contract is necessary supplies or services for the political subdivision or governmental agency or instrumentality involved.

(2)   The supplies or services are unobtainable elsewhere for the same or lower cost, or are being furnished to the political subdivision or governmental agency or instrumentality as part of a continuing course of dealing established prior to the public official’s becoming associated with the political subdivision or governmental agency or instrumentality involved.

(3)   The treatment accorded the political subdivision or governmental agency or instrumentality is either preferential to or the same as that accorded other customers or clients in similar transactions.

(4)   The entire transaction is conducted at arm’s length, with full knowledge by the political subdivision or governmental agency or instrumentality involved, of the interest of the public official, member of the public official’s family, or business associate, and the public official takes no part in the deliberations or decision of the political subdivision or governmental agency or instrumentality with respect to the public contract.

(D)  Division (A)(4) of this section does not prohibit participation by a public employee in any housing program funded by public monies if the public employee otherwise qualifies for the program and does not use the authority or influence of the public employee’s office or employment to secure benefits from the program and if the monies are to be used on the primary residence of the public employee. Such participation does not constitute an unlawful interest in a public contract in violation of this section.

(E)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of having an unlawful interest in a public contract. Violation of division (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. Violation of division (A)(3), (A)(4), or (A)(5) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(F)   It is not a violation of this section for a prosecuting attorney to appoint assistants and employees in accordance with R.C. §§ 309.06 and 2921.421, or for a chief legal officer of a municipality or an official designated as prosecutor in a municipality to appoint assistants and employees in accordance with R.C. §§ 733.621 and 2921.421, or for a township law director appointed under R.C. §504.15 to appoint assistants and employees in accordance with R.C. §§ 504.151 and 2921.421.

(G)  Any public contract in which a public official, a member of the public official’s family, or any of the public official’s business associates has an interest in violation of this section is void and unenforceable. Any contract securing the investment of public funds in which a public official, a member of the public official’s family, or any of the public official’s business associates has an interest, is an underwriter, or receives any brokerage, origination or servicing fees and that was entered into in violation of this section is void and unenforceable.

(H)  As used in this section:

CHIEF LEGAL OFFICER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §733.621.

PUBLIC CONTRACT. Means any of the following:

(a)   The purchase or acquisition, or a contract for the purchase or acquisition, of property or services by or for the use of the state or any of its political subdivisions, or any agency or instrumentality of either, including the employment of an individual by the state, any of its political subdivisions, or any agency or instrumentality of either.

(b)   A contract for the design, construction, alteration, repair, or maintenance of any public property.

(R.C. §2921.42)

Statutory reference:

Assistants and employees of Prosecutors, Law Directors, and Solicitors, see R.C. § 2921.421

§ 136.15  SOLICITING OR RECEIVING IMPROPER COMPENSATION.

(A)  No public servant shall knowingly solicit or accept and no person shall knowingly promise or give to a public servant either of the following:

(1)   Any compensation, other than as allowed by R.C. §102.03(G), (H), (I), or other provisions of law, to perform the public servant’s official duties, to perform any other act or service in the public servant’s public capacity, for the general performance of the duties of the public servant’s public office or public employment, or as a supplement to the public servant’s public compensation.

(2)   Additional or greater fees or costs than are allowed by law to perform the public servant’s official duties.

(B)  No public servant for the public servant’s own personal or business use and no person for the person’s own personal or business use or for the personal or business use of a public servant or party official, shall solicit or accept anything of value in consideration of either of the following:

(1)   Appointing or securing, maintaining, or renewing the appointment of any person to any public office, employment, or agency.

(2)   Preferring, or maintaining the status of, any public employee with respect to compensation, duties, placement, location, promotion, or other material aspects of employment.

(C)  No person for the benefit of a political party, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, political action committee or political contributing entity shall coerce any contribution in consideration of either of the following:

(1)   Appointing or securing, maintaining, or renewing the appointment of any person to any public office, employment, or agency.

(2)   Preferring, or maintaining the status of, any public employee with respect to compensation, duties, placement, location, promotion, or other material aspects of employment.

(D)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of soliciting improper compensation, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(E)  A public servant who is convicted of a violation of this section is disqualified from holding any public office, employment, or position of trust in this state for a period of seven years from the date of conviction.

(F)   Divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section do not prohibit any person from making voluntary contributions to a political party, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, political action committee or political contributing entity or prohibit a political party, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, political action committee or political contributing entity from accepting voluntary contributions.

(R.C. §2921.43)

§ 136.16  DERELICTION OF DUTY.

(A)  No law enforcement officer shall negligently do any of the following:

(1)   Fail to serve a lawful warrant without delay.

(2)   Fail to prevent or halt the commission of an offense or to apprehend an offender, when it is in the law enforcement officer’s power to do so alone or with available assistance.

(B)  No law enforcement, ministerial, or judicial officer shall negligently fail to perform a lawful duty in a criminal case or proceeding.

(C)  No officer, having charge of a detention facility, shall negligently do any of the following:

(1)   Allow the detention facility to become littered or unsanitary.

(2)   Fail to provide persons confined in the detention facility with adequate food, clothing, bedding, shelter, and medical attention.

(3)   Fail to control an unruly prisoner, or to prevent intimidation of or physical harm to a prisoner by another.

(4)   Allow a prisoner to escape.

(5)   Fail to observe any lawful and reasonable regulation for the management of the detention facility.

(D)  No public official shall recklessly create a deficiency, incur a liability, or expend a greater sum than is appropriated by the Legislative Authority for the use in any one year of the department, agency, or institution with which the public official is connected.

(E)  No public servant shall recklessly fail to perform a duty expressly imposed by law with respect to the public servant’s office, or recklessly do any act expressly forbidden by law with respect to the public servant’s office.

(F)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of dereliction of duty, a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(G)  Except as otherwise provided by law, a public servant who is a county treasurer; county auditor; township fiscal officer; city auditor; city treasurer; village fiscal officer; village clerk-treasurer; village clerk; in the case of a municipal corporation having a charter that designates an officer who, by virtue of the charter, has duties and functions similar to those of the city or village officers referred to in this section, the officer so designated by the charter; school district treasurer; fiscal officer of a community school established under R.C. Chapter 3314; treasurer of a science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school established under R.C. Chapter 3326; or fiscal officer of a college-preparatory boarding school established under R.C. Chapter 3328 and is convicted of or pleads guilty to dereliction of duty is disqualified from holding any public office, employment, or position of trust in this state for four years following the date of conviction or of entry of the plea, and is not entitled to hold any public office until any repayment or restitution required by the court is satisfied.

(H)  As used in this section, PUBLIC SERVANT includes the following:

(1)   An officer or employee of a contractor as defined in R.C. §9.08;

(2)   A fiscal officer employed by the operator of a community school established under R.C. Chapter 3314 or by the operator of a college-preparatory boarding school established under R.C. Chapter 3328.

(R.C. §2921.44)

§ 136.17  INTERFERING WITH CIVIL RIGHTS.

(A)  No public servant, under color of the public servant’s office, employment, or authority, shall knowingly deprive, or conspire or attempt to deprive any person of a constitutional or statutory right.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of interfering with civil rights, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2921.45)

Statutory reference:

Restraining or confining pregnant children or pregnant women, see R.C. § 2152.75(B) and

  R.C. § 2901.10

§ 136.18  ILLEGAL CONVEYANCE OF PROHIBITED ITEMS ONTO GROUNDS OF A DETENTION FACILITY OR OTHER SPECIFIED GOVERNMENTAL FACILITIES.

(A)  No person shall knowingly convey, or attempt to convey, onto the grounds of a detention facility or of an institution, office building, or other place that is under the control of the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, the Department of Developmental Disabilities, the Department of Youth Services, or the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, any of the following items:

(1)   Any deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance, as defined in R.C. §2923.11, or any part of or ammunition for use in such deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance.

(2)   Any drug of abuse, as defined in R.C. §3719.011.

(3)   Any intoxicating liquor, as defined in R.C. §4301.01, except for small amounts of wine for sacramental purposes when the person engaging in the specified conduct is a cleric, as defined in R.C. §2317.02.

(B)  Division (A) of this section does not apply to any person who conveys or attempts to convey an item onto the grounds of a detention facility or of an institution, office building, or other place under the control of the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, the Department of Developmental Disabilities, the Department of Youth Services, or the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, with written authorization of the person in charge of the detention facility or the institution, office building, or other place and in accordance with the written rules of the detention facility or the institution, office building, or other place.

(C)  No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a child confined in a youth services facility, to a prisoner who is temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment, or to any patient in an institution under the control of the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services or the Department of Developmental Disabilities, any item listed in division (A).

(D)  No person shall knowingly deliver or attempt to deliver cash to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a child confined in a youth services facility, or to a prisoner who is temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment.

(E)  No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a child confined in a youth services facility, or to a prisoner who is temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment a cellular telephone, two-way radio, or other electronic communications device.

(F)   (1)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (A)(1) of this section that the weapon or dangerous ordnance in question was being transported in a motor vehicle for any lawful purpose, that it was not on the actor’s person, and if the weapon or dangerous ordnance was a firearm, that it was unloaded and was being carried in a closed package, box or case or in a compartment that can be reached only by leaving the vehicle.

(2)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (C) of this section that the actor was not otherwise prohibited by law from delivering the item to the confined person, the child, the prisoner, or the patient and that either of the following applies:

(a)   The actor was permitted by the written rules of the detention facility or the institution, office building, or other place to deliver the item to the confined person or the patient.

(b)   The actor was given written authorization by the person in charge of the detention facility or the institution, office building, or other place to deliver the item to the confined person or the patient.

(G)  (1)   Whoever violates division (A)(1) of this section or commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving any item listed in division (A)(1) of this section is guilty of illegal conveyance of weapons onto the grounds of a specified governmental facility, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   Whoever violates division (A)(2) of this section or commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving any drug of abuse is guilty of illegal conveyance of drugs of abuse onto the grounds of a specified governmental facility, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   Whoever violates division (A)(3) of this section or commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving any intoxicating liquor is guilty of illegal conveyance of intoxicating liquor onto the grounds of a specified governmental facility, a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(4)   Whoever violates division (D) of this section is guilty of illegal conveyance of cash onto the grounds of a detention facility, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (D) of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, illegal conveyance of cash onto the grounds of a detention facility is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(5)   Whoever violates division (E) of this section is guilty of illegal conveyance of a communications device onto the grounds of a specified governmental facility, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (E) of this section or a substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, illegal conveyance of a communications device onto the grounds of a detention facility is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2921.36)

(H)  The person in charge of a detention facility shall, on the grounds of the detention facility, have the same power as a peace officer, as defined in R.C. §2935.01, to arrest a person who violates this section.

(R.C. §2921.37)

Statutory reference:

Conveyance or possession of deadly weapons or dangerous ordnance on school premises, felony

  offense, see R.C. § 2923.122

Conveyance, possession, or control of deadly weapon or dangerous ordinance in a courthouse,

  felony offense, see R.C. § 2923.123

Possession of deadly weapon while under detention, felony offense, see R.C. § 2923.131

§ 136.19  FALSE REPORT OF CHILD ABUSE OR NEGLECT.

(A)  No person shall knowingly make or cause another person to make a false report under R.C. §2151.421(B) alleging that any person has committed an act or omission that resulted in a child being an abused child as defined in R.C. §2151.031 or a neglected child as defined in R.C. §2151.03.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of making or causing a false report of child abuse or child neglect, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2921.14)

§ 136.20  DISCLOSURE OF CONFIDENTIAL PEACE OFFICER INFORMATION.

(A)  No officer or employee of a law enforcement agency or court, or of the clerk’s office of any court, shall disclose during the pendency of any criminal case the home address of any peace officer, parole officer, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, or youth services employee who is a witness or arresting officer in the case.

(B)  Division (A) of this section does not prohibit a peace officer, parole officer, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, or youth services employee from disclosing the peace officer’s, parole officer’s, prosecuting attorney’s, assistant prosecuting attorney’s, correctional employee’s, or youth services employee’s own home address, and does not apply to any person who discloses the home address of a peace officer, parole officer, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, or youth services employee pursuant to a court-ordered disclosure under division (C) of this section.

(C)  The court in which any criminal case is pending may order the disclosure of the home address of any peace officer, parole officer, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, or youth services employee who is a witness or arresting officer in the case, if the court determines after a written request for the disclosure that good cause exists for disclosing the home address of the peace officer, parole officer, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, or youth services employee.

(D)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of disclosure of confidential information, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(R.C. §2921.24)

(E)  No judge of a court of record, or Mayor presiding over a Mayor’s Court, shall order a peace officer, parole officer, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, or youth services employee who is a witness in a criminal case, to disclose the peace officer’s, parole officer’s, prosecuting attorney’s, assistant prosecuting attorney’s, correctional employee’s, or youth services employee’s home address during the peace officer’s, parole officer’s, prosecuting attorney’s, assistant prosecuting attorney’s, correctional employee’s, or youth services employee’s examination in the case unless the judge or Mayor determines that the defendant has a right to the disclosure.

(F)   As used in this section:

PEACE OFFICER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2935.01.

CORRECTIONAL EMPLOYEE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §149.43.

YOUTH SERVICES EMPLOYEE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §149.43.

(R.C. §2921.25)

§ 136.21  INTIMIDATION OF CRIME VICTIM OR WITNESS.

(A)  No person shall knowingly attempt to intimidate or hinder the victim of a crime or delinquent act in the filing or prosecution of criminal charges or a delinquent child action or proceeding, and no person shall knowingly attempt to intimidate a witness to a criminal or delinquent act by reason of the person being a witness to that act.

(B)  No person, knowingly and by force or by unlawful threat of harm to any person or property or by unlawful threat to commit any offense or calumny against any person, shall attempt to influence, intimidate, or hinder any of the following persons:

(1)   The victim of a crime or delinquent act in the filing or prosecution of criminal charges or a delinquent child action or proceeding;

(2)   A witness to a criminal or delinquent act by reason of the person being a witness to that act;

(3)   An attorney by reason of the attorney’s involvement in any criminal or delinquent child action or proceeding.

(C)  Division (A) of this section does not apply to any person who is attempting to resolve a dispute pertaining to the alleged commission of a criminal offense, either prior to or subsequent to the filing of a complaint, indictment, or information by participating in the arbitration, mediation, compromise, settlement or conciliation of that dispute pursuant to an authorization for arbitration, mediation, compromise, settlement, or conciliation of a dispute of that nature that is conferred by any of the following:

(1)   A section of the Ohio Revised Code.

(2)   The Rules of Criminal Procedure, the Rules of Superintendence for Municipal Courts and County Courts, the Rules of Superintendence for Courts of Common Pleas, or another rule adopted by the Ohio Supreme Court in accordance with Ohio Constitution, Article IV, Section 5.

(3)   A local rule of court, including but not limited to a local rule of court that relates to alternative dispute resolution or other case management programs and that authorizes the referral of disputes pertaining to the alleged commission of certain types of criminal offenses to appropriate and available arbitration, mediation, compromise, settlement or other conciliation programs.

(4)   The order of a judge of a municipal court, county court, or court of common pleas.

(D)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of intimidation of an attorney, victim or witness in a criminal case. A violation of division (A) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. A violation of division (B) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(E)  As used in this section, WITNESS means any person who has or claims to have knowledge concerning a fact or facts concerning a criminal or delinquent act, whether or not criminal or delinquent child charges are actually filed.

(R.C. §2921.04)

Statutory reference:

Retaliation, felony offense, see R.C. § 2921.05

§ 136.22  USING SHAM LEGAL PROCESS.

(A)  As used in this section:

LAWFULLY ISSUED. Means adopted, issued, or rendered in accordance with the United States Constitution, the Constitution of a state, and the applicable statutes, rules, regulations and ordinances of the United States, a state, and the political subdivisions of a state.

POLITICAL SUBDIVISIONS. Means municipal corporations, townships, counties, school districts, and all other bodies corporate and politic that are organized under state law and are responsible for governmental activities only in geographical areas smaller than that of a state.

SHAM LEGAL PROCESS. Means an instrument that meets all of the following conditions:

(a)   It is not lawfully issued.

(b)   It purports to do any of the following:

  1. To be a summons, subpoena, judgment, or order of a court, a law enforcement officer, or a legislative, executive or administrative body.
  1. To assert jurisdiction over or determine the legal or equitable status, rights, duties, powers, or privileges of any person or property.
  1. To require or authorize the search, seizure, indictment, arrest, trial, or sentencing of any person or property.

(c)   It is designed to make another person believe that it is lawfully issued.

STATE. Means a state of the United States, including without limitation the state legislature, the highest court of the state that has statewide jurisdiction, the offices of all elected state officers, and all departments, boards, offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, and other instrumentalities of the state. The term does not include the political subdivisions of the state.

(B)  No person shall, knowing the sham legal process to be a sham legal process, do any of the following:

(1)   Knowingly issue, display, deliver, distribute, or otherwise use sham legal process.

(2)   Knowingly use sham legal process to arrest, detain, search or seize any person or the property of another person.

(3)   Knowingly commit or facilitate the commission of an offense using sham legal process.

(4)   Knowingly commit a felony by using sham legal process.

(C)  It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (B)(1) or (B)(2) of this section that the use of sham legal process was for a lawful purpose.

(D)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of using sham legal process. A violation of division (B)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. A violation of division (B)(2) or (B)(3) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree, except that if the purpose of a violation of division (B)(3) of this section is to commit or facilitate the commission of a felony, a violation of division (B)(3) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. A violation of division (B)(4) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2921.52(A) – (D))

Statutory reference:

Civil liability, see R.C. § 2921.52(E)

§ 136.23  MAKING FALSE ALLEGATION OF PEACE OFFICER MISCONDUCT.

(A)  As used in this section, PEACE OFFICER has the same meaning as in R.C. §2935.01.

(B)  No person shall knowingly file a complaint against a peace officer that alleges that the peace officer engaged in misconduct in the performance of the officer’s duties if the person knows that the allegation is false.

(C)  Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of making a false allegation of peace officer misconduct, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2921.15)

§ 136.24  FAILURE TO DISCLOSE PERSONAL INFORMATION.

(A)  No person who is in a public place shall refuse to disclose the person’s name, address, or date of birth, when requested by a law enforcement officer who reasonably suspects either of the following:

(1)   The person is committing, has committed, or is about to commit a criminal offense.

(2)   The person witnessed any of the following:

(a)   An offense of violence that would constitute a felony under the laws of this state;

(b)   A felony offense that causes or results in, or creates a substantial risk of, serious physical harm to another person or property;

(c)   Any attempt or conspiracy to commit, or complicity in committing, any offenses identified in division (A)(2)(a) or (A)(2)(b) of this section;

(d)   Any conduct reasonably indicating that any offense identified in division (A)(2)(a) or (A)(2)(b) of this section or any attempt, conspiracy, or complicity described in division (A)(2)(c) of this section has been, is being, or is about to be committed.

(B)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of failure to disclose one’s personal information, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(C)  Nothing in division (A) of this section requires a person to answer any questions beyond that person’s name, address, or date of birth. Nothing in division (A) of this section authorizes a law enforcement officer to arrest a person for not providing any information beyond the person’s name, address, or date of birth or for refusing to describe the offense observed.

(D)  It is not a violation of division (A) of this section to refuse to answer a question that would reveal a person’s age or date of birth if age is an element of the crime that the person is suspected of committing.

(R.C. §2921.29)

(E)  No person entering an airport, train station, port, or other similar critical transportation infrastructure site shall refuse to show identification when requested by a law enforcement officer when there is a threat to security and the law enforcement officer is requiring identification of all persons entering the site.

(F)   A law enforcement officer may prevent any person who refuses to show identification when asked under the circumstances described in division (E) of this section from entering the critical transportation infrastructure site.

(R.C. §2909.31)

CHAPTER 137: WEAPONS CONTROL

Section

137.01   Definitions
137.02   Possessing or carrying weapons in parks
137.03   Pointing and discharging firearms and other weapons
137.04   Using weapons while intoxicated
137.05   Possessing criminal tools
137.06   Carrying concealed weapons
137.07   Improperly handling firearms in a motor vehicle
137.08   Failure to secure dangerous ordnance
137.09   Unlawful transactions in weapons
137.10   Underage purchase of firearm or handgun
137.11   License or permit to possess dangerous ordnance
137.12   Possession of an object indistinguishable from a firearm in a school safety zone
137.13   Possession of deadly weapon while under detention
137.14   Concealed handgun licenses; possession of a revoked or suspended license; additional restrictions; posting of signs prohibiting possession
137.15   Defaced firearms

Statutory reference:

Return of surrendered firearms by law enforcement, see R.C. § 2923.163

§ 137.01  DEFINITIONS.

For the purpose of this chapter, the following definitions shall apply unless the context clearly indicates or requires a different meaning.

ACTIVE DUTY. Has the same meaning as defined in 10 U.S.C. §101.

ALIEN REGISTRATION NUMBER. The number issued by the United States Citizenship and Immigration Services Agency that is located on the alien’s permanent resident card and may also be commonly referred to as the AUSCIS number@ or the Aalien number@.

AUTOMATIC FIREARM. Any firearm designed or specially adapted to fire a succession of cartridges with a single function of the trigger.

BALLISTIC KNIFE. A knife with a detachable blade that is propelled by a spring-operated mechanism.

CONCEALED HANDGUN LICENSE or LICENSE TO CARRY A CONCEALED HANDGUN.

(1)   Means, subject to division (2) of this definition, a license or temporary emergency license to carry a concealed handgun issued under R.C. §2923.125 or R.C. §2923.1213 or a license to carry a concealed handgun issued by another state with which the Attorney General has entered into a reciprocity agreement under R.C. §109.69.

(2)   A reference in any provision of this Code to a concealed handgun license issued under R.C. §2923.125 or a license to carry a concealed handgun issued under R.C. §2923.125 means only a license of the type that is specified in that section. A reference in any provision of this Code to a concealed handgun license issued under R.C. §2923.1213, a license to carry a concealed handgun issued under R.C. §2923.1213, or a license to carry a concealed handgun on a temporary emergency basis means only a license of the type that is specified in R.C. §2923.1213. A reference in any provision of this Code to a concealed handgun license issued by another state or a license to carry a concealed handgun issued by another state means only a license issued by another state with which the Attorney General has entered into a reciprocity agreement under R.C. §109.69.

DANGEROUS ORDNANCE.

(1)   Any of the following, except as provided in division (2) of this definition:

(a)   Any automatic or sawed-off firearm, zip-gun, or ballistic knife.

(b)   Any explosive device or incendiary device.

(c)   Nitroglycerin, nitrocellulose, nitrostarch, PETN, cyclonite, TNT, picric acid, and other high explosives; amatol, tritonal, tetrytol, pentolite, pecretol, cyclotol, and other high explosive compositions; plastic explosives; dynamite, blasting gelatin, gelatin dynamite, sensitized ammonium nitrate, liquid-oxygen blasting explosives, blasting powder, and other blasting agents; and any other explosive substance having sufficient brisance or power to be particularly suitable for use as a military explosive, or for use in mining, quarrying, excavating, or demolitions.

(d)   Any firearm, rocket launcher, mortar, artillery piece, grenade, mine, bomb, torpedo, or similar weapon, designed and manufactured for military purposes, and the ammunition for that weapon.

(e)   Any firearm muffler or suppressor.

(f)   Any combination of parts that is intended by the owner for use in converting any firearm or other device into a dangerous ordnance.

(2)   The term does not include any of the following:

(a)   Any firearm, including a military weapon and the ammunition for that weapon, and regardless of its actual age, that employs a percussion cap or other obsolete ignition system, or that is designed and safe for use only with black powder.

(b)   Any pistol, rifle, or shotgun, designed or suitable for sporting purposes, including a military weapon as issued or as modified, and the ammunition for that weapon, unless the firearm is an automatic or sawed-off firearm.

(c)   Any cannon or other artillery piece that, regardless of its actual age, is of a type in accepted use prior to 1887, has no mechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic, or other system for absorbing recoil and returning the tube into battery without displacing the carriage, and is designed and safe for use only with black powder.

(d)   Black powder, priming quills, and percussion caps possessed and lawfully used to fire a cannon of a type defined in division (2)(c) of this definition during displays, celebrations, organized matches or shoots, and target practice, and smokeless and black powder, primers, and percussion caps possessed and lawfully used as a propellant or ignition device in small-arms or small-arms ammunition.

(e)   Dangerous ordnance that is inoperable or inert and cannot readily be rendered operable or activated, and that is kept as a trophy, souvenir, curio, or museum piece.

(f)   Any device that is expressly excepted from the definition of a destructive device pursuant to the Gun Control Act of 1968, 18 U.S.C. §921(a)(4), as amended, and regulations issued under that act.

(g)   Any firearm with an overall length of at least 26 inches that is approved for sale by the Federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives under the AGun Control Act of 1968@, 82 Stat. 1213, 18 U.S.C. §921(a)(3), but that is found by the Bureau not to be regulated under the ANational Firearms Act@, 68A Stat. 725 (1934), 26 U.S.C. §5845(a).

DEADLY WEAPON. Any instrument, device, or thing capable of inflicting death, and designed or specially adapted for use as a weapon, or possessed, carried, or used as a weapon.

EXPLOSIVE. Any chemical compound, mixture, or device, the primary or common purpose of which is to function by explosion. The term includes all materials that have been classified as division 1.1, division 1.2, division 1.3, or division 1.4 explosives by the United States Department of Transportation in its regulations and includes but is not limited to dynamite, black powder, pellet powders, initiating explosives, blasting caps, electric blasting caps, safety fuses, fuse igniters, squibs, cordeau detonant fuses, instantaneous fuses, and igniter cords and igniters. The term does not include Afireworks@, as defined in R.C. §3743.01, or any substance or material otherwise meeting the definition of explosive set forth in this section that is manufactured, sold, possessed, transported, stored, or used in any activity described in R.C. §3743.80, provided the activity is conducted in accordance with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations, including but not limited to the provisions of R.C. §3743.80 and the rules of the Fire Marshal adopted pursuant to R.C. §3737.82.

EXPLOSIVE DEVICE. Any device designed or specially adapted to cause physical harm to persons or property by means of an explosion, and consisting of an explosive substance or agency and a means to detonate it. The term includes without limitation any bomb, any explosive demolition device, any blasting cap or detonator containing an explosive charge, and any pressure vessel that has been knowingly tampered with or arranged so as to explode.

FIREARM.

(1)   Any deadly weapon capable of expelling or propelling one or more projectiles by the action of an explosive or combustible propellant. The term includes an unloaded firearm, and any firearm that is inoperable but that can readily be rendered operable.

(2)   When determining whether a firearm is capable of expelling or propelling one or more projectiles by the action of an explosive or combustible propellant, the trier of fact may rely upon circumstantial evidence, including but not limited to the representations and actions of the individual exercising control over the firearm.

HANDGUN. Any of the following:

(1)   Any firearm that has a short stock and is designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand;

(2)   Any combination of parts from which a firearm of a type described in division (1) of this definition can be assembled.

INCENDIARY DEVICE. Any firebomb, and any device designed or specially adapted to cause physical harm to persons or property by means of fire, and consisting of an incendiary substance or agent and a means to ignite it.

MISDEMEANOR PUNISHABLE BY IMPRISONMENT FOR A TERM EXCEEDING ONE YEAR. The phrase does not include any of the following:

(1)   Any federal or state offense pertaining to antitrust violations, unfair trade practices, restraints of trade, or other similar offenses relating to the regulation of business practices;

(2)   Any misdemeanor offense punishable by a term of imprisonment of two years or less.

SAWED-OFF FIREARM. A shotgun with a barrel less than 18 inches long, or a rifle with a barrel less than 16 inches long, or a shotgun or rifle less than 26 inches long overall. ASawed-off firearm@ does not include any firearm with an overall length of at least 26 inches that is approved for sale by the Federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives under the AGun Control Act of 1968@, 82 Stat. 1213, 18 U.S.C. §921(a)(3), but that is found by the Bureau not to be regulated under the ANational Firearms Act@, 68A Stat. 725 (1934), 26 U.S.C. §5845(a).

SEMI-AUTOMATIC FIREARM. Any firearm designed or specially adapted to fire a single cartridge and automatically chamber a succeeding cartridge ready to fire, with a single function of the trigger.

VALID CONCEALED HANDGUN LICENSE or VALID LICENSE TO CARRY A CONCEALED HANDGUN. A concealed handgun license that is currently valid, that is not under a suspension under R.C. §2923.128(A)(1), under R.C. §2923.1213, or under a suspension provision of the state other than this state in which the license was issued, and that has not been revoked under R.C. §2923.128(B)(1), under R.C. §2923.1213, or under a revocation provision of the state other than this state in which the license was issued.

ZIP-GUN. Any of the following:

(1)   Any firearm of crude and extemporized manufacture.

(2)   Any device, including without limitation a starter’s pistol, not designed as a firearm, but that is specially adapted for use as a firearm.

(3)   Any industrial tool, signaling device, or safety device, not designed as a firearm, but that as designed is capable of use as such, when possessed, carried, or used as a firearm.

(R.C. §2923.11)

§ 137.02  POSSESSING OR CARRYING WEAPONS IN PARKS.

(A)  No person in a park, except peace officers, shall have, in his or her possession, any switchblade, hunting knife, dagger or other bladed instrument, metal knuckles, slingshot, or other dangerous weapon.

(B)  No person, except peace officers and those authorized to carry concealed weapons under R.C. §2923.12, shall carry on or about his or her person, knives, bows and arrows, crossbows, air or gas guns, missiles, slingshots, or other missile‑throwing devices, except that bows and arrows may be carried in areas designated by the Chief Executive Officer for their use.

(C)  Bows and arrows, knives, air or gas guns, missiles, slingshots, or other missile‑throwing devices or any snares or traps brought into a park may be confiscated by peace officers.

(Prior Code, §137.01)  (Rules and Regs. §§6.7, 9)

§ 137.03  POINTING AND DISCHARGING FIREARMS AND OTHER WEAPONS.

(A)  Discharge of firearms on or near prohibited premises. No person shall do any of the following:

(1)   Without permission from the proper officials and subject to division (B)(1) of this section, discharge a firearm upon or over a cemetery or within 100 yards of a cemetery;

(2)   Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, discharge of a firearm on a lawn, park, pleasure ground, orchard, or other ground appurtenant to a schoolhouse, church, or inhabited dwelling, the property of another, or a charitable institution;

(3)   Discharge a firearm upon or over a public road or highway.

(B)  Application of division (A).

(1)   Division (A)(1) of this section does not apply to a person who while on the person’s own land, discharges a firearm.

(2)   Division (A)(2) of this section does not apply to a person who owns any type of property described in that division and who, while on the person’s own enclosure, discharges a firearm.

(C)  Penalty for violation of division (A). Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of discharge of a firearm on or near prohibited premises. A violation of division (A)(1) or (A)(2) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. A violation of division (A)(3) shall be punished as follows:

(1)   Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of this section, a violation of division (A)(3) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(2)   If the violation created a substantial risk of physical harm to any person, caused serious physical harm to property, caused physical harm to any person, or caused serious physical harm to any person, a violation of division (A)(3) is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2923.162)

(D)  Hunting near township park.

(1)   No person shall hunt, shoot, or kill game within one-half mile of a township park unless the Board of Township Park Commissioners has granted permission to kill game not desired within the limits prohibited by this division.

(R.C. §3773.06)

(2)   Whoever violates division (D)(1) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(R.C. §3773.99(A))

(E)  Unlawful discharge. No person shall discharge any BB gun, air gun, or firearm, or make use of any sling, bow and arrow, or crossbow, within the corporate limits of the municipality.

(F)   Unlawful pointing or aiming. No person shall, intentionally and without malice, point or aim any BB gun, air gun, or firearm, or any sling, bow and arrow, or crossbow at or toward another.

(G)  Discharge of firearm, air or gas gun. No person shall discharge in or into a park any firearm or air or gas gun.

(Rules and Regs. §9.1)

(H)  Penalty for violations of division (E) or (F). Whoever violates division (E) or (F) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(I)   Exceptions. This section shall not prohibit the firing of a military salute or the firing of weapons by persons of the nation’s armed forces acting under military authority, and shall not apply to law enforcement officials or other government officials in the proper enforcement of the law, or to any person in the proper exercise of the right of self defense, or to any person otherwise lawfully permitted by proper federal, state or local authorities to discharge a BB gun, air gun, or firearm, or to use a sling, bow and arrow, or crossbow in a manner contrary to the provisions of this section. Division (E) of this section does not extend to cases in which BB guns, air guns, or firearms, or slings, bows and arrows, or crossbows are used in the confines of structures or used within the confines of a person’s own property, provided such use is under adult supervision and is approved by the municipality.

(Prior Code, §137.02)

Statutory reference:

Improperly discharging firearm at or into habitation or school safety zone, felony offense, see

  R.C. § 2923.161

§ 137.04  USING WEAPONS WHILE INTOXICATED.

(A)  No person, while under the influence of alcohol or any drug of abuse, shall carry or use any firearm or dangerous ordnance.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of using weapons while intoxicated, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2923.15)  (Prior Code, §137.03)

§ 137.05  POSSESSING CRIMINAL TOOLS.

(A)  No person shall possess or have under his or her control any substance, device, instrument, or article, with purpose to use it criminally.

(B)  Each of the following constitutes prima facie evidence of criminal purpose:

(1)   Possession or control of any dangerous ordnance, or the materials or parts for making a dangerous ordnance, in the absence of circumstances indicating the dangerous ordnance, materials or parts are intended for a legitimate use.

(2)   Possession or control of any substance, device, instrument, or article designed or specially adapted for criminal use.

(3)   Possession or control of any substance, device, instrument, or article commonly used for criminal purposes, under circumstances indicating the item is intended for criminal use.

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of possessing criminal tools. Except as otherwise provided in this division, possessing criminal tools is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the circumstances indicate that the substance, device, instrument, or article involved in the offense was intended for use in the commission of a felony, possessing criminal tools is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(R.C. §2923.24)  (Prior Code, §137.04)

§ 137.06  CARRYING CONCEALED WEAPONS.

(A)  No person shall knowingly carry or have, concealed on the person’s person or concealed ready at hand, any of the following:

(1)   A deadly weapon other than a handgun;

(2)   A handgun other than a dangerous ordnance;

(3)   A dangerous ordnance.

(B)  No person who has been issued a concealed handgun license shall do any of the following:

(1)   If the person is stopped for a law enforcement purpose and is carrying a concealed handgun, before or at the time a law enforcement officer asks if the person is carrying a concealed handgun, knowingly fail to disclose that the person then is carrying a concealed handgun, provided that it is not a violation of this division if the person fails to disclose that fact to an officer during the stop and the person already has notified another officer of that fact during the same stop;

(2)   If the person is stopped for a law enforcement purpose and is carrying a concealed handgun, knowingly fail to keep the person’s hands in plain sight at any time after any law enforcement officer begins approaching the person while stopped and before the law enforcement officer leaves, unless the failure is pursuant to and in accordance with directions given by a law enforcement officer;

(3)   If the person is stopped for a law enforcement purpose, if the person is carrying a concealed handgun, and if the person is approached by any law enforcement officer while stopped, knowingly remove or attempt to remove the loaded handgun from the holster, pocket, or other place in which the person is carrying it, knowingly grasp or hold the loaded handgun, or knowingly have contact with the loaded handgun by touching it with the person’s hands or fingers at any time after the law enforcement officer begins approaching and before the law enforcement officer leaves, unless the person removes, attempts to remove, grasps, holds, or has contact with the loaded handgun pursuant to and in accordance with directions given by the law enforcement officer;

(4)   If the person is stopped for a law enforcement purpose and is carrying a concealed handgun, knowingly disregard or fail to comply with any lawful order of any law enforcement officer given while the person is stopped, including but not limited to a specific order to the person to keep the person’s hands in plain sight.

(C)  (1)   This section does not apply to any of the following:

(a)   An officer, agent, or employee of this or any other state or the United States, or to a law enforcement officer, who is authorized to carry concealed weapons or dangerous ordnance or is authorized to carry handguns and is acting within the scope of the officer’s, agent’s, or employee’s duties;

(b)   Any person who is employed in this state, who is authorized to carry concealed weapons or dangerous ordnance or is authorized to carry handguns, and who is subject to and in compliance with the requirements of R.C. §109.801, unless the appointing authority of the person has expressly specified that the exemption provided in this division (C)(1)(b) does not apply to the person;

(c)   A person’s transportation or storage of a firearm, other than a firearm described in R.C. §2923.11(G) to (M), in a motor vehicle for any lawful purpose if the firearm is not on the actor’s person;

(d)   A person’s storage or possession of a firearm, other than a firearm described in R.C. §2923.11(G) to (M), in the actor’s own home for any lawful purpose.

(2)   Division (A)(2) of this section does not apply to any person who has been issued a concealed handgun license that is valid at the time of the alleged carrying or possession of a handgun or who, at the time of the alleged carrying or possession of a handgun, is an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States and is carrying a valid military identification card and documentation of successful completion of firearms training that meets or exceeds the training requirements described in R.C. §2923.125(G)(1), unless the person knowingly is in a place described in R.C. §2923.126(B).

(D)  It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (A)(1) of this section of carrying or having control of a weapon other than a handgun and other than a dangerous ordnance, that the actor was not otherwise prohibited by law from having the weapon, and that any of the following applies:

(1)   The weapon was carried or kept ready at hand by the actor for defensive purposes, while the actor was engaged in or was going to or from the actor’s lawful business or occupation, which business or occupation was of a character or was necessarily carried on in a manner or at a time or place as to render the actor particularly susceptible to criminal attack, such as would justify a prudent person in going armed.

(2)   The weapon was carried or kept ready at hand by the actor for defensive purposes, while the actor was engaged in a lawful activity and had reasonable cause to fear a criminal attack upon the actor, a member of the actor’s family, or the actor’s home, such as would justify a prudent person in going armed.

(3)   The weapon was carried or kept ready at hand by the actor for any lawful purpose and while in the actor’s own home.

(E)  (1)   No person who is charged with a violation of this section shall be required to obtain a concealed handgun license as a condition for the dismissal of the charge.

(2)   If a person is convicted of, was convicted of, pleads guilty to, or has pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B)(1) of this section as it existed prior to June 13, 2022, the person may file an application under R.C. §2953.35 requesting the expungement of the record of conviction.

(F)   (1)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of carrying concealed weapons. Except as otherwise provided in this division or divisions (F)(2), (F)(6), and (F)(7) of this section, carrying concealed weapons in violation of division (A) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. Except as otherwise provided in this division or divisions (F)(2), (F)(6), and (F)(7) of this section, if the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance or of any offense of violence, if the weapon involved is a firearm that is either loaded or for which the offender has ammunition ready at hand, or if the weapon involved is dangerous ordnance, carrying concealed weapons in violation of division (A) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. Except as otherwise provided in divisions (F)(2), (F)(6), and (F)(7) of this section, if the offense is committed aboard an aircraft, or with purpose to carry a concealed weapon aboard an aircraft, regardless of the weapon involved, carrying concealed weapons in violation of division (A) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   A person shall not be arrested for a violation of division (A)(2) of this section solely because the person does not promptly produce a valid concealed handgun license. If a person is arrested for a violation of division (A)(2) of this section and is convicted of or pleads guilty to the violation, the offender shall be punished as follows:

(a)   The offender shall be guilty of a minor misdemeanor if both of the following apply:

  1. Within 10 days after the arrest, the offender presents a concealed handgun license, which license was valid at the time of the arrest to the law enforcement agency that employs the arresting officer.
  1. At the time of the arrest, the offender was not knowingly in a place described in R.C. §2923.126(B).

(b)   The offender shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be fined $500 if all of the following apply:

  1. The offender previously had been issued a concealed handgun license, and that license expired within the two years immediately preceding the arrest.
  1. Within 45 days after the arrest, the offender presents a concealed handgun license to the law enforcement agency that employed the arresting officer, and the offender waives in writing the offender’s right to a speedy trial on the charge of the violation that is provided in R.C. §2945.71.
  1. At the time of the commission of the offense, the offender was not knowingly in a place described in R.C. §2923.126(B).

(c)   If divisions (F)(2)(a) and (F)(2)(b) and (F)(6) of this section do not apply, the offender shall be punished under division (F)(1) or (F)(7) of this section.

(3)   Carrying concealed weapons in violation of division (B)(1) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(4)   Carrying concealed weapons in violation of division (B)(2) or (B)(4) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree or, if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B)(2) or (B)(4) of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. In addition to any other penalty or sanction imposed for a misdemeanor violation of division (B)(2) or (B)(4) of this section, the offender’s concealed handgun license shall be suspended pursuant to R.C. §2923.128(A)(2).

(5)   Carrying concealed weapons in violation of division (B)(3) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(6)   If a person being arrested for a violation of division (A)(2) of this section is an active duty m ember of the armed forces of the United States and is carrying a valid military identification card and documentation of successful completion of firearms training that meets or exceeds the training requirements described in R.C. §2923.125(G)(1), and if at the time of the violation the person was not knowingly in a place described in R.C. 2923.126(B), the officer shall not arrest the person for a violation of that division. If the person is not able to promptly produce a valid military identification card and documentation of successful completion of firearms training that meets or exceeds the training requirements described in R.C. §2923.125(G)(1) and if the person is not in a place described in R.C. §2923.126(B), the officer shall issue a citation and the offender shall be assessed a civil penalty of not more than $500. The citation shall be automatically dismissed and the civil penalty shall not be assessed if both of the following apply:

(a)   Within ten days after the issuance of the citation, the offender presents a valid military identification card and documentation of successful completion of firearms training that meets or exceeds the training requirements described in R.C. §2923.125(G)(1), which were both valid at the time of the issuance of the citation to the law enforcement agency that employs the citing officer.

(b)   At the time of the citation, the offender was not knowingly in a place described in R.C. §2923.126(B).

(7)   If a person being arrested for a violation of division (A)(2) of this section is knowingly in a place described in R.C. §2923.126(B)(5) and is not authorized to carry a handgun or have a handgun concealed on the person’s person or concealed ready at hand under that division, the penalty shall be as follows:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the person produces a valid concealed handgun license within ten days after the arrest and has not previously been convicted or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A)(2) of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, the person is guilty of a minor misdemeanor;

(b)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the person has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A)(2) of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, the person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree;

(c)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the person has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two violations of division (A)(2) of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, the person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree;

(d)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the person has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or more violations of division (A)(2) of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, or convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense of violence, if the weapon involved is a firearm that is either loaded or for which the offender has ammunition ready at hand, or if the weapon involved is a dangerous ordnance, the person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(G)  If a law enforcement officer stops a person to question the person regarding a possible violation of this section, for a traffic stop, or for any other law enforcement purpose, if the person surrenders a firearm to the officer, either voluntarily or pursuant to a request or demand of the officer, and if the officer does not charge the person with a violation of this section or arrest the person for any offense, the person is not otherwise prohibited by law from possessing the firearm, and the firearm is not contraband, the officer shall return the firearm to the person at the termination of the stop. If a court orders a law enforcement officer to return a firearm to a person pursuant to the requirement set forth in this division, R.C. §2923.163(B) applies.

(H)  For purposes of this section, Adeadly weapon@ or Aweapon@ does not include any knife, razor, or cutting instrument if the instrument was not used as a weapon.

(R.C. §2923.12)

Statutory reference:

Carrying concealed handguns, licensing through county sheriff, see R.C. §§ 2923.124 et seq.

Concealed carry by a qualifying adult, see R.C. § 2923.111

Conveyance or possession of deadly weapons or dangerous ordnance on school premises, felony

  offense, see R.C. § 2923.122

Conveyance, possession, or control of deadly weapon or dangerous ordinance in a courthouse,

  felony offense, see R.C. § 2923.123

Possession of deadly weapon while under detention, felony offense, see R.C. § 2923.131

Possession of firearm in liquor permit premises, felony offense, see R.C. § 2923.121

§ 137.07  IMPROPERLY HANDLING FIREARMS IN A MOTOR VEHICLE.

(A)  No person shall knowingly discharge a firearm while in or on a motor vehicle.

(B)  No person shall knowingly transport or have a loaded firearm in a motor vehicle in such a manner that the firearm is accessible to the operator or any passenger without leaving the vehicle.

(C)  No person shall knowingly transport or have a firearm in a motor vehicle, unless the person may lawfully possess that firearm under applicable law of this state or the United States, the firearm is unloaded, and the firearm is carried in one of the following ways:

(1)   In a closed package, box, or case.

(2)   In a compartment that can be reached only by leaving the vehicle.

(3)   In plain sight and secured in a rack or holder made for the purpose.

(4)   If the firearm is at least 24 inches in overall length as measured from the muzzle to the part of the stock furthest from the muzzle and if the barrel is at least 18 inches in length, either in plain sight with the action open or the weapon stripped, or, if the firearm is of a type on which the action will not stay open or which cannot easily be stripped, in plain sight.

(D)  No person shall knowingly transport or have a loaded handgun in a motor vehicle if, at the time of that transportation or possession, any of the following applies:

(1)   The person is under the influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or a combination of them.

(2)   The person’s whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine contains a concentration of alcohol, a listed controlled substance, or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance prohibited for persons operating a vehicle, as specified in R.C. §4511.19(A), regardless of whether the person at the time of the transportation or possession as described in this division is the operator of or a passenger in the motor vehicle.

(E)  No person who has been issued a concealed handgun license or who is an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States and is carrying a valid military identification card and documentation of successful completion of firearms training that meets or exceeds the training requirements described in R.C. §2923.125(G)(1), who is the driver or an occupant of a motor vehicle that is stopped as a result of a traffic stop or a stop for another law enforcement purpose or is the driver or an occupant of a commercial motor vehicle that is stopped by an employee of the motor carrier enforcement unit for the purposes defined in R.C. §5503.34, and who is transporting or has a loaded handgun in the motor vehicle or commercial motor vehicle in any manner, shall do any of the following:

(1)   Before or at the time a law enforcement officer asks if the person is carrying a concealed handgun, knowingly fail to disclose that the person then possesses or has a loaded handgun in the motor vehicle, provided that it is not a violation of this division if the person fails to disclose that fact to an officer during the stop and the person already has notified another officer of that fact during the same stop;

(2)   Before or at the time an employee of the motor carrier enforcement unit asks if the person is carrying a concealed handgun, knowingly fail to disclose that the person then possesses or has a loaded handgun in the commercial motor vehicle, provided that it is not a violation of this division if the person fails to disclose that fact to an employee of the unit during the stop and the person already has notified another employee of the unit of that fact during the same stop;

(3)   Knowingly fail to remain in the motor vehicle while stopped, or knowingly fail to keep the person’s hands in plain sight at any time after any law enforcement officer begins approaching the person while stopped and before the law enforcement officer leaves, unless the failure is pursuant to and in accordance with directions given by a law enforcement officer;

(4)   Knowingly have contact with the loaded handgun by touching it with the person’s hands or fingers in the motor vehicle at any time after the law enforcement officer begins approaching and before the law enforcement officer leaves, unless the person has contact with the loaded handgun pursuant to and in accordance with directions given by the law enforcement officer.

(5)   Knowingly disregard or fail to comply with any lawful order of any law enforcement officer given while the motor vehicle is stopped, including but not limited to a specific order to the person to keep the person’s hands in plain sight.

(F)   (1)   Divisions (A), (B), (C), and (E) of this section do not apply to any of the following:

(a)   An officer, agent, or employee of this or any other state or the United States, or a law enforcement officer, when authorized to carry or have loaded or accessible firearms in motor vehicles and acting within the scope of the officer’s, agent’s, or employee’s duties;

(b)   Any person who is employed in this state, who is authorized to carry or have loaded or accessible firearms in motor vehicles, and who is subject to and in compliance with the requirements of R.C. §109.801, unless the appointing authority of the person has expressly specified that the exemption provided in this division (F)(1)(b) does not apply to the person.

(2)   Division (A) of this section does not apply to a person if all of the following circumstances apply:

(a)   The person discharges a firearm from a motor vehicle at a coyote or groundhog, the discharge is not during the deer gun hunting season as set by the Chief of the Division of Wildlife of the Department of Natural Resources, and the discharge at the coyote or groundhog, but for the operation of this section, is lawful.

(b)   The motor vehicle from which the person discharges the firearm is on real property that is located in an unincorporated area of a township and that is either zoned for agriculture or is used for agriculture.

(c)   The person owns the real property described in division (F)(2)(b) of this section, is the spouse or a child of another person who owns that real property, is a tenant of another person who owns that real property, or is the spouse or a child of a tenant of another person who owns that real property.

(d)   The person does not discharge the firearm in any of the following manners:

  1. While under the influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or alcohol and a drug of abuse;
  1. In the direction of a street, highway or other public or private property used by the public for vehicular traffic or parking;
  1. At or into an occupied structure that is a permanent or temporary habitation;
  1. In the commission of any violation of law, including but not limited to a felony that includes, as an essential element, purposely or knowingly causing or attempting to cause the death of or physical harm to another and that was committed by discharging a firearm from a motor vehicle.

(3)   Division (A) of this section does not apply to a person if all of the following apply:

(a)   The person possesses a valid all-purpose vehicle permit issued under R.C. §1533.103 by the Chief of the Division of Wildlife.

(b)   The person discharges a firearm at a wild quadruped or game bird as defined in R.C. §1531.01 during the open hunting season for the applicable wild quadruped or game bird.

(c)   The person discharges a firearm from a stationary all-purpose vehicle as defined in R.C. §1531.01 from private or publicly owned lands or from a motor vehicle that is parked on a road that is owned or administered by the Division of Wildlife.

(d)   The person does not discharge the firearm in any of the following manners:

  1. While under the influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or alcohol and a drug of abuse;
  1. In the direction of a street, a highway, or other public or private property that is used by the public for vehicular traffic or parking;
  1. At or into an occupied structure that is a permanent or temporary habitation;
  1. In the commission of any violation of law, including but not limited to a felony that includes, as an essential element, purposely or knowingly causing or attempting to cause the death of or physical harm to another and that was committed by discharging a firearm from a motor vehicle.

(4)   Divisions (B) and (C) of this section do not apply to a person if all of the following circumstances apply:

(a)   At the time of the alleged violation of either of those divisions, the person is the operator of or a passenger in a motor vehicle.

(b)   The motor vehicle is on real property that is located in an unincorporated area of a township and that is either zoned for agriculture or is used for agriculture.

(c)   The person owns the real property described in division (F)(4)(b) of this section, is the spouse or a child of another person who owns that real property, is a tenant of another person who owns that real property, or is the spouse or a child of a tenant of another person who owns that real property.

(d)   The person, prior to arriving at the real property described in division (F)(4)(b) of this section, did not transport or possess a firearm in the motor vehicle in a manner prohibited by division (B) or (C) of this section while the motor vehicle was being operated on a street, highway or other public or private property used by the public for vehicular traffic or parking.

(5)   Divisions (B) and (C) of this section do not apply to a person who transports or possesses a handgun in a motor vehicle if, at the time of that transportation or possession, both of the following apply:

(a)   The person transporting or possessing the handgun has been issued a concealed handgun license that is valid at the time in question or the person is an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States and is carrying a valid military identification card and documentation of successful completion of firearms training that meets or exceeds the training requirements described in R.C. §2923.125(G)(1).

(b)   The person transporting or possessing the handgun is not knowingly in a place described in R.C. §2923.126(B).

(6)   Divisions (B) and (C) of this section do not apply to a person if all of the following apply:

(a)   The person possesses a valid all-purpose vehicle permit issued under R.C. §1533.103 by the Chief of the Division of Wildlife.

(b)   The person is on or in an all-purpose vehicle as defined in R.C. §1531.01 or a motor vehicle during the open hunting season for a wild quadruped or game bird.

(c)   The person is on or in an all-purpose vehicle as defined in R.C. §1531.01 on private or publicly owned lands or on or in a motor vehicle that is parked on a road that is owned or administered by the Division of Wildlife.

(G)  (1)   The affirmative defenses authorized in R.C. §2923.12(D)(1) and (D)(2) are affirmative defenses to a charge under division (B) or (C) of this section that involves a firearm other than a handgun.

(2)   It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division (B) or (C) of this section of improperly handling firearms in a motor vehicle that the actor transported or had the firearm in the motor vehicle for any lawful purpose and while the motor vehicle was on the actor’s own property, provided that this affirmative defense is not available unless the person, immediately prior to arriving at the actor’s own property, did not transport or possess the firearm in a motor vehicle in a manner prohibited by division (B) or (C) of this section while the motor vehicle was being operated on a street, highway, or other public or private property used by the public for vehicular traffic.

(H)  (1)   No person who is charged with a violation of division (B), (C), or (D) of this section shall be required to obtain a concealed handgun license as a condition for the dismissal of the charge.

(2)   (a)   If a person is convicted of, was convicted of, pleads guilty to, or has pleaded guilty to a violation of division (E) of this section as it existed prior to September 30, 2011, and the conduct that was the basis of the violation no longer would be a violation of division (E) of this section on or after September 30, 2011, or if a person is convicted of, was convicted of, pleads guilty to, or has pleaded guilty to a violation of division (E)(1) or (E)(2) of this section as it existed prior to June 13, 2022, the person may file an application under R.C. §2953.35 requesting the expungement of the record of conviction.

(b)   If a person is convicted of, was convicted of, pleads guilty to, or has pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B) or (C) of this section as the division existed prior to September 30, 2011, and if the conduct that was the basis of the violation no longer would be a violation of division (B) or (C) of this section on or after September 30, 2011, due to the application of division (F)(5) of this section as it exists on and after September 30, 2011, the person may file an application under R.C. §2953.35 requesting the expungement of the record of conviction.

(I)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of improperly handling firearms in a motor vehicle. A violation of division (A) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. A violation of division (C) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. A violation of division (D) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law and, if the loaded handgun is concealed on the person’s person, it is also a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. A violation of division (E)(1) or (E)(2) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree. A violation of division (E)(4) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. A violation of division (E)(3) or (E)(5) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree or, if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (E)(3) or (E)(5) of this section or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. In addition to any other penalty or sanction imposed for a misdemeanor violation of division (E)(3) or (E)(5) of this section, the offender’s concealed handgun license shall be suspended pursuant to R.C. §2923.128(A)(2). A violation of division (B) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(J)   If a law enforcement officer stops a motor vehicle for a traffic stop or any other purpose, if any person in the motor vehicle surrenders a firearm to the officer, either voluntarily or pursuant to a request or demand of the officer, and if the officer does not charge the person with a violation of this section or arrest the person for any offense, the person is not otherwise prohibited by law from possessing the firearm, and the firearm is not contraband, the officer shall return the firearm to the person at the termination of the stop. If a court orders a law enforcement officer to return a firearm to a person pursuant to the requirement set forth in this division, R.C. §2923.163(B) applies.

(K)  As used in this section:

AGRICULTURE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §519.01.

COMMERCIAL MOTOR VEHICLE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4506.25(A).

HIGHWAY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4511.01.

MOTOR CARRIER ENFORCEMENT UNIT. Means the Motor Carrier Enforcement Unit in the Department of Public Safety, Division of State Highway Patrol, that is created by R.C. §5503.34.

MOTOR VEHICLE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4511.01.

OCCUPIED STRUCTURE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2909.01.

STREET. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4511.01.

TENANT. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §1531.01.

UNLOADED.

(a)   With respect to a firearm other than a firearm described in division (d) of this definition, means that no ammunition is in the firearm in question, no magazine or speed loader containing ammunition is inserted into the firearm, and one of the following applies:

  1. There is no ammunition in a magazine or speed loader that is in the vehicle in question and that may be used with the firearm in question.
  1. Any magazine or speed loader that contains ammunition and that may be used with the firearm in question is stored in a compartment within the vehicle in question that cannot be accessed without leaving the vehicle or is stored in a container that provides complete and separate enclosure.

(b)   For the purposes of division (a)2. of this definition, a Acontainer that provides complete and separate enclosure@ includes, but is not limited to, any of the following:

  1. A package, box, or case with multiple compartments, as long as the loaded magazine or speed loader and the firearm in question either are in separate compartments within the package, box, or case, or, if they are in the same compartment, the magazine or speed loader is contained within a separate enclosure in that compartment that does not contain the firearm and that closes using a snap, button, buckle, zipper, hook and loop closing mechanism, or other fastener that must be opened to access the contents or the firearm is contained within a separate enclosure of that nature in that compartment that does not contain the magazine or speed loader;
  1. A pocket or other enclosure on the person of the person in question that closes using a snap, button, buckle, zipper, hook and loop closing mechanism, or other fastener that must be opened to access the contents.

(c)   For the purposes of divisions (a) and (b) of this definition, ammunition held in stripper‑clips or in en-bloc clips is not considered ammunition that is loaded into a magazine or speed loader.

(d)   AUnloaded@ means, with respect to a firearm employing a percussion cap, flintlock, or other obsolete ignition system, when the weapon is uncapped or when the priming charge is removed from the pan.

(L)  Divisions (a) and (b) of the definition of Aunloaded@ in division (K) of this section do not affect the authority of a person who has been issued a concealed handgun license that is valid at the time in question to have one or more magazines or speed loaders containing ammunition anywhere in a vehicle, without being transported as described in those divisions, as long as no ammunition is in a firearm, other than a handgun, in the vehicle other than as permitted under any other provision of this chapter. A person who has been issued a concealed handgun license that is valid at the time in question may have one or more magazines or speed loaders containing ammunition anywhere in a vehicle without further restriction, as long as no ammunition is in a firearm, other than a handgun, in the vehicle other than as permitted under any provision of this chapter.

(R.C. §2923.16)

Statutory reference:

Return of surrendered firearms by law enforcement, see R.C. § 2923.163

§ 137.08  FAILURE TO SECURE DANGEROUS ORDNANCE.

(A)  No person, in acquiring, possessing, carrying, or using any dangerous ordnance, shall negligently fail to take proper precautions:

(1)   To secure the dangerous ordnance against theft, or against its acquisition or use by any unauthorized or incompetent person.

(2)   To insure the safety of persons and property.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of failure to a secure dangerous ordnance, a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(R.C. §2923.19)

§ 137.09  UNLAWFUL TRANSACTIONS IN WEAPONS.

(A)  No person shall do any of the following:

(1)   Recklessly sell, lend, give or furnish any firearm to any person prohibited by R.C. §2923.13 or 2923.15, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, from acquiring or using any firearm, or recklessly sell, lend, give or furnish any dangerous ordnance to any person prohibited by R.C. §2923.13, 2923.15 or 2923.17, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, from acquiring or using any dangerous ordnance;

(2)   Possess any firearm or dangerous ordnance with purpose to dispose of it in violation of division (A)(1) of this section;

(3)   Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, knowingly solicit, persuade, encourage, or entice a federally licensed firearms dealer or private seller to transfer a firearm or ammunition to any person in a manner prohibited by state or federal law;

(4)   Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, with an intent to deceive, knowingly provide materially false information to a federally licensed firearms dealer or private seller;

(5)   Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, knowingly procure, solicit, persuade, encourage, or entice a person to act in violation of division (A)(3) or (A)(4) of this section;

(6)   When transferring any dangerous ordnance to another, negligently fail to require the transferee to exhibit such identification, license, or permit showing the transferee to be authorized to acquire dangerous ordnance pursuant to R.C. §2923.17, or negligently fail to take a complete record of the transaction and forthwith forward a copy of the record to the sheriff of the county or Safety Director or Police Chief of the municipality where the transaction takes place;

(7)   Knowingly fail to report to law enforcement authorities forthwith the loss or theft of any firearm or dangerous ordnance in the person’s possession and under his or her control.

(B)  Divisions (A)(3), (A)(4), and (A)(5) of this section do not apply to any of the following:

(1)   A law enforcement officer who is acting within the scope of the officer’s duties;

(2)   A person who is acting in accordance with directions given by a law enforcement officer described in division (B)(1) of this section.

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of unlawful transactions in weapons. A violation of division (A)(1), (A)(2), (A)(3), (A)(4), or (A)(5) of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. A violation of division (A)(6) of this section is a misdemeanor of the second degree. A violation of division (A)(7) of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(D)  As used in this section:

AMMUNITION. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2305.401.

FEDERALLY LICENSED FIREARMS DEALER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5502.63.

MATERIALLY FALSE INFORMATION. Means information regarding the transfer of a firearm or ammunition that portrays an illegal transaction as legal or a legal transaction as illegal.

PRIVATE SELLER. Means a person who sells, offers for sale, or transfers a firearm or ammunition and who is not a federally licensed firearms dealer.

(R.C. §2923.20)

§ 137.10  UNDERAGE PURCHASE OF FIREARM OR HANDGUN.

(A)  No person under 18 years of age shall purchase or attempt to purchase a firearm.

(B)  No person under 21 years of age shall purchase or attempt to purchase a handgun; provided, that this division does not apply to the purchase or attempted purchase of a handgun by a person 18 years of age or older and under 21 years of age if either of the following applies:

(1)   The person is a law enforcement officer and has received firearms training approved by the Ohio Peace Officer Training Council or equivalent firearms training.

(2)   The person is an active or reserve member of the armed services of the United States or the Ohio National Guard, or was honorably discharged from military service in the active or reserve armed services of the United States or the Ohio National Guard, and the person has received firearms training from the armed services or the national guard or equivalent firearms training.

(C)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of underage purchase of a firearm, a delinquent act that would be a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law if it could be committed by an adult. Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of underage purchase of a handgun, a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(R.C. §2923.211)

Statutory reference:

Improperly furnishing firearms to a minor, felony, see R.C. § 2923.21

§ 137.11  LICENSE OR PERMIT TO POSSESS DANGEROUS ORDNANCE.

(A)  Upon application to the sheriff of the county or Safety Director or Police Chief of the municipality where the applicant resides or has the applicant’s principal place of business, and upon payment of the fee specified in division (B) of this section, a license or temporary permit shall be issued to qualified applicants to acquire, possess, carry or use a dangerous ordnance for the following purposes:

(1)   Contractors, wreckers, quarriers, mine operators and other persons regularly employing explosives in the course of a legitimate business, with respect to explosives and explosive devices acquired, possessed, carried or used in the course of such business.

(2)   Farmers, with respect to explosives and explosive devices acquired, possessed, carried or used for agricultural purposes on lands farmed by them.

(3)   Scientists, engineers, and instructors, with respect to a dangerous ordnance acquired, possessed, carried or used in the course of bona fide research or instruction.

(4)   Financial institutions and armored car company guards, with respect to automatic firearms lawfully acquired, possessed, carried or used by any such person while acting within the scope of the person’s duties.

(5)   In the discretion of the issuing authority, any responsible person, with respect to a dangerous ordnance lawfully acquired, possessed, carried or used for a legitimate research, scientific, educational, industrial or other proper purpose.

(B)  Application for a license or temporary permit under this section shall be in writing under oath to the sheriff of the county or Safety Director or Police Chief of the municipality where the applicant resides or has the applicant’s principal place of business. The application shall be accompanied by an application fee of $50 when the application is for a license, and an application fee of $5 when the application is for a temporary permit. The fees shall be paid into the General Revenue Fund of the county or municipality. The application shall contain the following information:

(1)   The name, age, address, occupation and business address of the applicant, if the applicant is a natural person, or the name, address, and principal place of business of the applicant if the applicant is a corporation.

(2)   A description of the dangerous ordnance for which a permit is requested.

(3)   A description of the places where and the manner in which the dangerous ordnance is to be kept, carried, and used.

(4)   A statement of the purposes for which the dangerous ordnance is to be acquired, possessed, carried or used.

(5)   Such other information as the issuing authority may require in giving effect to this section.

(C)  Upon investigation, the issuing authority shall issue a license or temporary permit only if all of the following apply:

(1)   The applicant is not otherwise prohibited by law from acquiring, having, carrying or using a dangerous ordnance.

(2)   The applicant is 21 years of age or over, if the applicant is a natural person.

(3)   It appears that the applicant has sufficient competence to safely acquire, possess, carry or use the dangerous ordnance, and that proper precautions will be taken to protect the security of the dangerous ordnance and ensure the safety of persons and property.

(4)   It appears that the dangerous ordnance will be lawfully acquired, possessed, carried and used by the applicant for a legitimate purpose.

(D)  The license or temporary permit shall identify the person to whom it is issued, identify the dangerous ordnance involved and state the purposes for which the license or temporary permit is issued, state the expiration date, if any, and list such restrictions on the acquisition, possession, carriage, or use of the dangerous ordnance as the issuing authority considers advisable to protect the security of the dangerous ordnance and ensure the safety of persons and property.

(E)  A temporary permit shall be issued for the casual use of explosives and explosive devices, and other consumable dangerous ordnance, and shall expire within 30 days of its issuance. A license shall be issued for the regular use of consumable dangerous ordnance, or for any non-consumable dangerous ordnance, which license need not specify an expiration date, but the issuing authority may specify such expiration date, not earlier than one year from the date of issuance, as it considers advisable in view of the nature of the dangerous ordnance and the purposes for which the license is issued.

(F)   The dangerous ordnance specified in a license or temporary permit may be obtained by the holder anywhere in the state. Pursuant to R.C. §2923.18(F), the holder of a license may use such dangerous ordnance anywhere in the state. The holder of a temporary permit may use such dangerous ordnance only within the territorial jurisdiction of the issuing authority.

(G)  The issuing authority shall forward to the State Fire Marshal a copy of each license or temporary permit issued pursuant to this section, and a copy of each record of a transaction in a dangerous ordnance and of each report of a lost or stolen dangerous ordnance, given to the local law enforcement authority as required by R.C. §2923.20(A)(6) and (A)(7) or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance. The State Fire Marshal will keep a permanent file of all licenses and temporary permits issued pursuant to this section, and of all records of transactions in, and losses or thefts of a dangerous ordnance forwarded by local law enforcement authorities pursuant to this section.

(R.C. §2923.18)

§ 137.12  POSSESSION OF AN OBJECT INDISTINGUISHABLE FROM A FIREARM IN A SCHOOL SAFETY ZONE.

(A)  No person shall knowingly possess an object in a school safety zone if both of the following apply:

(1)   The object is indistinguishable from a firearm, whether or not the object is capable of being fired.

(2)   The person indicates that the person possesses the object and that it is a firearm, or the person knowingly displays or brandishes the object and indicates that it is a firearm.

(B)  (1)   This section does not apply to any of the following:

(a)   An officer, agent, or employee of this or any other state or the United States who is authorized to carry deadly weapons or dangerous ordnance and is acting within the scope of the officer’s, agent’s, or employee’s duties;

(b)   A law enforcement officer who is authorized to carry deadly weapons or dangerous ordnance;

(c)   A security officer employed by a board of education or governing body of a school during the time that the security officer is on duty pursuant to that contract of employment;

(d) 1.      Any person not described in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (B)(1)(c) of this section who has written authorization from the board of education or governing body of a school to convey deadly weapons or dangerous ordnance into a school safety zone or to possess a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance in a school safety zone and who conveys or possesses the deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance in accordance with that authorization, provided both of the following apply:

  1. Either the person has successfully completed the curriculum, instruction, and training established under R.C. §5502.703, or the person has received a certificate of having satisfactorily completed an approved basic peace officer training program or is a law enforcement officer;
  1. The board or governing body has notified the public, by whatever means the affected school regularly communicates with the public, that the board or governing body has authorized one or more persons to go armed within a school operated by the board or governing authority.
  1. A district board or school governing body that authorizes a person under division (B)(1)(d) of this section shall require that person to submit to an annual criminal records check conducted in the same manner as R.C. §3319.39 or R.C. §3319.391.

(e)   Any person who is employed in this state, who is authorized to carry deadly weapons or dangerous ordnance, and who is subject to and in compliance with the requirements of R.C. §109.801, unless the appointing authority of the person has expressly specified that the exemption provided in division (B)(1)(e) of this section does not apply to the person.

(2)   This section does not apply to premises upon which home schooling is conducted. This section also does not apply to a school administrator, teacher or employee who possesses an object that is indistinguishable from a firearm for legitimate school purposes during the course of employment, a student who uses an object that is indistinguishable from a firearm under the direction of a school administrator, teacher or employee, or any other person who, with the express prior approval of a school administrator, possesses an object that is indistinguishable from a firearm for a legitimate purpose, including the use of the object in a ceremonial activity, a play, re-enactment or other dramatic presentation, school safety training, or a ROTC activity or another similar use of the object.

(3)   This section does not apply to a person who conveys or attempts to convey a handgun into, or possesses a handgun in, a school safety zone if, at the time of that conveyance, attempted conveyance, or possession of the handgun, all of the following apply:

(a)   The person does not enter into a school building or onto school premises and is not at a school activity.

(b)   The person has been issued a concealed handgun license that is valid at the time of the conveyance, attempted conveyance, or possession or the person is an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States and is carrying a valid military identification card and documentation of successful completion of firearms training that meets or exceeds the training requirements described in R.C. §2923.125(G)(1).

(c)   The person is in the school safety zone in accordance with 18 U.S.C. §922(q)(2)(B).

(d)   The person is not knowingly in a place described in R.C. §2923.126(B)(1) or (B)(3) through (B)(8).

(4)   This section does not apply to a person who conveys or attempts to convey a handgun into, or possesses a handgun in, a school safety zone if at the time of that conveyance, attempted conveyance, or possession of the handgun all of the following apply:

(a)   The person has been issued a concealed handgun license that is valid at the time of the conveyance, attempted conveyance, or possession or the person is an active duty member of the armed forces of the United States and is carrying a valid military identification card and documentation of successful completion of firearms training that meets or exceeds the training requirements described in R.C. §2923.125(G)(1).

(b)   The person leaves the handgun in a motor vehicle.

(c)   The handgun does not leave the motor vehicle.

(d)   If the person exits the motor vehicle, the person locks the motor vehicle.

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of illegal possession of an object indistinguishable from a firearm in a school safety zone. Except as otherwise provided in this division, illegal possession of an object indistinguishable from a firearm in a school safety zone is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of this section, illegal possession of an object indistinguishable from a firearm in a school safety zone is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(D)  (1)   In addition to any other penalty imposed upon a person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of this section, and subject to division (D)(2) of this section, if the offender has not attained 19 years of age, regardless of whether the offender is attending or is enrolled in a school operated by a board of education or for which the State Board of Education prescribes minimum standards under R.C. §3301.07, the court shall impose upon the offender a class four suspension of the offender’s probationary driver’s license, restricted license, driver’s license, commercial driver’s license, temporary instruction permit, or probationary commercial driver’s license that then is in effect from the range specified in R.C. §4510.02(A)(4) and shall deny the offender the issuance of any permit or license of that type during the period of the suspension. If the offender is not a resident of this state, the court shall impose a class four suspension of the nonresident operating privilege of the offender from the range specified in R.C. §4510.02(A)(4).

(2)   If the offender shows good cause why the court should not suspend one of the types of licenses, permits or privileges specified in division (D)(1) of this section or deny the issuance of one of the temporary instruction permits specified in division (D)(1) of this section, the court in its discretion may choose not to impose the suspension, revocation or denial required in division (D)(1) of this section, but the court, in its discretion, instead may require the offender to perform community service for a number of hours determined by the court.

(E)  As used in this section, OBJECT THAT IS INDISTINGUISHABLE FROM A FIREARM means an object made, constructed or altered so that, to a reasonable person without specialized training in firearms, the object appears to be a firearm.

(R.C. §2923.122(C) – (G))

Statutory reference:

Conveyance or possession of deadly weapons or dangerous ordnance in a school safety zone, felony

  offense, see R.C. § 2923.122(A) and (B)

§ 137.13  POSSESSION OF DEADLY WEAPON WHILE UNDER DETENTION.

(A)  As used in this section, DETENTION and DETENTION FACILITY have the same meanings as in R.C. §2921.01.

(B)  No person under detention at a detention facility shall possess a deadly weapon.

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of possession of a deadly weapon while under detention.

(1)   Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of this section, possession of a deadly weapon while under detention is a felony to be prosecuted under state law.

(2)   If the offender, at the time of the commission of the offense, was under detention as an alleged or adjudicated delinquent child or unruly child and if at the time the offender commits the act for which the offender was under detention it would not be a felony if committed by an adult, possession of a deadly weapon while under detention is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2923.131)

Statutory reference:

Possession of deadly weapon while under detention, felony offenses, see R.C. § 2923.131

§ 137.14  CONCEALED HANDGUN LICENSES; POSSESSION OF A REVOKED OR SUSPENDED LICENSE; ADDITIONAL RESTRICTIONS; POSTING OF SIGNS PROHIBITING POSSESSION.

(A)  Possession of a revoked or suspended concealed handgun license.

(1)   No person, except in the performance of official duties, shall possess a concealed handgun license that was issued and that has been revoked or suspended.

(2)   Whoever violates this division (A) is guilty of possessing a revoked or suspended concealed handgun license, a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(R.C. §2923.1211(B), (C))

(B)  Additional restrictions. Pursuant to R.C. §2923.126:

(1)   A concealed handgun license that is issued under R.C. §2923.125 shall expire five years after the date of issuance. A licensee who has been issued a license under that section shall be granted a grace period of 30 days after the licensee’s license expires during which the licensee’s license remains valid. Except as provided in divisions (B)(2) and (B)(3) of this section, a licensee who has been issued a concealed handgun license under R.C. §2923.125 or 2923.1213 may carry a concealed handgun anywhere in this state if the license is valid when the licensee is in actual possession of a concealed handgun. The licensee shall give notice of any change in the licensee’s residence address to the sheriff who issued the license within 45 days after that change.

(2)   A valid concealed handgun license does not authorize the licensee to carry a concealed handgun in any manner prohibited under R.C. §2923.12(B) or in any manner prohibited under R.C. §2923.16. A valid license does not authorize the licensee to carry a concealed handgun into any of the following places:

(a)   A police station, sheriff’s office, or state highway patrol station, premises controlled by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation; a state correctional institution, jail, workhouse, or other detention facility; any area of an airport passenger terminal that is beyond a passenger or property screening checkpoint or to which access is restricted through security measures by the airport authority or a public agency; or an institution that is maintained, operated, managed, and governed pursuant to R.C. §5119.14(A) or R.C. §5123.03(A)(1);

(b)   A school safety zone if the licensee’s carrying the concealed handgun is in violation of R.C. §2923.122;

(c)   A courthouse or another building or structure in which a courtroom is located if the licensee’s carrying the concealed handgun is in violation of R.C. §2923.123;

(d)   Any premises or open air arena for which a D permit has been issued under R.C. Chapter 4303 if the licensee’s carrying the concealed handgun is in violation of R.C. §2923.121;

(e)   Any premises owned or leased by any public or private college, university, or other institution of higher education, unless the handgun is in a locked motor vehicle or the licensee is in the immediate process of placing the handgun in a locked motor vehicle or unless the licensee is carrying the concealed handgun pursuant to a written policy, rule, or other authorization that is adopted by the institution’s board of trustees or other governing body and that authorizes specific individuals or classes of individuals to carry a concealed handgun on the premises;

(f)   Any church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship, unless the church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship posts or permits otherwise;

(g)   Any building that is a government facility of this state or a political subdivision of this state and that is not a building that is used primarily as a shelter, restroom, parking facility for motor vehicles, or rest facility and is not a courthouse or other building or structure in which a courtroom is located that is subject to division (B)(2)(c) of this section, unless the governing body with authority over the building has enacted a statute, ordinance, or policy that permits a licensee to carry a concealed handgun into the building;

(h)   A place in which federal law prohibits the carrying of handguns.

(3)   (a)   Nothing in this division (B) shall negate or restrict a rule, policy, or practice of a private employer that is not a private college, university, or other institution of higher education concerning or prohibiting the presence of firearms on the private employer’s premises or property, including motor vehicles owned by the private employer. Nothing in this division (B) shall require a private employer of that nature to adopt a rule, policy, or practice concerning or prohibiting the presence of firearms on the private employer’s premises or property, including motor vehicles owned by the private employer.

(b) 1.      A private employer shall be immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to a licensee bringing a handgun onto the premises or property of the private employer, including motor vehicles owned by the private employer, unless the private employer acted with malicious purpose. A private employer is immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to the private employer’s decision to permit a licensee to bring, or prohibit a licensee from bringing, a handgun onto the premises or property of the private employer.

  1. A political subdivision shall be immune from liability in a civil action, to the extent and in the manner provided in R.C. Chapter 2744, for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to a licensee bringing a handgun onto any premises or property owned, leased, or otherwise under the control of the political subdivision. As used in this division, POLITICAL SUBDIVISION has the same meaning as in R.C. §2744.01.
  1. An institution of higher education shall be immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to a licensee bringing a handgun onto the premises of the institution, including motor vehicles owned by the institution, unless the institution acted with malicious purpose. An institution of higher education is immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to the institution’s decision to permit a licensee or class of licensees to bring a handgun onto the premises of the institution.
  1. A nonprofit corporation shall be immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to a licensee bringing a handgun onto the premises of the nonprofit corporation, including any motor vehicle owned by the nonprofit corporation, or to any event organized by the nonprofit corporation, unless the nonprofit corporation acted with malicious purpose. A nonprofit corporation is immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to the nonprofit corporation’s decision to permit a licensee to bring a handgun onto the premises of the nonprofit corporation or to any event organized by the nonprofit corporation.

(c) 1.     a.      Except as provided in division (B)(3)(c)2. of this section and R.C. §2923.1214, the owner or person in control of private land or premises, and a private person or entity leasing land or premises owned by the state, the United States, or a political subdivision of the state or the United States, may post a sign in a conspicuous location on that land or on those premises prohibiting persons from carrying firearms or concealed firearms on or onto that land or those premises. Except as otherwise provided in this division, a person who knowingly violates a posted prohibition of that nature is guilty of criminal trespass in violation of R.C. §2911.21(A)(4) and is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If a person knowingly violates a posted prohibition of that nature and the posted land or premises primarily was a parking lot or other parking facility, the person is not guilty of criminal trespass under R.C. §2911.21 or under any other criminal law of this state or criminal law, ordinance, or resolution of a political subdivision of this state, and instead is subject only to a civil cause of action for trespass based on the violation.

  1. If a person knowingly violates a posted prohibition of the nature described in this division and the posted land or premises is a child day-care center, type A family day-care home, or type B family day-care home, unless the person is a licensee who resides in a type A family day-care home or type B family day-care home, the person is guilty of aggravated trespass in violation of R.C. §2911.211. Except as otherwise provided in this division, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the person previously has been convicted of a violation of this division or any substantially equivalent state law or municipal ordinance, or of any offense of violence, if the weapon involved is a firearm that is either loaded or for which the offender has ammunition ready at hand, or if the weapon involved is dangerous ordnance, the offender is guilty of a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.
  1. A landlord may not prohibit or restrict a tenant who is a licensee and who on or after September 9, 2008 enters into a rental agreement with the landlord for the use of residential premises, and the tenant’s guest while the tenant is present, from lawfully carrying or possessing a handgun on those residential premises.
  1. As used in division (B)(3)(c) of this section:

LANDLORD. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5321.01.

RENTAL AGREEMENT. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5321.01.

RESIDENTIAL PREMISES. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5321.01, except the term does not include a dwelling unit that is owned or operated by a college or university.

TENANT. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5321.01.

(4)   A person who holds a valid concealed handgun license issued by another state that is recognized by the Attorney General pursuant to a reciprocity agreement entered into pursuant to R.C. §109.69 or a person who holds a valid concealed handgun license under the circumstances described in R.C. §109.69(B) has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license under R.C. §2923.125 and is subject to the same restrictions that apply to a person who has been issued a license under that section that is valid at the time in question.

(5)   (a)   A peace officer has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license under R.C. §2923.125, provided that the officer when carrying a concealed handgun under authority of this division is carrying validating identification. For purposes of reciprocity with other states, a peace officer shall be considered to be a licensee in this state.

(b)   An active duty member of the armed forces of the United States who is carrying a valid military identification card and documentation of successful completion of firearms training that meets or exceeds the training requirements described in R.C. §2923.125(G)(1) has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license under R.C. §2923.125 and is subject to the same restrictions as specified in this division (B).

(c)   A tactical medical professional who is qualified to carry firearms while on duty under R.C. §109.771 has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license under R.C. §2923.125.

(6)   (a)   A qualified retired peace officer who possesses a retired peace officer identification card issued pursuant to division (B)(6)(b) of this section and a valid firearms requalification certification issued pursuant to division (B)(6)(c) of this section has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license under R.C. §2923.125 and is subject to the same restrictions that apply to a person who has been issued a license issued under that section that is valid at the time in question. For purposes of reciprocity with other states, a qualified retired peace officer who possesses a retired peace officer identification card issued pursuant to division (B)(6)(b) of this section and a valid firearms requalification certification issued pursuant to division (B)(6)(c) of this section shall be considered to be a licensee in this state.

(b) 1.      Each public agency of this state or of a political subdivision of this state that is served by one or more peace officers shall issue a retired peace officer identification card to any person who retired from service as a peace officer with that agency, if the issuance is in accordance with the agency’s policies and procedures and if the person, with respect to the person’s service with that agency, satisfies all of the following:

  1. The person retired in good standing from service as a peace officer with the public agency, and the retirement was not for reasons of mental instability.
  1. Before retiring from service as a peace officer with that agency, the person was authorized to engage in or supervise the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law and the person had statutory powers of arrest.
  1. At the time of the person’s retirement as a peace officer with that agency, the person was trained and qualified to carry firearms in the performance of the peace officer’s duties.
  1. Before retiring from service as a peace officer with that agency, the person was regularly employed as a peace officer for an aggregate of 15 years or more, or, in the alternative, the person retired from service as a peace officer with that agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of that service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined by the agency.
  1. A retired peace officer identification card issued to a person under division (B)(6)(b)1. of this section shall identify the person by name, contain a photograph of the person, identify the public agency of this state or of the political subdivision of this state from which the person retired as a peace officer and that is issuing the identification card, and specify that the person retired in good standing from service as a peace officer with the issuing public agency and satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions (B)(6)(b)1.a. to (B)(6)(B)1.d. of this section. In addition to the required content specified in this division, a retired peace officer identification card issued to a person under division (B)(6)(b)1. of this section may include the firearms requalification certification described in division (B)(6)(c) of this section, and if the identification card includes that certification, the identification card shall serve as the firearms requalification certification for the retired peace officer. If the issuing public agency issues credentials to active law enforcement officers who serve the agency, the agency may comply with division (B)(6)(b)1. of this section by issuing the same credentials to persons who retired from service as a peace officer with the agency and who satisfy the criteria set forth in divisions (B)(6)(b)1.a. to (B)(6)(b)1.d. of this section, provided that the credentials so issued to retired peace officers are stamped with the word ARETIRED@.
  1. A public agency of this state or of a political subdivision of this state may charge persons who retired from service as a peace officer with the agency a reasonable fee for issuing to the person a retired peace officer identification card pursuant to division (B)(6)(b)1. of this section.

(c) 1.      If a person retired from service as a peace officer with a public agency of this state or of a political subdivision of this state and the person satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions (B)(6)(b)1.a. to (B)(6)(b)1.d. of this section, the public agency may provide the retired peace officer with the opportunity to attend a firearms requalification program that is approved for purposes of firearms requalification required under R.C. §109.801. The retired peace officer may be required to pay the cost of the course.

  1. If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions (B)(6)(b)1.a. to (B)(6)(b)1.d. of this section attends a firearms requalification program that is approved for purposes of firearms requalification required under R.C. §109.801, the retired peace officer’s successful completion of the firearms requalification program requalifies the retired peace officer for purposes of division (B)(6) of this section for five years from the date on which the program was successfully completed, and the requalification is valid during that five-year period. If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions (B)(6)(b)1.a. to (B)(6)(b)1.d. of this section satisfactorily completes such a firearms requalification program, the retired peace officer shall be issued a firearms requalification certification that identifies the retired peace officer by name, identifies the entity that taught the program, specifies that the retired peace officer successfully completed the program, specifies the date on which the course was successfully completed, and specifies that the requalification is valid for five years from that date of successful completion. The firearms requalification certification for a retired peace officer may be included in the retired peace officer identification card issued to the retired peace officer under division (B)(6)(b) of this section.
  1. A retired peace officer who attends a firearms requalification program that is approved for purposes of firearms requalification required under R.C. §109.801 may be required to pay the cost of the program.

(7)   As used in division (B) of this section:

GOVERNING BODY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §154.01.

GOVERNMENT FACILITY OF THIS STATE OR A POLITICAL SUBDIVISION OF THIS STATE. Means any of the following:

  1. A building or part of a building that is owned or leased by the government of this state or a political subdivision of this state and where employees of the government of this state or the political subdivision regularly are present for the purpose of performing their official duties as employees of the state or political subdivision;
  1. The office of a deputy registrar serving pursuant to R.C. Chapter 4503 that is used to perform deputy registrar functions.

NONPROFIT CORPORATION. Means any private organization that is exempt from federal income taxation pursuant to subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code.

QUALIFIED RETIRED PEACE OFFICER. Means a person who satisfies all of the following:

  1. The person satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions (B)(6)(b)1.a. to (B)(6)(b)1.d. of this section.
  1. The person is not under the influence of alcohol or another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance.
  1. The person is not prohibited by federal law from receiving firearms.

RETIRED PEACE OFFICER IDENTIFICATION CARD. Means an identification card that is issued pursuant to division (B)(6)(b) of this section to a person who is a retired peace officer.

TACTICAL MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §109.71.

VALIDATING IDENTIFICATION. Means photographic identification issued by the agency for which an individual serves as a peace officer that identifies the individual as a peace officer of the agency.

(R.C. §2923.126)

(C)  Posting of signs prohibiting possession. Each person, board, or entity that owns or controls any place or premises identified in R.C. §2923.126(B) as a place into which a valid license does not authorize the licensee to carry a concealed handgun, or a designee of such a person, board, or entity, shall post in the following one or more conspicuous locations in the premises a sign that contains a statement in substantially the following form: AUnless otherwise authorized by law, pursuant to the Ohio Revised Code, no person shall knowingly possess, have under the person’s control, convey, or attempt to convey a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance onto these premises.@

(R.C. §2923.1212)

§ 137.15  DEFACED FIREARMS.

(A)  No person shall do either of the following:

(1)   Change, alter, remove, or obliterate the name of the manufacturer, model, manufacturer’s serial number, or other mark of identification on a firearm.

(2)   Possess a firearm knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that the name of the manufacturer, model, manufacturer’s serial number, or other mark of identification on the firearm has been changed, altered, removed, or obliterated.

(B)  (1)   Whoever violates division (A)(1) of this section is guilty of defacing identification marks of a firearm. Except as otherwise provided in this division, defacing identification marks of a firearm is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A)(1) of this section, defacing identification marks of a firearm is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   Whoever violates division (A)(2) of this section is guilty of possessing a defaced firearm. Except as otherwise provided in this division, possessing a defaced firearm is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A)(2) of this section, possessing a defaced firearm is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(C)  Division (A) of this section does not apply to any firearm on which no manufacturer’s serial number was inscribed at the time of its manufacture.

(R.C. §2923.201)

CHAPTER 138: DRUG OFFENSES

Section

138.01 Definitions
138.02 Possession, sale, or use of drugs in parks
138.03 Trafficking in controlled substances; gift of marihuana
138.04 Drug abuse
138.05 Possessing drug abuse instruments
138.06 Permitting drug abuse
138.07 Abusing harmful intoxicants
138.08 Nitrous oxide; improper dispensing or distribution; possession in a motor vehicle
138.09 Counterfeit controlled substances
138.10 Use, possession, or sale of drug paraphernalia
138.11 Illegal cultivation of marihuana
138.12 Illegal dispensing of drug samples
138.13 Federal prosecution bar to municipal prosecution
138.14 Laboratory report required
138.15 Controlled substance or prescription labels
138.16 Possession, sale, and disposal of hypodermics
138.17 Controlled substance schedules
138.18 Unlawful furnishing of prescription to enable persons to be issued handicapped parking placards or license plates
138.19 Sale of pseudoephedrine
138.20 Sale of pure caffeine product
138.21 Sale of dextromethorphan

Statutory reference:

Administration of epinephrine, exemption from prosecution, see R.C. § 2925.64

Controlled substances, regulation of pharmacists and other professionals, see R.C. Chapters 3719

  and 4729

Conviction of professionally licensed persons to be reported to licensing board, see R.C. § 2925.38

Criminal and civil forfeiture of property for felony drug abuse offenses, see R.C. Chapter 2981

Destruction of chemicals used to produce methamphetamine; preservation of samples, see

  R.C. § 2925.52

Tampering with drugs, felony offense, see R.C. § 2925.24

§ 138.01  DEFINITIONS.

For the purpose of this chapter, the following definitions shall apply unless the context clearly indicates or requires a different meaning. Words, terms and phrases and their derivatives used in this chapter which are not defined in this section shall have the meanings given to them in the Ohio Revised Code.

ADMINISTER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

ADULTERATE. To cause a drug to be adulterated as described in R.C. §3715.63.

ALCOHOL AND DRUG ADDICTION SERVICES. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5119.01.

BULK AMOUNT. Of a controlled substance means any of the following:

(1)   For any compound, mixture, preparation, or substance included in Schedule I, Schedule II, or Schedule III, with the exception of any controlled substance analog, marihuana, cocaine, L.S.D., heroin, any fentanyl-related compound, and hashish and except as provided in division (2), (5), or (6) of this definition, whichever of the following is applicable:

(a)   An amount equal to or exceeding ten grams or 25 unit doses of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a Schedule I opiate or opium derivative;

(b)   An amount equal to or exceeding ten grams of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of raw or gum opium;

(c)   An amount equal to or exceeding 30 grams or ten unit doses of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a Schedule I hallucinogen other than tetrahydrocannabinol or lysergic acid amide, or a Schedule I stimulant or depressant;

(d)   An amount equal to or exceeding 20 grams or five times the maximum daily dose in the usual dose range specified in a standard pharmaceutical reference manual of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a Schedule II opiate or opium derivative;

(e)   An amount equal to or exceeding five grams or ten unit doses of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of phencyclidine;

(f)   An amount equal to or exceeding 120 grams or 30 times the maximum daily dose in the usual dose range specified in a standard pharmaceutical reference manual of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a Schedule II stimulant that is in a final dosage form manufactured by a person authorized by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. §§ 301 et seq., as amended) and the federal drug abuse control laws, as defined in this section, that is or contains any amount of a Schedule II depressant substance or a Schedule II hallucinogenic substance;

(g)   An amount equal to or exceeding three grams of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a Schedule II stimulant, or any of its salts or isomers, that is not in a final dosage form manufactured by a person authorized by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. §§ 301 et seq., as amended) and the federal drug abuse control laws;

(2)   An amount equal to or exceeding 120 grams or 30 times the maximum daily dose in the usual dose range specified in a standard pharmaceutical reference manual of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a Schedule III or IV substance other than an anabolic steroid or a Schedule III opiate or opium derivative;

(3)   An amount equal to or exceeding 20 grams or five times the maximum daily dose in the usual dose range specified in a standard pharmaceutical reference manual of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a Schedule III opiate or opium derivative;

(4)   An amount equal to or exceeding 250 milliliters or 250 grams of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a Schedule V substance;

(5)   An amount equal to or exceeding 200 solid dosage units, 16 grams, or 16 milliliters of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a Schedule III anabolic steroid;

(6)   For any compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is a combination of a fentanyl‑related compound and any other compound, mixture, preparation, or substance included in Schedule III, Schedule IV, or Schedule V, if the defendant is charged with a violation of R.C. §2925.11 and the sentencing provisions set forth in R.C. §2925.11(C)(10)(b) and (C)(11) will not apply regarding the defendant and the violation, the bulk amount of the controlled substance for purposes of the violation is the amount specified in division (1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of this definition for the other Schedule III, Schedule IV, or Schedule V controlled substance that is combined with the fentanyl-related compound.

CERTIFIED GRIEVANCE COMMITTEE. A duly constituted and organized committee of the Ohio State Bar Association or of one or more local bar associations of the state that complies with the criteria set forth in Rule V, Section 6 of the Rules for the Government of the Bar of Ohio.

COCAINE. Any of the following:

(1)   A cocaine salt, isomer, or derivative, a salt of a cocaine isomer or derivative, or the base form of cocaine.

(2)   Coca leaves or a salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves, including ecgonine, a salt, isomer, or derivative of ecgonine, or a salt of an isomer or derivative of ecgonine.

(3)   A salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of a substance identified in division (1) or (2) of this definition that is chemically equivalent to or identical with any of those substances, except that the substances shall not include decocainized coca leaves or extraction of coca leaves if the extractions do not contain cocaine or ecgonine.

COMMITTED IN THE VICINITY OF A JUVENILE. An offense is Acommitted in the vicinity of a juvenile@ if the offender commits the offense within 100 feet of a juvenile or within the view of a juvenile, regardless of whether the offender knows the age of the juvenile, whether the offender knows the offense is being committed within 100 feet of or within view of the juvenile, or whether the juvenile actually views the commission of the offense.

COMMITTED IN THE VICINITY OF A SCHOOL. An offense is Acommitted in the vicinity of a school@ if the offender commits the offense on school premises, in a school building, or within 1,000 feet of the boundaries of any school premises, regardless of whether the offender knows the offense is being committed on school premises, in a school building, or within 1,000 feet of the boundaries of any school premises.

COMMITTED IN THE VICINITY OF A SUBSTANCE ADDICTION SERVICES PROVIDER OR A RECOVERING ADDICT. An offense is Acommitted in the vicinity of a substance addiction services provider or a recovering addict@ if either of the following apply:

(1)   The offender commits the offense on the premises of a substance addiction services provider’s facility, including a facility licensed prior to June 29, 2019, under R.C. §5119.391 to provide methadone treatment or an opioid treatment program licensed on or after that date under R.C. §5119.37, or within 500 feet of the premises of a substance addiction services provider’s facility and the offender knows or should know that the offense is being committed within the vicinity of the substance addiction services provider’s facility.

(2)   The offender sells, offers to sell, delivers, or distributes the controlled substance or controlled substance analog to a person who is receiving treatment at the time of the commission of the offense, or received treatment within 30 days prior to the commission of the offense, from a substance addiction services provider and the offender knows that the person is receiving or received that treatment.

CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE ANALOG. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

COUNTERFEIT CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE. Any of the following:

(1)   Any drug that bears, or whose container or label bears, a trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark used without authorization of the owner of rights to the trademark, trade name, or identifying mark.

(2)   Any unmarked or unlabeled substance that is represented to be a controlled substance manufactured, processed, packed, or distributed by a person other than the person that manufactured, processed, packed, or distributed it.

(3)   Any substance that is represented to be a controlled substance but is not a controlled substance or is a different controlled substance.

(4)   Any substance other than a controlled substance that a reasonable person would believe to be a controlled substance because of its similarity in shape, size, and color, or its markings, labeling, packaging, distribution, or the price for which it is sold or offered for sale.

CULTIVATE. Includes planting, watering, fertilizing or tilling.

DANGEROUS DRUG. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4729.01.

DECEPTION. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2913.01.

DISCIPLINARY COUNSEL. The disciplinary counsel appointed by the Board of Commissioners on Grievances and Discipline of the Ohio Supreme Court under the Rules for the Government of the Bar of Ohio.

DISPENSE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

DISTRIBUTE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

DRUG. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4729.01.

DRUG ABUSE OFFENSE. Any of the following:

(1)   A violation of R.C. §2913.02(A) that constitutes theft of drugs, or any violation of R.C. §2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.12, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.31, 2925.32, 2925.36, or 2925.37.

(2)   A violation of an existing or former law of a municipality, state or any other state or of the United States, that is substantially equivalent to any section listed in division (1) of this definition.

(3)   An offense under an existing or former law of a municipality, state or any other state, or of the United States, of which planting, cultivating, harvesting, processing, making, manufacturing, producing, shipping, transporting, delivering, acquiring, possessing, storing, distributing, dispensing, selling, inducing another to use, administering to another, using, or otherwise dealing with a controlled substance is an element.

(4)   A conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or complicity in committing or attempting to commit, any offense under division (1), (2), or (3) of this definition.

DRUG OF ABUSE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.011.

FELONY DRUG ABUSE OFFENSE. Any drug abuse offense that would constitute a felony under the laws of this state, any other state, or the United States.

FENTANYL-RELATED COMPOUND. Any of the following:

(1)   Fentanyl;

(2)   Alpha-methylfentanyl (N-[1-(alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl] propionanilide; 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-propanilido) piperidine);

(3)   Alpha-methylthiofentanyl (N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(4)   Beta-hydroxyfentanyl (N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(5)   Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl (other name: N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(6)   3-methylfentanyl (N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);

(7)   3-methylthiofentanyl (N-[3-methyl-1-[2-(thienyl)ethyl]-4-piperidinyl]-B phenylpropanamide);

(8)   Para-fluorofentanyl (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]propanamide;

(9)   Thiofentanyl (N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide;

(10)  Alfentanil;

(11)  Carfentanil;

(12)  Remifentanil;

(13)  Sufentanil;

(14)  Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl (N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide); and

(15)  Any compound that meets all of the following fentanyl pharmacophore requirements to bind at the mu receptor, as identified by a report from an established forensic laboratory, including acetylfentanyl, furanylfentanyl, valerylfentanyl, butyrylfentanyl, isobutyrylfentanyl, 4‑methoxybutyrylfentanyl, para-fluorobutyrylfentanyl, acrylfentanyl, and ortho-fluorofentanyl:

(a)   A chemical scaffold consisting of both of the following:

  1. A five, six, or seven member ring structure containing a nitrogen, whether or not further substituted;
  1. An attached nitrogen to the ring, whether or not that nitrogen is enclosed in a ring structure, including an attached aromatic ring or other lipophilic group to that nitrogen.

(b)   A polar functional group attached to the chemical scaffold, including but not limited to a hydroxyl, ketone, amide, or ester;

(c)   An alkyl or aryl substitution off the ring nitrogen of the chemical scaffold; and

(d)   The compound has not been approved for medical use by the United States food and drug administration.

HARMFUL INTOXICANT. Does not include beer or intoxicating liquor, but means any of the following:

(1)   Any compound, mixture, preparation, or substance the gas, fumes, or vapor of which when inhaled can induce intoxication, excitement, giddiness, irrational behavior, depression, stupefaction, paralysis, unconsciousness, asphyxiation, or other harmful physiological effects, and includes but is not limited to any of the following:

(a)   Any volatile organic solvent, plastic cement, model cement, fingernail polish remover, lacquer thinner, cleaning fluid, gasoline, or other preparation containing a volatile organic solvent.

(b)   Any aerosol propellant.

(c)   Any fluorocarbon refrigerant.

(d)   Any anesthetic gas.

(2)   Gamma Butyrolactone;

(3)   1,4 Butanediol.

HASHISH.

(1)   A resin or a preparation of a resin to which both of the following apply:

(a)   It is contained in or derived from any part of the plant of the genus cannabis, whether in solid form or in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form.

(b)   It has a delta‑9 tetrahydrocannabinol concentration of more than 0.3%.

(2)   The term does not include a hemp byproduct in the possession of a licensed hemp processor under R.C. Chapter 928, provided that the hemp byproduct is being produced, stored, and disposed of in accordance with rules adopted under R.C. §928.03.

HYPODERMIC. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

JUVENILE. A person under 18 years of age.

LICENSED HEALTH PROFESSIONAL AUTHORIZED TO PRESCRIBE DRUGS. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4729.01.

L.S.D. Lysergic acid diethylamide.

MAJOR DRUG OFFENDER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2929.01.

MANDATORY PRISON TERM. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2929.01.

MANUFACTURE. To plant, cultivate, harvest, process, make, prepare, or otherwise engage in any part of the production of a drug, by propagation, extraction, chemical synthesis, or compounding, or any combination of the same, and includes packaging, repackaging, labeling, and other activities incident to production.

MANUFACTURER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

MARIHUANA. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01, except that it does not include hashish.

METHAMPHETAMINE. Methamphetamine, any salt, isomer, or salt of an isomer of methamphetamine, or any compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing methamphetamine or any salt, isomer, or salt of an isomer of methamphetamine.

MINOR DRUG POSSESSION OFFENSE. Either of the following:

(1)   A violation of R.C. §2925.11 as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance.

(2)   A violation of R.C. §2925.11 as it exists on and after July 1, 1996, or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, that is a misdemeanor or a felony of the fifth degree.

OFFICIAL WRITTEN ORDER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

PERSON. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

PERSON WITH A DRUG DEPENDENCY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.011.

PHARMACIST. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

PHARMACY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

POSSESS or POSSESSION. Having control over a thing or substance but may not be inferred solely from mere access to the thing or substance through ownership or occupation of the premises upon which the thing or substance is found.

PREMISES OF A SUBSTANCE ADDICTION SERVICES PROVIDERS FACILITY. Means the parcel of real property on which any substance addiction service provider’s facility is situated.

PRESCRIPTION. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4729.01.

PRESUMPTION FOR A PRISON TERM or PRESUMPTION THAT A PRISON TERM SHALL BE IMPOSED. A presumption as described in R.C. §2929.13(D) that a prison term is a necessary sanction for a felony in order to comply with the purposes and principles of sentencing under R.C. §2929.11.

PROFESSIONAL LICENSE. Any license, permit, certificate, registration, qualification, admission, temporary license, temporary permit, temporary certificate, or temporary registration that is described in R.C. §2925.01(W)(1) through (W)(37) and that qualifies a person as a professionally licensed person.

PROFESSIONALLY LICENSED PERSON. Any of the following:

(1)   A person who has received a certificate or temporary certificate as a certified public accountant or who has registered as a public accountant under R.C. Chapter 4701 and who holds an Ohio permit issued under that chapter;

(2)   A person who holds a certificate of qualification to practice architecture issued or renewed and registered under R.C. Chapter 4703;

(3)   A person who is registered as a landscape architect under R.C. Chapter 4703 or who holds a permit as a landscape architect issued under that chapter;

(4)   A person licensed under R.C. Chapter 4707;

(5)   A person who has been issued a certificate of registration as a registered barber under R.C. Chapter 4709;

(6)   A person licensed and regulated to engage in the business of a debt pooling company by a legislative authority, under authority of R.C. Chapter 4710;

(7)   A person who has been issued a cosmetologist’s license, hair designer’s license, manicurist’s license, esthetician’s license, natural hair stylist’s license, advanced cosmetologist’s license, advanced hair designer’s license, advanced manicurist’s license, advanced esthetician’s license, advanced natural hair stylist’s license, cosmetology instructor’s license, hair design instructor’s license, manicurist instructor’s license, esthetics instructor’s license, natural hair style instructor’s license, independent contractor’s license, or tanning facility permit under R.C. Chapter 4713;

(8)   A person who has been issued a license to practice dentistry, a general anesthesia permit, a conscious sedation permit, a limited resident’s license, a limited teaching license, a dental hygienist’s license, or a dental hygienist’s teacher’s certificate under R.C. Chapter 4715;

(9)   A person who has been issued an embalmer’s license, a funeral director’s license, a funeral home license, or a crematory license, or who has been registered for an embalmer’s or funeral director’s apprenticeship under R.C. Chapter 4717;

(10)  A person who has been licensed as a registered nurse or practical nurse, or who has been issued a certificate for the practice of nurse-midwifery under R.C. Chapter 4723;

(11)  A person who has been licensed to practice optometry or to engage in optical dispensing under R.C. Chapter 4725;

(12)  A person licensed to act as a pawnbroker under R.C. Chapter 4727;

(13)  A person licensed to act as a precious metals dealer under R.C. Chapter 4728;

(14)  A person licensed under R.C. Chapter 4729 as a pharmacist or pharmacy intern or registered under that chapter as a registered pharmacy technician, certified pharmacy technician, or pharmacy technician trainee;

(15)  A person licensed under R.C. Chapter 4729 as a manufacturer of dangerous drugs, outsourcing facility, third-party logistics provider, repackager of dangerous drugs, wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs, or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs;

(16)  A person who is authorized to practice as a physician assistant under R.C. Chapter 4730;

(17)  A person who has been issued a license to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery under R.C. Chapter 4731 or has been issued a certificate to practice a limited branch of medicine under that chapter;

(18)  A person licensed as a psychologist, independent school psychologist, or school psychologist under R.C. Chapter 4732;

(19)  A person registered to practice the profession of engineering or surveying under R.C. Chapter 4733;

(20)  A person who has been issued a license to practice chiropractic under R.C. Chapter 4734;

(21)  A person licensed to act as a real estate broker or real estate salesperson under R.C. Chapter 4735;

(22)  A person registered as a registered environmental health specialist under R.C. Chapter 4736;

(23)  A person licensed to operate or maintain a junkyard under R.C. Chapter 4737;

(24)  A person who has been issued a motor vehicle salvage dealer’s license under R.C. Chapter 4738;

(25)  A person who has been licensed to act as a steam engineer under R.C. Chapter 4739;

(26)  A person who has been issued a license or temporary permit to practice veterinary medicine or any of its branches, or who is registered as a graduate animal technician under R.C. Chapter 4741;

(27)  A person who has been issued a hearing aid dealer’s or fitter’s license or trainee permit under R.C. Chapter 4747;

(28)  A person who has been issued a class A, class B, or class C license or who has been registered as an investigator or security guard employee under R.C. Chapter 4749;

(29)  A person licensed to practice as a nursing home administrator under R.C. Chapter 4751;

(30)  A person licensed to practice as a speech-language pathologist or audiologist under R.C. Chapter 4753;

(31)  A person issued a license as an occupational therapist or physical therapist under R.C. Chapter 4755;

(32)  A person who is licensed as a licensed professional clinical counselor, licensed professional counselor, social worker, independent social worker, independent marriage and family therapist, or marriage and family therapist, or registered as a social work assistant under R.C. Chapter 4757;

(33)  A person issued a license to practice dietetics under R.C. Chapter 4759;

(34)  A person who has been issued a license or limited permit to practice respiratory therapy under R.C. Chapter 4761;

(35)  A person who has been issued a real estate appraiser certificate under R.C. Chapter 4763;

(36)  A person who has been issued a home inspector license under R.C. Chapter 4764;

(37)  A person who has been admitted to the bar by order of the Ohio Supreme Court in compliance with its prescribed and published rules.

PUBLIC PREMISES. Any hotel, restaurant, tavern, store, arena, hall, or other place of public accommodation, business, amusement, or resort.

SALE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

SAMPLE DRUG. A drug or pharmaceutical preparation that would be hazardous to health or safety if used without the supervision of a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs, or a drug of abuse, and that, at one time, had been placed in a container plainly marked as a sample by a manufacturer.

SCHEDULE I, SCHEDULE II, SCHEDULE III, SCHEDULE IV or SCHEDULE V. Have the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

SCHOOL. Any school operated by a board of education, any community school established under R.C. Chapter 3314, or any nonpublic school for which the State Board of Education prescribes minimum standards under R.C. §3301.07, whether or not any instruction, extracurricular activities, or training provided by the school is being conducted at the time a criminal offense is committed.

SCHOOL BUILDING. Any building in which any of the instruction, extracurricular activities, or training provided by a school is conducted, whether or not any instruction, extracurricular activities, or training provided by the school is being conducted in the school building at the time a criminal offense is committed.

SCHOOL PREMISES. Either of the following:

(1)   The parcel of real property on which any school is situated, whether or not any instruction, extracurricular activities, or training provided by the school is being conducted on the premises at the time a criminal offense is committed.

(2)   Any other parcel of real property that is owned or leased by a board of education of a school, the governing authority of a community school established under R.C. Chapter 3314, or the governing body of a nonpublic school for which the State Board of Education prescribes minimum standards under R.C. §3301.07 and on which some of the instruction, extracurricular activities, or training of the school is conducted, whether or not any instruction, extracurricular activities, or training provided by the school is being conducted on the parcel of real property at the time a criminal offense is committed.

STANDARD PHARMACEUTICAL REFERENCE MANUAL. The current edition, with cumulative changes if any, of references that are approved by the State Board of Pharmacy.

SUBSTANCE ADDICTION SERVICES PROVIDER. Means an agency, association, corporation or other legal entity, individual, or program that provides one or more of the following at a facility:

(1)   Either alcohol addiction services, or drug addiction services, or both such services that are certified by the Ohio Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services under R.C. §5119.36;

(2)   Recovery supports that are related to either alcohol addiction services, or drug addiction services, or both such services and paid for with federal, state, or local funds administered by the Ohio Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services or a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.

UNIT DOSE. An amount or unit or a compound, mixture, or preparation containing a controlled substance that is separately identifiable and in a form that indicates that it is the amount or unit by which the controlled substance is separately administered to or taken by an individual.

WHOLESALER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

(R.C.§2925.01)  (Prior Code, §138.01)

§ 138.02  POSSESSION, SALE, OR USE OF DRUGS IN PARKS.

No person in a park shall possess, sell, use, or offer for sale any type of narcotic drug, opiate, hallucinogen, controlled substance, marihuana, or harmful intoxicant, as defined in R.C. Chapters 2925 and 3719, or any equipment for administering any such drugs or substances, except as otherwise provided in R.C. §§2925.11 and 2925.12.

(Prior Code, §138.02)  (Rules and Regs. §6.12)

§ 138.03  TRAFFICKING IN CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES; GIFT OF MARIHUANA.

(A)  No person shall knowingly do any of the following:

(1)   Sell or offer to sell a controlled substance or a controlled substance analog;

(2)   Prepare for shipment, ship, transport, deliver, prepare for distribution, or distribute a controlled substance or a controlled substance analog, when the offender knows or has reasonable cause to believe that the controlled substance or a controlled substance analog is intended for sale or resale by the offender or another person.

(B)  This section does not apply to any of the following:

(1)   Manufacturers, licensed health professionals authorized to prescribe drugs, pharmacists, owners of pharmacies, and other persons whose conduct is in accordance with R.C. Chapters 3719, 4715, 4723, 4729, 4730, 4731, and 4741.

(2)   If the offense involves an anabolic steroid, any person who is conducting or participating in a research project involving the use of an anabolic steroid if the project has been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(3)   Any person who sells, offers for sale, prescribes, dispenses, or administers for livestock or other nonhuman species an anabolic steroid that is expressly intended for administration through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species and approved for that purpose under the AFederal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act@ (21 U.S.C. §§ 301 et seq., as amended), and is sold, offered for sale, prescribed, dispensed, or administered for that purpose in accordance with that Act.

(C)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of the following:

(1)   Except as otherwise provided in divisions (C)(2) and (C)(3) of this section, trafficking in controlled substances is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the offense involves a gift of 20 grams or less of marihuana, trafficking in marihuana is a minor misdemeanor upon a first offense and a misdemeanor of the third degree upon a subsequent offense. If the offense involves a gift of 20 grams or less of marihuana and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(3)   If the drug involved in the violation is a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is a combination of a fentanyl-related compound and marihuana, one of the following applies:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3)(b) of this section, the offender is guilty of trafficking in marihuana and shall be punished under division (C)(2) of this section. The offender is not guilty of trafficking in a fentanyl-related compound and shall not be charged with, convicted of, or punished under R.C. §2925.03(C)(9) for trafficking in a fentanyl-related compound.

(b)   If the offender knows or has reason to know that the compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is the drug involved contains a fentanyl-related compound, the offender is guilty of trafficking in a fentanyl-related compound and shall be punished under R.C. §2925.03(C)(9).

(D)  As used in this section, Adrug@ includes any substance that is represented to be a drug.

(R.C. §2925.03(A) – (C), (I))  (Prior Code, §138.03)

Statutory reference:

Felony drug trafficking offenses, see R.C. § 2925.03(C)

§ 138.04  DRUG ABUSE.

(A)  No person shall knowingly obtain, possess, or use a controlled substance or a controlled substance analog.

(B)  (1)   This section does not apply to any of the following:

(a)   Manufacturers, licensed health professionals authorized to prescribe drugs, pharmacists, owners of pharmacies, and other persons whose conduct is in accordance with R.C. Chapters 3719, 4715, 4723, 4729, 4730, 4731, and 4741.

(b)   If the offense involves an anabolic steroid, any person who is conducting or participating in a research project involving the use of an anabolic steroid if the project has been approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration.

(c)   Any person who sells, offers for sale, prescribes, dispenses, or administers for livestock or other nonhuman species an anabolic steroid that is expressly intended for administration through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species and approved for that purpose under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, and is sold, offered for sale, prescribed, dispensed, or administered for that purpose in accordance with that Act.

(d)   Any person who obtained the controlled substance pursuant to a prescription issued by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs if the prescription was issued for a legitimate medical purpose and not altered, forged, or obtained through deception or commission of a theft offense. As used in this division (B)(1)(d), Adeception@ and Atheft offense@ have the same meanings as in R.C. §2913.01.

(2)   (a)   As used in division (B)(2) of this section:

COMMUNITY ADDICTION SERVICES PROVIDER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §5119.01.

COMMUNITY CONTROL SANCTION. Has the same meanings as in R.C. §2929.01

DRUG TREATMENT PROGRAM. Has the same meanings as in R.C. §2929.01.

HEALTH CARE FACILITY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2919.16.

MINOR DRUG POSSESSION OFFENSE. A violation of this section or R.C. §2925.11 that is a misdemeanor or a felony of the fifth degree.

PEACE OFFICER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2935.01.

POST-RELEASE CONTROL SANCTION. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2967.28.

PUBLIC AGENCY. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2930.01.

QUALIFIED INDIVIDUAL. A person who is acting in good faith who seeks or obtains medical assistance for another person who is experiencing a drug overdose, a person who experiences a drug overdose and who seeks medical assistance for that overdose, or a person who is the subject of another person seeking or obtaining medical assistance for that overdose as described in division (B)(2)(b) of this section.

SEEK OR OBTAIN MEDICAL ASSISTANCE. Includes, but is not limited to making a 9‑1‑1 call, contacting in person or by telephone call an on-duty peace officer, or transporting or presenting a person to a health care facility.

(b)   Subject to division (B)(2)(e) of this section, a qualified individual shall not be arrested, charged, prosecuted, convicted, or penalized pursuant to this chapter for a minor drug possession offense or a violation of R.C. §2925.12, R.C. §2925.14(C)(1), or R.C. §2925.141 if all of the following apply:

  1. The evidence of the obtaining, possession, or use of the controlled substance or controlled substance analog, drug abuse instruments, or drug paraphernalia that would be the basis of the offense was obtained as a result of the qualified individual seeking the medical assistance or experiencing an overdose and needing medical assistance.
  1. Subject to division (B)(2)(f) of this section, within 30 days after seeking or obtaining the medical assistance, the qualified individual seeks and obtains a screening and receives a referral for treatment from a community addiction services provider or a properly credentialed addiction treatment professional.
  1. Subject to division (B)(2)(f) of this section, the qualified individual who obtains a screening and receives a referral for treatment under division (B)(2)(b)2. of this section, upon the request of any prosecuting attorney, submits documentation to the prosecuting attorney that verifies that the qualified individual satisfied the requirements of that division. The documentation shall be limited to the date and time of the screening obtained and referral received.

(c)   If a person who is serving a community control sanction or is under a sanction on post‑release control acts pursuant to division (B)(2)(b) of this section, then R.C. §2929.141(B), R.C. §2929.15(B)(2), R.C. §2929.25(D)(3), or R.C. §2967.28(F)(3) applies to the person with respect to any violation of the sanction or post-release control sanction based on a minor drug possession offense, as defined in R.C. §2925.11, or a violation of R.C. §2925.12, R.C. §2925.14(C)(1), or R.C. §2925.141.

(d)   Nothing in division (B)(2)(b) of this section shall be construed to do any of the following:

  1. Limit the admissibility of any evidence in connection with the investigation or prosecution of a crime with regards to a defendant who does not qualify for the protections of division (B)(2)(b) of this section or with regards to any crime other than a minor drug possession offense or a violation of R.C. §2925.12, R.C. §2925.14(C)(1), or R.C. §2925.141 committed by a person who qualifies for protection pursuant to division (B)(2)(b) of this section;
  1. Limit any seizure of evidence or contraband otherwise permitted by law;
  1. Limit or abridge the authority of a peace officer to detain or take into custody a person in the course of an investigation or to effectuate an arrest for any offense except as provided in that division;
  1. Limit, modify, or remove any immunity from liability available pursuant to law in effect prior to September 13, 2016 to any public agency or to an employee of any public agency.

(e)   Division (B)(2)(b) of this section does not apply to any person who twice previously has been granted an immunity under division (B)(2)(b) of this section. No person shall be granted an immunity under division (B)(2)(b) of this section more than two times.

(f)   Nothing in this section shall compel any qualified individual to disclose protected health information in a way that conflicts with the requirements of the AHealth Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996@, 104 Pub. L. No. 191, 110 Stat. 2021, 42 U.S.C. §§ 1320d et seq., as amended, and regulations promulgated by the United States Department of Health and Human Services to implement the act or the requirements of 42 C.F.R. Part 2.

(C)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of one of the following:

(1)   If the drug involved in the violation is a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance included in Schedule I or Schedule II, with the exception of marihuana or hashish, whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(2)   If the drug involved in the violation is a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance included in Schedule III, Schedule IV, or Schedule V, whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of possession of drugs. The penalty for the offense shall be determined as follows:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(b) of this section, possession of drugs is a misdemeanor of the first degree or, if the offender previously has been convicted of a drug abuse offense, a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(b)   If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds the bulk amount, possession of drugs is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   If the drug involved in the violation is marihuana or a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing marihuana other than hashish, whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of possession of marihuana. The penalty for the offense shall be determined as follows:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3)(b) or (C)(3)(c) of this section, possession of marihuana is a minor misdemeanor.

(b)   If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 100 grams but is less than 200 grams, possession of marihuana is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(c)   If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 200 grams, possession of marihuana is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(4)   If the drug involved in the violation is hashish or a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing hashish, whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of possession of hashish. The penalty for the offense shall be determined as follows:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(4)(b) or (C)(4)(c) of this section, possession of hashish is a minor misdemeanor.

(b)   If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five grams but is less than ten grams of hashish in a solid form or equals or exceeds one gram but is less than two grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form, possession of hashish is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(c)   If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams of hashish in a solid form or equals or exceeds two grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form, possession of hashish is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(5)   If the drug involved in the violation is a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is a combination of a fentanyl-related compound and marihuana, one of the following applies:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(5)(b) of this section, the offender is guilty of possession of marihuana and shall be punished as provided in division (C)(3) of this section. Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(5)(b) of this section, the offender is not guilty of possession of a fentanyl-related compound under R.C. §2925.11(C)(11) and shall not be charged with, convicted of, or punished under R.C. §2925.11(C)(11) for possession of a fentanyl-related compound.

(b)   If the offender knows or has reason to know that the compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is the drug involved contains a fentanyl-related compound, the offender is guilty of possession of a fentanyl-related compound and shall be punished under R.C. §2925.11(C)(11).

(6)   If the drug involved in the violation is a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is a combination of a fentanyl-related compound and any Schedule III, Schedule IV, or Schedule V controlled substance that is not a fentanyl-related compound, one of the following applies:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6)(b) of this section, the offender is guilty of possession of drugs and shall be punished as provided in division (C)(2) of this section. Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6)(b) of this section, the offender is not guilty of possession of a fentanyl-related compound under R.C. §2925.11(C)(11) and shall not be charged with, convicted of, or punished under R.C. §2925.11(C)(11) for possession of a fentanyl-related compound.

(b)   If the offender knows or has reason to know that the compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is the drug involved contains a fentanyl-related compound, the offender is guilty of possession of a fentanyl-related compound and shall be punished under R.C. §2925.11(C)(11).

(D)  Arrest or conviction for a minor misdemeanor violation of this section does not constitute a criminal record and need not be reported by the person so arrested or convicted in response to any inquiries about the person’s criminal record, including any inquiries contained in any application for employment, license, or other right or privilege, or made in connection with the person’s appearance as a witness.

(E)  (1)   In addition to any prison term or jail term authorized or required by division (C) of this section and R.C. §§ 2929.13, 2929.14, 2929.22, 2929.24, and 2929.25, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, and in addition to any other sanction that is imposed for the offense under this section, R.C. §§ 2929.11 through 2929.18, or R.C. §§ 2929.21 through 2929.28, or any substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, the court that sentences an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (A) of this section may suspend the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit for not more than five years. However, if the offender pleaded guilty to or was convicted of a violation of R.C. §4511.19 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or the law of another state or the United States arising out of the same set of circumstances as the violation, the court shall suspend the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit for not more than five years.

(2)   If the offender is a professionally licensed person, in addition to any other sanction imposed for a violation of this section, the court immediately shall comply with R.C. §2925.38.

(F)   (1)   Any offender who received a mandatory suspension of the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit under this section prior to September 13, 2016 may file a motion with the sentencing court requesting the termination of the suspension. However, an offender who pleaded guilty to or was convicted of a violation of R.C. §4511.19 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or law of another state or the United States that arose out of the same set of circumstances as the violation for which the offender’s license or permit was suspended under this section shall not file such a motion.

(2)   Upon the filing of a motion under division (F) of this section, the sentencing court, in its discretion, may terminate the suspension.

(R.C. §2925.11)  (Prior Code, §138.04)

Statutory reference:

Felony drug possession offenses, see R.C. § 2925.11(C)

§ 138.05  POSSESSING DRUG ABUSE INSTRUMENTS.

(A)  No person shall knowingly make, obtain, possess, or use any instrument, article, or thing the customary and primary purpose of which is for the administration or use of a dangerous drug, other than marihuana, when the instrument involved is a hypodermic or syringe, whether or not of crude or extemporized manufacture or assembly, and the instrument, article, or thing involved has been used by the offender to unlawfully administer or use a dangerous drug, other than marihuana, or to prepare a dangerous drug, other than marihuana, for unlawful administration or use.

(B)  (1)   This section does not apply to manufacturers, licensed health professionals authorized to prescribe drugs, pharmacists, owners of pharmacies, and other persons whose conduct was in accordance with R.C. Chapters 3719, 4715, 4723, 4729, 4730, 4731, and 4741.

(2)   Division (B)(2) of R.C. §2925.11 applies with respect to a violation of this section when a person seeks or obtains medical assistance for another person who is experiencing a drug overdose, a person experiences a drug overdose and seeks medical assistance for that overdose, or a person is the subject of another person seeking or obtaining medical assistance for that overdose.

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of possessing drug abuse instruments, a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a drug abuse offense, violation of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(D)  (1)   In addition to any other sanction imposed upon an offender for a violation of this section, the court may suspend for not more than five years the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit. However, if the offender pleaded guilty to or was convicted of a violation of R.C. §4511.19 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or the law of another state or the United States arising out of the same set of circumstances as the violation, the court shall suspend the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit for not more than five years. If the offender is a professionally licensed person, in addition to any other sanction imposed for a violation of this section, the court immediately shall comply with R.C. §2925.38.

(2)   (a)   Any offender who received a mandatory suspension of the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit under this section prior to September 13, 2016, may file a motion with the sentencing court requesting the termination of the suspension. However, an offender who pleaded guilty to or was convicted of a violation of R.C. §4511.19 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or law of another state or the United States that arose out of the same set of circumstances as the violation for which the offender’s license or permit was suspended under this section shall not file such a motion.

(b)   Upon the filing of a motion under division (D)(2) of this section, the sentencing court, in its discretion, may terminate the suspension.

(R.C. §2925.12)  (Prior Code, §138.05)

§ 138.06  PERMITTING DRUG ABUSE.

(A)  No person who is the owner, operator, or person in charge of a locomotive, watercraft, aircraft, or other vehicle, as defined in R.C. §4501.01, shall knowingly permit the vehicle to be used for the commission of a felony drug abuse offense.

(B)  No person, who is the owner, lessee, or occupant, or who has custody, control, or supervision of premises, or real estate, including vacant land, shall knowingly permit his or her premises, or real estate, including vacant land, to be used for the commission of a felony drug abuse offense by another person.

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of permitting drug abuse.

(1)   Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, permitting drug abuse is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(2)   Permitting drug abuse is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law if the felony drug abuse offense in question is a violation of R.C. §2925.02, 2925.03, or 2925.04, or if the felony drug abuse offense in question is a violation of R.C. §2925.041 and the offender had actual knowledge, at the time the offender permitted the vehicle, premises, or real estate to be used as described in division (A) or (B) of this section, that the person who assembled or possessed the chemicals in question in violation of R.C. §2925.041 had assembled or possessed them with the intent to manufacture a controlled substance in Schedule I or Schedule II in violation of R.C. §2925.04.

(D)  Any premises or real estate that is permitted to be used in violation of division (B) of this section constitutes a nuisance subject to abatement pursuant to R.C. Chapter 3767.

(R.C. §2925.13(A) – (C), (F))  (Prior Code, §138.06)

§ 138.07  ABUSING HARMFUL INTOXICANTS.

(A)  Except for lawful research, clinical, medical, dental, or veterinary purposes, no person, with purpose to induce intoxication or similar physiological effects, shall obtain, possess, or use a harmful intoxicant.

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of abusing harmful intoxicants, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a drug abuse offense, abusing harmful intoxicants is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(C)  (1)   In addition to any other sanction imposed upon an offender for a violation of this section, the court may suspend for not more than five years the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit. However, if the offender pleaded guilty to or was convicted of a violation of R.C. §4511.19 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or the law of another state or the United States arising out of the same set of circumstances as the violation, the court shall suspend the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit for not more than five years. If the offender is a professionally licensed person, in addition to any other sanction imposed for a violation of this section, the court immediately shall comply with R.C. §2925.38.

(2)   (a)   Any offender who received a mandatory suspension of the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit under this section prior to the September 13, 2016 may file a motion with the sentencing court requesting the termination of the suspension. However, an offender who pleaded guilty to or was convicted of a violation of R.C. §4511.19 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or law of another state or the United States that arose out of the same set of circumstances as the violation for which the offender’s license or permit was suspended under this section shall not file such a motion.

(b)   Upon the filing of a motion under division (C)(2) of this section, the sentencing court, in its discretion, may terminate the suspension.

(R.C. §2925.31)  (Prior Code, §138.07)

§ 138.08  NITROUS OXIDE; IMPROPER DISPENSING OR DISTRIBUTION; POSSESSION IN A MOTOR VEHICLE.

(A)  Improper dispensing or distribution.

(1)   No person who dispenses or distributes nitrous oxide in cartridges shall fail to comply with either of the following:

(a)   The record-keeping requirements established under division (A)(3) of this section.

(b)   The labeling and transaction identification requirements established under division (A)(4) of this section.

(2)   Whoever violates division (A)(1)(a) or (A)(1)(b) of this section is guilty of improperly dispensing or distributing nitrous oxide, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(3)   Beginning July 1, 2001, a person who dispenses or distributes nitrous oxide shall record each transaction involving the dispensing or distribution of the nitrous oxide on a separate card. The person shall require the purchaser to sign the card and provide a complete residence address. The person dispensing or distributing the nitrous oxide shall sign and date the card. The person shall retain the card recording a transaction for one year from the date of the transaction. The person shall maintain the cards at the person’s business address and make them available during normal business hours for inspection and copying by officers or employees of the State Board of Pharmacy or of other law enforcement agencies that are authorized to investigate violations of this code, R.C. Chapters 2925, 3719, or 4729, or federal drug abuse control laws. The cards used to record each transaction shall inform the purchaser of the following:

(a)   That nitrous oxide cartridges are to be used only for purposes of preparing food;

(b)   That inhalation of nitrous oxide can have dangerous health effects; and

(c)   That it is a violation of state law to distribute or dispense cartridges of nitrous oxide to any person under age 21, punishable as a felony of the fifth degree.

(4)   (a)   Each cartridge of nitrous oxide dispensed or distributed in this municipality shall bear the following printed warning: ANitrous oxide cartridges are to be used only for purposes of preparing food. Nitrous oxide cartridges may not be sold to persons under age 21. Do not inhale contents. Misuse can be dangerous to your health.@

(b)   Each time a person dispenses or distributes one or more cartridges of nitrous oxide, the person shall mark the packaging containing the cartridges with a label or other device that identifies the person who dispensed or distributed the nitrous oxide and the person’s business address.

(R.C. §2925.32(B)(4), (D)(2), (F), (G))

(B)  Possession in a motor vehicle.

(1)   As used in this section, MOTOR VEHICLE, STREET and HIGHWAY have the same meaning as in R.C. §4511.01.

(2)   Unless authorized by this code or by state law, no person shall possess an open cartridge of nitrous oxide in either of the following circumstances:

(a)   While operating or being a passenger in or on a motor vehicle on a street, highway, or other public or private property open to the public for purposes of vehicular traffic or parking.

(b)   While being in or on a stationary motor vehicle on a street, highway, or other public or private property open to the public for purposes of vehicular traffic or parking.

(3)   Whoever violates this division (B) is guilty of possessing nitrous oxide in a motor vehicle, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(4)   In addition to any other sanction imposed upon an offender for possessing nitrous oxide in a motor vehicle, the court may suspend for not more than five years the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit.

(R.C. §2925.33)

(Prior Code, §138.08)

Statutory reference:

Trafficking in harmful intoxicants, see R.C. § 2925.32

§ 138.09  COUNTERFEIT CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES.

(A)  No person shall knowingly possess any counterfeit controlled substance.

(B)  Whoever violates division (A) of this section shall be guilty of possession of counterfeit controlled substances, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2925.37(A), (G))  (Prior Code, §138.09)

Statutory reference:

Trafficking and other felony counterfeit controlled substance offenses, see R.C. § 2925.37(H) – (M)

§ 138.10  USE, POSSESSION, OR SALE OF DRUG PARAPHERNALIA.

(A)  As used in this section, DRUG PARAPHERNALIA means any equipment, product, or material of any kind that is used by the offender, intended by the offender for use, or designed for use, in propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body, a controlled substance in violation of this chapter. The term includes but is not limited to any of the following equipment, products, or materials that are used by the offender, intended by the offender for use, or designed by the offender for use, in any of the following manners:

(1)   A kit for propagating, cultivating, growing, or harvesting any species of a plant that is a controlled substance or from which a controlled substance can be derived.

(2)   A kit for manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, or preparing a controlled substance.

(3)   Any object, instrument, or device for manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, or preparing methamphetamine.

(4)   An isomerization device for increasing the potency of any species of a plant that is a controlled substance.

(5)   Testing equipment for identifying, or analyzing the strength, effectiveness, or purity of, a controlled substance, except for those exempted in division (D)(4) of this section;

(6)   A scale or balance for weighing or measuring a controlled substance.

(7)   A diluent or adulterant, such as quinine hydrochloride, mannitol, mannite, dextrose, or lactose, for cutting a controlled substance.

(8)   A separation gin or sifter for removing twigs and seeds from, or otherwise cleaning or refining, marihuana.

(9)   A blender, bowl, container, spoon, or mixing device for compounding a controlled substance.

(10)  A capsule, balloon, envelope, or container for packaging small quantities of a controlled substance.

(11)  A container or device for storing or concealing a controlled substance.

(12)  A hypodermic syringe, needle, or instrument for parenterally injecting a controlled substance into the human body.

(13)  An object, instrument, or device for ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body, marihuana, cocaine, hashish, or hashish oil, such as a metal, wooden, acrylic, glass, stone, plastic, or ceramic pipe, with or without a screen, permanent screen, hashish head, or punctured metal bowl; water pipe; carburetion tube or device; smoking or carburetion mask; roach clip or similar object used to hold burning material, such as a marihuana cigarette, that has become too small or too short to be held in the hand; miniature cocaine spoon, or cocaine vial; chamber pipe; carburetor pipe; electric pipe; air driver pipe; chillum; bong; or ice pipe or chiller.

(B)  In determining if any equipment, product, or material is drug paraphernalia, a court or law enforcement officer shall consider, in addition to other relevant factors, the following:

(1)   Any statement by the owner or by anyone in control of the equipment, product, or material, concerning its use.

(2)   The proximity in time or space of the equipment, product, or material, or of the act relating to the equipment, product, or material, to a violation of any provision of this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2925.

(3)   The proximity of the equipment, product, or material to any controlled substance.

(4)   The existence of any residue of a controlled substance on the equipment, product, or material.

(5)   Direct or circumstantial evidence of the intent of the owner, or of anyone in control, of the equipment, product, or material, to deliver it to any person whom he or she knows intends to use the equipment, product, or material to facilitate a violation of any provision of this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2925. A finding that the owner or anyone in control of the equipment, product, or material is not guilty of a violation of any other provision of this chapter or R.C. Chapter 2925 does not prevent a finding that the equipment, product, or material was intended or designed by the offender for use as drug paraphernalia.

(6)   Any oral or written instruction provided with the equipment, product, or material concerning its use.

(7)   Any descriptive material accompanying the equipment, product, or material and explaining or depicting its use.

(8)   National or local advertising concerning the use of the equipment, product, or material.

(9)   The manner and circumstances in which the equipment, product, or material is displayed for sale.

(10)  Direct or circumstantial evidence of the ratio of the sales of the equipment, product, or material to the total sales of the business enterprise.

(11)  The existence and scope of legitimate uses of the equipment, product, or material in the community.

(12)  Expert testimony concerning the use of the equipment, product, or material.

(C)  (1)   Subject to divisions (D)(2), (D)(3), and (D)(4) of this section, no person shall knowingly use, or possess with purpose to use, drug paraphernalia.

(2)   No person shall knowingly sell, or possess or manufacture with purpose to sell, drug paraphernalia, if he or she knows or reasonably should know that the equipment, product, or material will be used as drug paraphernalia.

(3)   No person shall place an advertisement in any newspaper, magazine, handbill, or other publication that is published and printed and circulates primarily within this state, if he or she knows that the purpose of the advertisement is to promote the illegal sale in this municipality or in this state of the equipment, product, or material that the offender intended or designed for use as drug paraphernalia.

(D)  (1)   This section does not apply to manufacturers, licensed health professionals authorized to prescribe drugs, pharmacists, owners of pharmacies, and other persons whose conduct is in accordance with R.C. Chapters 3719, 4715, 4723, 4729, 4730, 4731, and 4741. This section shall not be construed to prohibit the possession or use of a hypodermic as authorized by R.C. §3719.172.

(2)   Division (C)(1) of this section does not apply to a person’s use, or possession with purpose to use, any drug paraphernalia that is equipment, a product, or material of any kind that is used by the person, intended by the person for use, or designed for use in storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body marihuana.

(3)   Division (B)(2) of R.C. §2925.11 applies with respect to a violation of division (C)(1) of this section when a person seeks or obtains medical assistance for another person who is experiencing a drug overdose, a person experiences a drug overdose and seeks medical assistance for that overdose, or a person is the subject of another person seeking or obtaining medical assistance for that overdose.

(4)   Division (C)(1) of this section does not apply to a person’s use, or possession with purpose to use, any drug testing strips to determine the presence of fentanyl or a fentanyl-related compound.

(E)  Notwithstanding R.C. Chapter 2981, any drug paraphernalia that was used, possessed, sold, or manufactured in violation of this section shall be seized, after a conviction for that violation, shall be forfeited, and upon forfeiture shall be disposed of pursuant to R.C. §2981.12(B).

(F)   (1)   Whoever violates division (C)(1) of this section is guilty of illegal use or possession of drug paraphernalia, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(2)   Except as provided in division (F)(3) of this section, whoever violates division (C)(2) of this section is guilty of dealing in drug paraphernalia, a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(3)   Whoever violates division (C)(2) of this section by selling drug paraphernalia to a juvenile is guilty of selling drug paraphernalia to juveniles, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(4)   Whoever violates division (C)(3) of this section is guilty of illegal advertising of drug paraphernalia, a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(G)  (1)   In addition to any other sanction imposed upon an offender for a violation of this section, the court may suspend for not more than five years the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit. However, if the offender pleaded guilty to or was convicted of a violation of R.C. §4511.19 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or the law of another state or the United States arising out of the same set of circumstances as the violation, the court shall suspend the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit for not more than five years. If the offender is a professionally licensed person, in addition to any other sanction imposed for a violation of this section, the court immediately shall comply with R.C. §2925.38.

(2)   (a)   Any offender who received a mandatory suspension of the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit under this section prior to September 13, 2016, may file a motion with the sentencing court requesting the termination of the suspension. However, an offender who pleaded guilty to or was convicted of a violation of R.C. §4511.19 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or law of another state or the United States that arose out of the same set of circumstances as the violation for which the offender’s license or permit was suspended under this section shall not file such a motion.

(b)   Upon the filing of a motion under division (G)(2) of this section, the sentencing court, in its discretion, may terminate the suspension.

(R.C. §2925.14)

(H)  Illegal use or possession of marihuana drug paraphernalia.

(1)   As used in this division (H), DRUG PARAPHERNALIA has the same meaning as in division (A) of this section.

(2)   In determining if any equipment, product, or material is drug paraphernalia, a court or law enforcement officer shall consider, in addition to other relevant factors, all factors identified in division (B) of this section.

(3)   No person shall knowingly use, or possess with purpose to use, any drug paraphernalia that is equipment, a product, or material of any kind that is used by the person, intended by the person for use, or designed for use in storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body marihuana.

(4)   This division (H) does not apply to any person identified in division (D)(1) of this section, and it shall not be construed to prohibit the possession or use of a hypodermic as authorized by R.C. §3719.172.

(5)   (a)   Division (E) of this section applies with respect to any drug paraphernalia that was used or possessed in violation of division (H) of this section.

(b)   Division (B)(2) of R.C. §2925.11 applies with respect to a violation of this division (H) when a person seeks or obtains medical assistance for another person who is experiencing a drug overdose, a person experiences a drug overdose and seeks medical assistance for that overdose, or a person is the subject of another person seeking or obtaining medical assistance for that overdose.

(6)   (a)   Whoever violates division (H)(3) of this section is guilty of illegal use or possession of marihuana drug paraphernalia, a minor misdemeanor.

(b)   Arrest or conviction for a violation of division (H)(3) of this section does not constitute a criminal record and need not be reported by the person so arrested or convicted in response to any inquiries about the person’s criminal record, including any inquiries contained in any application for employment, license, or other right or privilege, or made in connection with the person’s appearance as a witness.

(7)   (a)   In addition to any other sanction imposed upon an offender for a violation of division (H) of this section, the court shall do the following, if applicable:

  1. If the offender pleaded guilty to or was convicted of a violation of R.C. §4511.19 or a substantially similar municipal ordinance or the law of another state or the United States arising out of the same set of circumstances as the violation, the court shall suspend the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit for not more than five years.
  1. If the offender is a professionally licensed person, the court immediately shall comply with R.C. §2925.38.

(b) 1.      Any offender who received a mandatory suspension of the offender’s driver’s or commercial driver’s license or permit under division (H) of this section prior to September 13, 2016, may file a motion with the sentencing court requesting the termination of the suspension. However, an offender who pleaded guilty to or was convicted of a violation of R.C. §4511.19 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance or law of another state or the United States that arose out of the same set of circumstances as the violation for which the offender’s license or permit was suspended under division (H) of this section shall not file such a motion.

  1. Upon the filing of a motion under division (H)(7)(b) of this section, the sentencing court, in its discretion, may terminate the suspension.

(R.C. §2925.141)

(Prior Code, §138.10)

§ 138.11  ILLEGAL CULTIVATION OF MARIHUANA.

(A)  No person shall knowingly cultivate marihuana.

(B)  This section does not apply to any person listed in R.C. §2925.03(B)(1), (B)(2) or (B)(3), or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, to the extent and under the circumstances described in that division.

(C)  Whoever commits a violation of division (A) of this section is guilty of illegal cultivation of marihuana.

(1)   Except as otherwise provided in the following divisions, illegal cultivation of marihuana is a minor misdemeanor or, if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(2)   If the amount of marihuana involved equals or exceeds 100 grams but is less than 200 grams, illegal cultivation of marihuana is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree or, if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, a misdemeanor of the third degree.

(3)   If the amount of marihuana involved equals or exceeds 200 grams, illegal cultivation of marihuana is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(D)  Arrest or conviction for a minor misdemeanor violation of this section does not constitute a criminal record and need not be reported by the person so arrested or convicted in response to any inquiries about the person’s criminal record, including any inquiries contained in any application for employment, license, or other right or privilege, or made in connection with the person’s appearance as a witness.

(R.C. §2925.04(A), (B), (C)(5), (G))

Statutory reference:

Illegal manufacturing of controlled substances, felony, see R.C. § 2925.04

Sale or use of drugs not approved by Food and Drug Administration, felony, see R.C. § 2925.09

§ 138.12  ILLEGAL DISPENSING OF DRUG SAMPLES.

(A)  No person shall knowingly furnish a sample drug to another person.

(B)  Division (A) of this section does not apply to manufacturers, wholesalers, pharmacists, owners of pharmacies, licensed health professionals authorized to prescribe drugs, and other persons whose conduct is in accordance with R.C. Chapters 3719, 4715, 4723, 4725, 4729, 4730, 4731, and 4741.

(C)  (1)   Whoever violates this section is guilty of illegal dispensing of drug samples.

(2)   If the drug involved in the offense is a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance included in Schedule I or Schedule II, with the exception of marihuana, illegal dispensing of drug samples is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law.

(3)   If the drug involved in the offense is a dangerous drug or a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance included in Schedule III, Schedule IV or Schedule V, or is marihuana, the penalty for the offense shall be determined as follows:

(a)   Except as otherwise provided in the following division, illegal dispensing of drug samples is a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(b)   If the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, illegal dispensing of drug samples is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §2925.36(A) – (C))

Statutory reference:

Felony offenses, see R.C. § 2925.36(C)(2)

§ 138.13  FEDERAL PROSECUTION BAR TO MUNICIPAL PROSECUTION.

No person shall be prosecuted for a violation of this chapter if the person has been acquitted or convicted under the federal drug abuse control laws of the same act or omission which, it is alleged, constitutes a violation of this chapter.

(R.C. §§ 2925.50, 3719.19)

§ 138.14  LABORATORY REPORT REQUIRED.

(A)  (1)   In any criminal prosecution for a violation of this chapter or R.C. Chapters 2925 or 3719, a laboratory report from the Bureau of Criminal Identification and Investigation or a laboratory operated by another law enforcement agency, or a laboratory established by or under the authority of an institution of higher education that has its main campus in this state and that is accredited by the Association of American Universities or the North Central Association of Colleges and Secondary Schools, primarily for the purpose of providing scientific service to law enforcement agencies, and signed by the person performing the analysis, stating that the substance that is the basis of the alleged offense has been weighed and analyzed and stating the findings as to the content, weight, and identity of the substance and that it contains any amount of a controlled substance and the number and description of unit dosages, is prima facie evidence of the content, identity, and weight or the existence and number of unit dosages of the substance. In any criminal prosecution for a violation of R.C. §2925.041 or a violation of this chapter, R.C. Chapter 2925 or R.C. Chapter 3719 that is based on the possession of chemicals sufficient to produce a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance included in Schedule I, II, III, IV, or V, a laboratory report from the Bureau or from any laboratory that is operated or established as described in this division that is signed by the person performing the analysis, stating that the substances that are the basis of the alleged offense have been weighed and analyzed and stating the findings as to the content, weight, and identity of each of the substances, is prima facie evidence of the content, identity, and weight of the substances.

(2)   Attached to that report shall be a copy of a notarized statement by the signer of the report giving the name of the signer and stating that the signer is an employee of the laboratory issuing the report and that performing the analysis is a part of the signer’s regular duties, and giving an outline of the signer’s education, training, and experience for performing an analysis of materials included under this section. The signer shall attest that scientifically accepted tests were performed with due caution, and that the evidence was handled in accordance with established and accepted procedures while in the custody of the laboratory.

(B)  The prosecuting attorney shall serve a copy of the report on the attorney of record for the accused, or on the accused if the accused has no attorney, prior to any proceeding in which the report is to be used against the accused other than at a preliminary hearing or grand jury proceeding where the report may be used without having been previously served upon the accused.

(C)  The report shall not be prima facie evidence of the contents, identity, and weight or the existence and number of unit dosages of the substance if the accused or the accused’s attorney demands the testimony of the person signing the report, by serving the demand upon the prosecuting attorney, within seven days from the accused or the accused’s attorney’s receipt of the report. The time may be extended by a trial judge in the interests of justice.

(D)  Any report issued for use under this section shall contain notice of the right of the accused to demand, and the manner in which the accused shall demand, the testimony of the person signing the report.

(E)  Any person who is accused of a violation of this chapter or R.C. Chapters 2925 or 3719 is entitled, upon written request made to the prosecuting attorney, to have a portion of the substance that is, or of each of the substances that are, the basis of the alleged violation preserved for the benefit of independent analysis performed by a laboratory analyst employed by the accused person, or, if the accused is indigent, by a qualified laboratory analyst appointed by the court. Such portion shall be a representative sample of the entire substance that is, or of each of the substances that are, the basis of the alleged violation and shall be of sufficient size, in the opinion of the court, to permit the accused’s analyst to make a thorough scientific analysis concerning the identity of the substance or substances. The prosecuting attorney shall provide the accused’s analyst with the sample portion at least 14 days prior to trial, unless the trial is to be held in a court not of record or unless the accused person is charged with a minor misdemeanor, in which case the prosecuting attorney shall provide the accused’s analyst with the sample portion at least three days prior to trial. If the prosecuting attorney determines that such a sample portion cannot be preserved and given to the accused’s analyst, the prosecuting attorney shall so inform the accused person, or the accused’s attorney. In such a circumstance, the accused person is entitled, upon written request made to the prosecuting attorney, to have the accused’s privately employed or court appointed analyst present at an analysis of the substance that is, or the substances that are, the basis of the alleged violation, and, upon further written request, to receive copies of all recorded scientific data that result from the analysis and that can be used by an analyst in arriving at conclusions, findings, or opinions concerning the identity of the substance or substances subject to the analysis.

(F)   In addition to the rights provided under division (E) of this section, any person who is accused of a violation of this chapter or R.C. Chapters 2925 or 3719 that involves a bulk amount of a controlled substance, or any multiple thereof, or who is accused of a violation of R.C. §2925.11 or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, other than a minor misdemeanor violation, that involves marihuana, is entitled, upon written request made to the prosecuting attorney, to have a laboratory analyst of the accused’s choice, or, if the accused is indigent, a qualified laboratory analyst appointed by the court, present at a measurement or weighing of the substance that is the basis of the alleged violation. Also, the accused person is entitled, upon further written request, to receive copies of all recorded scientific data that result from the measurement or weighing and that can be used by an analyst in arriving at conclusions, findings, or opinions concerning the weight, volume, or number of unit doses of the substance subject to the measurement or weighing.

(R.C. §2925.51)

(G)  In addition to the financial sanctions authorized or required under R.C. §§ 2929.18 and 2929.28 and to any costs otherwise authorized or required under any provision of law, the court imposing sentence upon an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a drug abuse offense may order the offender to pay to the state, municipal, or county law enforcement agencies that handled the investigation and prosecution all of the costs that the state, municipal corporation, or county reasonably incurred in having tests performed under this section or R.C. §2925.51 or in any other manner on any substance that was the basis of, or involved in, the offense to determine whether the substance contained any amount of a controlled substance if the results of the tests indicate that the substance tested contained any controlled substance. No court shall order an offender under this section to pay the costs of tests performed on a substance if the results of the tests do not indicate that the substance tested contained any controlled substance. The court shall hold a hearing to determine the amount of costs to be imposed under this section. The court may hold the hearing as part of the sentencing hearing for the offender.

(R.C. §2925.511)

§ 138.15  CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE OR PRESCRIPTION LABELS.

(A)  Whenever a manufacturer sells a controlled substance, and whenever a wholesaler, repackager, or outsourcing facility sells a controlled substance in a package the wholesaler, repackager, or outsourcing facility has prepared, the manufacturer or the wholesaler, repackager, or outsourcing facility, as the case may be, shall securely affix to each package in which the controlled substance is contained a label showing in legible English the name and address of the vendor and the quantity, kind, and form of controlled substance contained therein. No person, except a pharmacist for the purpose of dispensing a controlled substance upon a prescription shall alter, deface, or remove any label so affixed. As used in this division, Arepackager@ and Aoutsourcing facility@ have the same meanings as in R.C. §4729.01.

(B)  No person shall alter, deface or remove any label affixed pursuant to R.C. §3719.08 as long as any of the original contents remain.

(R.C. §3719.08(A), (E))

(C)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of this section, or R.C. §3719.07 or 3719.08, or a drug abuse offense, a violation of this section is a felony to be prosecuted under appropriate state law. If the violation involves the sale, offer to sell, or possession of a Schedule I or II controlled substance, with the exception of marihuana, and if the offender, as a result of the violation, is a major drug offender, then R.C. §3719.99(D) applies.

(R.C. §3719.99(C))

§ 138.16  POSSESSION, SALE, AND DISPOSAL OF HYPODERMICS.

(A)  Possession of a hypodermic is authorized for the following:

(1)   A manufacturer or distributor of, or dealer in hypodermics, or medication packaged in hypodermics, and any authorized agent of employee of that manufacturer, distributor or dealer, in the regular course of business;

(2)   A terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, in the regular course of business;

(3)   A person authorized to administer injections, in the regular course of the person’s profession or employment;

(4)   A person, when the hypodermic in his possession was lawfully obtained and is kept and used for the purpose of self-administration of insulin or other drug prescribed for the treatment of disease by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs;

(5)   A person whose use of a hypodermic is for legal research, clinical, educational or medicinal purposes;

(6)   A farmer, for the lawful administration of a drug to an animal;

(7)   A person whose use of a hypodermic is for lawful professional, mechanical, trade or craft purposes.

(B)  No manufacturer or distributor of, or dealer in, hypodermics or medication packaged in hypodermics, or their authorized agents or employees, and no terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, shall display any hypodermic for sale. No person authorized to possess a hypodermic pursuant to division (A) of this section shall negligently fail to take reasonable precautions to prevent any hypodermic in the person’s possession from theft or acquisition by any unauthorized person.

(R.C. §3719.172(A), (B))

(C)  Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of a violation of division (B) of this section, R.C. §3719.05, 3719.06, 3719.13, 3719.172(B), or 3719.31, or a drug abuse offense, a violation of division (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §3719.99(E))

Statutory reference:

Felony offenses, see R.C. § 3719.172(C) and (D)

§ 138.17  CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE SCHEDULES.

Controlled Substance Schedules I, II, III, IV, and V, as established in R.C. §3719.41 and amended by R.C. §§ 3719.43 and 3719.44, are hereby adopted by reference, and shall be treated as if set forth in full herein.

§ 138.18  UNLAWFUL FURNISHING OF PRESCRIPTION TO ENABLE PERSONS TO BE ISSUED HANDICAPPED PARKING PLACARDS OR LICENSE PLATES.

(A)  No physician or chiropractor shall do either of the following:

(1)   Furnish a person with a prescription in order to enable the person to be issued a removable windshield placard, temporary removable windshield placard, or license plates under R.C. §4503.44, knowing that the person does not meet any of the criteria contained in R.C. §4503.44(A)(1).

(2)   Furnish a person with a prescription described in division (A)(1) of this section and knowingly misstate on the prescription the length of time the physician or chiropractor expects the person to have the disability that limits or impairs the person’s ability to walk in order to enable the person to retain a placard issued under R.C. §4503.44 for a period of time longer than that which would be estimated by a similar practitioner under the same or similar circumstances.

(R.C. §§ 4731.481, 4734.161)

(B)  Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(R.C. §§ 4731.99(F), 4734.99(B))

§ 138.19  SALE OF PSEUDOEPHEDRINE.

(A)  Unlawful purchases.

(1)   As used in divisions (A), (B), (C) and (D) of this section:

CONSUMER PRODUCT. Any food or drink that is consumed or used by humans and any drug, including a drug that may be provided legally only pursuant to a prescription, that is intended to be consumed or used by humans.

EPHEDRINE. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of ephedrine, any of its salts, optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers.

EPHEDRINE PRODUCT. A consumer product that contains ephedrine.

PSEUDOEPHEDRINE. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of pseudoephedrine, any of its salts, optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers.

PSEUDOEPHEDRINE PRODUCT. A consumer product that contains pseudoephedrine.

RETAILER. A place of business that offers consumer products for sale to the general public.

SINGLE-INGREDIENT PREPARATION. A compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that contains a single active ingredient.

TERMINAL DISTRIBUTOR OF DANGEROUS DRUGS. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §4729.01.

(2)   (a) 1.      No individual shall knowingly purchase, receive, or otherwise acquire an amount of pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product that is greater than either of the following unless the pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product is dispensed by a pharmacist pursuant to a valid prescription issued by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs and the conduct of the pharmacist and the licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs is in accordance with R.C. Chapter 3719, 4715, 4723, 4729, 4730, 4731, or 4741:

  1. Three and six tenths grams within a period of a single day;
  1. Nine grams within a period of 30 consecutive days.
  1. The limits specified in divisions (A)(2)(a)1.a. and (A)(2)(a)1.b. of this section apply to the total amount of base pseudoephedrine or base ephedrine in the pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, respectively. The limits do not apply to the product’s overall weight.

(b)   It is not a violation of division (B)(1) of this section for an individual to receive or accept more than an amount of pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product specified in division (A)(2)(a)1.a. or (A)(2)(a)1.b. of this section if the individual is an employee of a retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, and the employee receives or accepts from the retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs the pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product in a sealed container in connection with manufacturing, warehousing, placement, stocking, bagging, loading, or unloading of the product.

(3)   (a)   No individual under 18 years of age shall knowingly purchase, receive, or otherwise acquire a pseudoephedrine product, or ephedrine product unless the pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product is dispensed by a pharmacist pursuant to a valid prescription issued by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs and the conduct of the pharmacist and the licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs is in accordance with R.C. Chapter 3719, 4715, 4723, 4729, 4730, 4731, or 4741.

(b)   Division (A)(3)(a) of this section does not apply to an individual under 18 years of age who purchases, receives, or otherwise acquires a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product from any of the following:

  1. A licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs or pharmacist who dispenses, sells, or otherwise provides the pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to that individual and whose conduct is in accordance with R.C. Chapter 3719, 4715, 4723, 4729, 4730, 4731, or 4741;
  1. A parent or guardian of that individual who provides the pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to the individual;
  1. A person, as authorized by that individual’s parent or guardian, who dispenses, sells, or otherwise provides the pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to the individual;
  1. A retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs who provides the pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to that individual if the individual is an employee of the retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs and the individual receives or accepts from the retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs the pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product in a sealed container in connection with manufacturing, warehousing, placement, stocking, bagging, loading, or unloading of the product.

(4)   No individual under 18 years of age shall knowingly show or give false information concerning the individual’s name, age, or other identification for the purpose of purchasing, receiving, or otherwise acquiring a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product.

(5)   No individual shall knowingly fail to comply with the requirements of R.C. §3715.051(B).

(6)   Whoever violates division (A)(2)(a) of this section is guilty of unlawful purchase of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(7)   Whoever violates division (A)(3)(a) of this section is guilty of underage purchase of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, a delinquent act that would be a misdemeanor of the fourth degree if it could be committed by an adult.

(8)   Whoever violates division (A)(4) of this section is guilty of using false information to purchase a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, a delinquent act that would be a misdemeanor of the first degree if it could be committed by an adult.

(9)   Whoever violates division (A)(5) of this section is guilty of improper purchase of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(R.C. §2925.55)

(B)  Unlawful retail sales.

(1)   (a) 1.      Except as provided in division (B)(1)(b) of this section, no retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs or an employee of a retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall knowingly sell, offer to sell, hold for sale, deliver, or otherwise provide to any individual an amount of pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product that is greater than either of the following:

  1. Three and six tenths grams within a period of a single day;
  1. Nine grams within a period of 30 consecutive days.
  1. The maximum amounts specified in divisions (B)(1)(a)1.a. and (B)(1)(a)1.b. of this section apply to the total amount of base pseudoephedrine or base ephedrine in the pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, respectively. The maximum amounts do not apply to the product’s overall weight.

(b) 1.      Division (B)(1)(a) of this section does not apply to any quantity of pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product dispensed by a pharmacist pursuant to a valid prescription issued by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs if the conduct of the pharmacist and the licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs is in accordance with R.C. Chapter 3719, 4715, 4723, 4729, 4730, 4731, or 4741.

  1. It is not a violation of division (B)(1)(a) of this section for a retailer, terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, or employee of either to provide to an individual more than an amount of pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product specified in division (B)(1)(a)1.a. or (B)(1)(a)1.b. of this section under either of the following circumstances:
  1. The individual is an employee of the retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, and the employee receives or accepts from the retailer, terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, or employee the pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product in a sealed container in connection with manufacturing, warehousing, placement, stocking, bagging, loading, or unloading of the product;
  1. A stop-sale alert is generated after the submission of information to the national precursor log exchange under the conditions described in R.C. §3715.052(A)(2).

(2)   (a)   Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this section, no retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs or an employee of a retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall sell, offer to sell, hold for sale, deliver, or otherwise provide a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to an individual who is under 18 years of age.

(b)   Division (B)(2)(a) of this section does not apply to any of the following:

  1. A licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs or pharmacist who dispenses, sells, or otherwise provides a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to an individual under 18 years of age and whose conduct is in accordance with R.C. Chapter 3719, 4715, 4723, 4729, 4730, 4731, or 4741;
  1. A parent or guardian of an individual under 18 years of age who provides a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to the individual;
  1. A person who, as authorized by the individual’s parent or guardian, dispenses, sells, or otherwise provides a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to an individual under 18 years of age;
  1. The provision by a retailer, terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, or employee of either of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product in a sealed container to an employee of the retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs who is under 18 years of age in connection with manufacturing, warehousing, placement, stocking, bagging, loading, or unloading of the product.

(3)   No retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall fail to comply with the requirements of R.C. §3715.051(A) or R.C. §3715.052(A)(2).

(4)   No retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall fail to comply with the requirements of R.C. §3715.052(A)(1).

(5)   Whoever violates division (B)(1)(a) of this section is guilty of unlawfully selling a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(6)   Whoever violates division (B)(2)(a) of this section is guilty of unlawfully selling a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to a minor, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.

(7)   Whoever violates division (B)(3) of this section is guilty of improper sale of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, a misdemeanor of the second degree.

(8)   Whoever violates division (B)(4) of this section is guilty of failing to submit information to the national precursor log exchange, a misdemeanor for which the offender shall be fined not more than $1,000 per violation.

(R.C. §2925.56)

(C)  Transaction scans.

(1)   As used in this division and division (D) of this section:

CARD HOLDER. Means any person who presents a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or an identification card to a seller, or an agent or employee of a seller, to purchase or receive any pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product from the seller, agent, or employee.

IDENTIFICATION CARD. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2927.021.

SELLER. Means a retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs.

TRANSACTION SCAN. Means the process by which a seller or an agent or employee of a seller checks by means of a transaction scan device the validity of a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or an identification card that is presented as a condition for purchasing or receiving any pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product.

TRANSACTION SCAN DEVICE. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §2927.021.

(2)   (a)   A seller or an agent or employee of a seller may perform a transaction scan by means of a transaction scan device to check the validity of a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card presented by a card holder as a condition for selling, giving away, or otherwise distributing to the card holder a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product.

(b)   If the information deciphered by the transaction scan performed under division (C)(2)(a) of this section fails to match the information printed on the driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card presented by the card holder, or if the transaction scan indicates that the information so printed is false or fraudulent, neither the seller nor any agent or employee of the seller shall sell, give away, or otherwise distribute any pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to the card holder.

(c)   Division (C)(2)(a) of this section does not preclude a seller or an agent or employee of a seller as a condition for selling, giving away, or otherwise distributing a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to the person presenting the document from using a transaction scan device to check the validity of a document other than a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or an identification card if the document includes a bar code or magnetic strip that may be scanned by the device.

(3)   Rules adopted by the Registrar of Motor Vehicles under R.C. §4301.61(C) apply to the use of transaction scan devices for purposes of this division (C) and division (D) of this section.

(4)   (a)   No seller or agent or employee of a seller shall electronically or mechanically record or maintain any information derived from a transaction scan, except the following:

  1. The name, address, and date of birth of the person listed on the driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card presented by a card holder;
  1. The expiration date, identification number, and issuing agency of the driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card presented by a card holder.

(b)   No seller or agent or employee of a seller shall use the information that is derived from a transaction scan or that is permitted to be recorded and maintained under division (C)(4)(a) of this section except for purposes of division (D) of this section, R.C. §2925.58, or R.C. §3715.052(A)(1).

(c)   No seller or agent or employee of a seller shall use a transaction scan device for a purpose other than the purpose specified in division (C)(2)(a) of this section.

(d)   No seller or agent or employee of a seller shall sell or otherwise disseminate the information derived from a transaction scan to any third party, including but not limited to selling or otherwise disseminating that information for any marketing, advertising, or promotional activities, but a seller or agent or employee of a seller may release that information pursuant to a court order or as specifically authorized by division (D) of this section or any other section of the Ohio Revised Code.

(5)   Nothing in this division (C) or division (D) of this section relieves a seller or an agent or employee of a seller of any responsibility to comply with any other applicable state or federal laws or rules governing the sale, giving away, or other distribution of pseudoephedrine products or ephedrine products.

(6)   Whoever violates division (C)(2)(b) or (C)(4) of this section is guilty of engaging in an illegal pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product transaction scan, and the court may impose upon the offender a civil penalty of up to $1,000 for each violation. The Clerk of the Court shall pay each collected civil penalty to the County Treasurer for deposit into the County Treasury.

(R.C. §2925.57)

(D)  Affirmative defenses.

(1)   A seller or an agent or employee of a seller may not be found guilty of a charge of a violation of division (B) of this section in which the age of the purchaser or other recipient of a pseudoephedrine product is an element of the alleged violation if the seller, agent, or employee raises and proves as an affirmative defense that all of the following occurred:

(a)   A card holder attempting to purchase or receive a pseudoephedrine product presented a driver’s or commercial driver’s license or an identification card.

(b)   A transaction scan of the driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card that the card holder presented indicated that the license or card was valid.

(c)   The pseudoephedrine product was sold, given away, or otherwise distributed to the card holder in reasonable reliance upon the identification presented and the completed transaction scan.

(2)   In determining whether a seller or an agent or employee of a seller has proven the affirmative defense provided by division (D)(1) of this section, the trier of fact in the action for the alleged violation of division (B) of this section shall consider any written policy that the seller has adopted and implemented and that is intended to prevent violations of division (B) of this section. For purposes of division (D)(1)(c) of this section, the trier of fact shall consider that reasonable reliance upon the identification presented and the completed transaction scan may require a seller or an agent or employee of a seller to exercise reasonable diligence to determine, and that the use of a transaction scan device does not excuse a seller or an agent or employee of a seller from exercising reasonable diligence to determine, the following:

(a)   Whether a person to whom the seller or agent or employee of a seller sells, gives away, or otherwise distributes a pseudoephedrine product is 18 years of age or older;

(b)   Whether the description and picture appearing on the driver’s or commercial driver’s license or identification card presented by a card holder is that of the card holder.

(3)   In any criminal action in which the affirmative defense provided by division (D)(1) of this section is raised, the Registrar of Motor Vehicles or a deputy registrar who issued an identification card under R.C. §§ 4507.50 through 4507.52 shall be permitted to submit certified copies of the records of that issuance in lieu of the testimony of the personnel of or contractors with the Bureau of Motor Vehicles in the action.

(R.C. §2925.58)

(E)  Retailers duties.

(1)   As used in divisions (E) and (F) of this section:

CONSUMER PRODUCT. Any food or drink that is consumed or used by humans and any drug, including a drug that may be provided legally only pursuant to a prescription, that is intended to be consumed or used by humans.

DRUG. Has the same meanings as in R.C. §4729.01.

EPHEDRINE. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of ephedrine, any of its salts, optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers.

EPHEDRINE PRODUCT. A consumer product that contains ephedrine.

LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICIAL. An officer or employee of any agency or authority of the United States, a state, a territory, a political subdivision of a state or territory, or an Indian tribe, who is empowered by the law to investigate or conduct an official inquiry into a potential violation of law or prosecute or otherwise conduct a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding arising from an alleged violation of law.

LICENSED HEALTH PROFESSIONAL AUTHORIZED TO PRESCRIBE DRUGS. Has the same meanings as in R.C. §4729.01.

NATIONAL PRECURSOR LOG EXCHANGE or EXCHANGE. The electronic system for tracking sales of pseudoephedrine products and ephedrine products on a national basis that is administered by the National Association of Drug Diversion Investigators or a successor organization.

PHARMACIST. A person licensed under R.C. Chapter 4729 to engage in the practice of pharmacy.

PHARMACY. Has the same meanings as in R.C. §4729.01.

PRESCRIBER. Has the same meanings as in R.C. §4729.01.

PRESCRIPTION. Has the same meanings as in R.C. §4729.01.

PROOF OF AGE. A driver’s license, a commercial driver’s license, a military identification card, a passport, or an identification card issued under R.C. §§ 4507.50 to 4507.52 that shows a person is 18 years of age or older.

PSEUDOEPHEDRINE. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of pseudoephedrine, any of its salts, optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers.

PSEUDOEPHEDRINE PRODUCT. A consumer product that contains pseudoephedrine.

RETAILER. A place of business that offers consumer products for sale to the general public.

SINGLE-INGREDIENT PREPARATION. A compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that contains a single active ingredient.

STOP-SALE ALERT. A notification sent from the national precursor log exchange to a retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs indicating that the completion of a sale of a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product would result in a violation of R.C. §2925.56(A)(1) or federal law.

TERMINAL DISTRIBUTOR OF DANGEROUS DRUGS. Has the same meanings as in R.C. §4729.01.

WHOLESALER. Has the same meaning as in R.C. §3719.01.

(2)   A retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs that sells, offers to sell, holds for sale, delivers, or otherwise provides a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product to the public shall do all of the following:

(a)   Segregate pseudoephedrine products or ephedrine products from other merchandise so that no member of the public may procure or purchase such products without the direct assistance of a pharmacist or other authorized employee of the retailer or terminal distributor of dangerous drugs;

(b)   With regard to each time a pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product is sold or otherwise provided without a valid prescription:

  1. Determine, by examination of a valid proof of age, that the purchaser or recipient is at least 18 years of age;
  1. a.      Using any information available, including information from the national precursor log exchange if the information is accessible, make a reasonable attempt to ensure that no individual purchases or receives an amount of pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product that is greater than either of the following:
  1. Three and six tenths grams within a period of a single day;
  1. Nine grams within a period of 30 consecutive days.
  1. The maximum amounts specified in divisions (E)(2)(b)2.a.i. and (E)(2)(b)2.a.ii. of this section apply to the total amount of base pseudoephedrine or base ephedrine in the pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product, respectively. The maximum amounts do not apply to the product’s overall weight.

(c)   Maintain a log book of pseudoephedrine product or ephedrine product purchases, in accordance with R.C. §3715.051;

(d)   If required to comply with section R.C. §3715.052, submit the information specified in divisions (A)(1)(a) to (A)(1)(d) of that section to the national precursor log exchange.

(3)   Prescriptions, orders, and records maintained pursuant to this section and stocks of pseudoephedrine products and ephedrine products shall be open for inspection to federal, state, county, and municipal officers, and employees of the State Board of Pharmacy whose duty it is to enforce the laws of this state or of the United States relating to controlled substances. Such prescriptions, orders, records, and stocks shall be open for inspection by the State Medical Board and its employees for purposes of enforcing R.C. Chapter 4731.

(R.C. §3715.05)

(F)   Theft or loss; reporting requirements.

(1)   Each retailer, terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, pharmacy, prescriber, or wholesaler that sells, offers to sell, holds for sale, delivers, or otherwise provides any pseudoephedrine product and that discovers the theft or loss of any pseudoephedrine product in an amount of more than nine grams per incident of theft or loss shall notify all of the following upon discovery of the theft or loss:

(a)   The State Board of Pharmacy, by telephone immediately upon discovery of the theft or loss;

(b)   Law enforcement authorities. If the incident is a theft and the theft constitutes a felony, the retailer, terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, pharmacy, prescriber, or wholesaler shall report the theft to the law enforcement authorities in accordance with R.C. §2921.22.

(2)   Within 30 days after making a report by telephone to the State Board of Pharmacy pursuant to division (F)(1)(a) of this section, a retailer, terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, pharmacy, prescriber, or wholesaler shall send a written report to the State Board of Pharmacy.

(3)   The reports required under this section shall identify the product that was stolen or lost, the amount of the product stolen or lost, and the date and time of discovery of the theft or loss.

(R.C. §3715.06)

§ 138.20  SALE OF PURE CAFFEINE PRODUCT.

(A)  As used in this section, PURE CAFFEINE PRODUCT means:

(1)   Subject to division (A)(2) of this section, a product that consists solely or primarily of caffeine and is manufactured into a crystalline, liquid, or powdered form.

(2)   The phrase does not include any of the following that contains caffeine and is formulated, manufactured, and labeled in accordance with the laws and regulations enforced by the United States Food and Drug Administration:

(a)   Coffee, tea, any soft drink, any energy drink, or any other caffeine‑containing beverage;

(b)   Any energy product.

(B)  Except as provided in division (C) of this section, no person shall knowingly sell or offer for sale a pure caffeine product.

(C)  Division (B) of this section does not prohibit a person from selling or offering for sale any product manufactured in a unit-dose form such as a pill, tablet, or caplet, but only if each unit dose of the product contains not more than 250 milligrams of caffeine.

(D)  Nothing in this section prohibits either of the following:

(1)   Possession of a product described in division (C) of this section;

(2)   Possession of a pure caffeine product by any of the following:

(a)   A food processing establishment, as defined in R.C. §3715.021;

(b)   A manufacturer of a drug that is available without a prescription;

(c)   A laboratory that holds a current, valid category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license issued by the state board of pharmacy under R.C. §4729.54;

(d)   A laboratory of any agency or department of this state that performs testing, analysis, and other laboratory services on behalf of the state;

(e)   A postal or delivery service that transports or delivers a pure caffeine product to an entity specified in divisions (D)(2)(a) to (D)(2)(d) of this section.

(E)  Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of illegal sale of pure caffeine, a minor misdemeanor on a first offense and a misdemeanor of the third degree on each subsequent offense.

(R.C. §2925.34)

§ 138.21  SALE OF DEXTROMETHORPHAN.

(A)  As used in this section:

DEXTROMETHORPHAN. Means the dextrorotatory isomer of 3-methoxy-N-methylmorphinan, including its salts, but not including its racemic or levorotatory forms.

EVIDENCE OF MAJORITY AND IDENTITY. Means a document issued by the federal government or a state, county, or municipal government, or a subdivision or agency of any of the foregoing, including a driver’s or commercial driver’s license, an identification card issued under R.C. §§ 4507.50 to 4507.52, a military identification card, or any other form of identification that bears the name, date of birth, description, and picture of the person identified.

RETAILER. Means a place of business that offers consumer products for sale to the general public, including a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs that is licensed under R.C. Chapter 4729 and operated as a pharmacy.

(B)  No retailer or employee of a retailer shall knowingly supply, deliver, give, or otherwise provide a drug, material, compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing any quantity of dextromethorphan through the sale of any product to a person under 18 years of age, unless the person has been issued a prescription for the product being purchased.

(C)  For purposes of division (B) of this section, the person making the sale of a product containing dextromethorphan shall require and obtain evidence of majority and identity from the purchaser, unless from the purchaser’s outward appearance the person making the sale would reasonably presume the purchaser to be 25 years of age or older. Proof that the person making the sale demanded, was shown, and acted in reasonable reliance on the purchaser’s evidence of majority and identity is a defense to any charge of a violation of division (B) of this section.

(D)  A retailer or employee of a retailer is not liable for damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an act or omission associated with a failure to prevent the sale of a product containing dextromethorphan to a person under 18 years of age, unless the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(E)  Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of illegally selling dextromethorphan, a minor misdemeanor.

(R.C. §2925.62)

TITLE XV: LAND USAGE

(This title is reserved for rules and regulations dealing with zoning, subdivisions, etc).

PARALLEL REFERENCES

Historical References to the Ohio Revised Code
References to Prior Code
References to District Rules and Regulations
References to Board Amendments

HISTORY REFERENCES TO OHIO REVISED CODE

R.C. Section Code Section
4513.23 74.14
4513.24 74.15
4513.241(C) – (J) 74.16
4513.241(K) 74.16
4513.26 74.16
4513.263 72.105
4513.30 74.32
4513.31 74.33
4513.36 72.016
4513.99 74.08, 74.16, 74.32, 74.33
4549.02 72.085
4549.021 72.086
4549.03 72.087
4549.05 73.02
4549.08 71.18
4549.081(B) 72.004
4549.081(C) 72.004
4549.11(A) 71.19
4549.11(B) 71.19
4549.12(A) 71.01
4549.12(B) 71.01
4731.481 138.18
4731.99(F) 138.18
4734.161 138.18
4734.99(B) 138.18
4933.18 131.39
4933.19 131.39
5589.12 131.08
5589.99(B) 131.08

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